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exam 2 > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a common sign of osteoarthritis?
A. Morning stiffness lasting more than an hour
B. Symmetrical joint swelling
C. Crepitus
D. Butterfly rash

A

C. Crepitus

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2
Q

What diagnostic imaging is typically used to confirm osteoarthritis?
A. MRI
B. CT scan
C. X-rays
D. Ultrasound

A

C. X-rays

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3
Q

Which of the following is a non-pharmacologic treatment for osteoarthritis?
A. Methotrexate
B. Corticosteroids
C. Acetaminophen
D. Physical therapy

A

D. Physical therapy

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4
Q

What are Heberden’s nodes associated with?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Gout
D. Lupus

A

B. Osteoarthritis

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5
Q

Which medication is often used as the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis pain?
A. NSAIDs
B. Acetaminophen
C. Corticosteroids
D. Methotrexate

A

B. Acetaminophen

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6
Q

What is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Symmetrical joint pain and swelling
B. Unilateral joint pain
C. Morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes
D. Heberden’s nodes

A

A. Symmetrical joint pain and swelling

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7
Q

Which blood test is commonly positive in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. ANA
B. ESR
C. Anti-CCP antibodies
D. CRP

A

C. Anti-CCP antibodies

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8
Q

What is a common deformity seen in advanced rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Swan neck deformity
B. Boutonniere deformity
C. Heberden’s nodes
D. Both A and B

A

A. Swan neck deformity
B. Boutonniere deformity

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9
Q

Which joint is most commonly affected in gouty arthritis?
A. Knee
B. First metatarsophalangeal joint
C. Shoulder
D. Wrist

A

B. First metatarsophalangeal joint

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10
Q

Which of the following is a systemic symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fever
B. Weight gain
C. High blood pressure
D. Hair loss

A

A. Fever

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11
Q

What diagnostic test is definitive for gout?
A. Serum uric acid level
B. Joint aspiration
C. X-ray
D. MRI

A

B. Joint aspiration

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12
Q

What lifestyle modification can help prevent gout recurrence?
A. High-protein diet
B. Increased alcohol intake
C. Weight loss
D. Smoking cessation

A

C. Weight loss

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13
Q

Which medication is used to treat acute gout attacks?
A. Allopurinol
B. Probenecid
C. Colchicine
D. Methotrexate

A

C. Colchicine

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14
Q

What is a common cause of low back pain?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Muscle strain
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Lupus

A

B. Muscle strain

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15
Q

Which type of crystals is found in the synovial fluid of patients with gout?
A. Calcium pyrophosphate
B. Monosodium urate
C. Hydroxyapatite
D. Cholesterol

A

B. Monosodium urate

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16
Q

Which of the following is a red flag symptom in low back pain?
A. Pain improved with rest
B. Morning stiffness
C. Saddle anesthesia
D. Muscle weakness

A

C. Saddle anesthesia

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17
Q

What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for low back pain?
A. Opioids
B. NSAIDs
C. Antibiotics
D. Antidepressants

A

B. NSAIDs

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18
Q

Which non-pharmacologic treatment is recommended for low back pain?
A. Bed rest
B. Physical therapy
C. Surgery
D. Steroid injections

A

B. Physical therapy

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19
Q

What condition should be considered if low back pain is accompanied by urinary retention?
A. Lumbar strain
B. Cauda equina syndrome
C. Sciatica
D. Herniated disc

A

B. Cauda equina syndrome

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20
Q

According to the Ottawa Ankle Rules, when should an ankle X-ray be performed?
A. If there is pain in the malleolar zone
B. If there is pain in the midfoot zone
C. If the patient is unable to bear weight
D. Both A and C

A

A. If there is pain in the malleolar zone
C. If the patient is unable to bear weight

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21
Q

What is the initial management for an acute MSK injury?
A. Immobilization and rest
B. Surgery
C. Radiation therapy
D. Chemotherapy

A

A. Immobilization and rest

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22
Q

Which grade of sprain involves a complete tear with complete instability?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV

A

C. Grade III

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23
Q

What is the PRICE method in managing acute MSK injuries?
A. Prevention, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
B. Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
C. Pressure, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
D. Pain relief, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

A

B. Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

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24
Q

. What is a common complication of fractures if not managed properly?
A. Infection
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperlipidemia

A

A. Infection

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25
Q

What is a non-surgical treatment option for carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Wrist splints
B. Corticosteroid injections
C. NSAIDs
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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25
Q

What is a risk factor for developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. High blood pressure
B. Repetitive wrist movements
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Both B and C

A

B. Repetitive wrist movements
C. Diabetes mellitus

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26
Q

Which physical exam test is used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Phalen’s maneuver
B. Straight leg raise test
C. Anterior drawer test
D. Talar tilt test

A

A. Phalen’s maneuver

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27
Q

What is the definitive treatment for severe carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Physical therapy
B. Surgical release
C. Acupuncture
D. Oral steroids

A

B. Surgical release

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28
Q

Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve

A

B. Median nerve

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29
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of lupus?
A. Joint pain
B. Malar rash
C. Fatigue
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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30
Q

How many criteria must be met for a diagnosis of lupus?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4

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31
Q

Which antibody is commonly positive in lupus?
A. Anti-CCP
B. ANA
C. RF
D. HLA-B27

A

B. ANA

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32
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic test for lupus?
A. Chest X-ray
B. ESR
C. Anti-dsDNA antibody
D. Rheumatoid factor

A

C. Anti-dsDNA antibody

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33
Q

What is a common hematologic abnormality in lupus?
A. Anemia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Both A and C

A

Anemia and thrombocytopenia

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34
Q

Which food should be avoided to prevent gout recurrence?
A. Dairy products
B. Red meat
C. Vegetables
D. Fruits

A

B. Red meat

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35
Q

What is an important aspect of patient education for gout management?
A. Regular exercise
B. Adequate hydration
C. Low-purine diet
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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36
Q

What is a common trigger for gout attacks?
A. Stress
B. Alcohol consumption
C. High-purine foods
D. Both B and C

A

B. Alcohol consumption
C. High-purine foods

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37
Q

Which medication can help prevent gout recurrence?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. NSAIDs
D. Corticosteroids

A

A. Allopurinol

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38
Q

What is a chronic complication of untreated gout?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Renal stones
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperlipidemia

A

B. Renal stones

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39
Q

Which symptom is considered a red flag in low back pain?
A. Pain relieved by rest
B. Morning stiffness
C. Unexplained weight loss
D. Muscle spasm

A

C. Unexplained weight loss

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40
Q

What should be suspected if low back pain is associated with fever and a history of IV drug use?
A. Muscle strain
B. Spinal infection
C. Herniated disc
D. Osteoarthritis

A

B. Spinal infection

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41
Q

What is a red flag symptom indicating possible cauda equina syndrome?
A. Low back pain with leg weakness
B. Pain radiating to the anterior thigh
C. Urinary incontinence
D. Morning stiffness

A

C. Urinary incontinence

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42
Q

Which diagnostic test is preferred for assessing low back pain with neurological deficits?
A. MRI
B. CT scan
C. X-ray
D. Ultrasound

A

A. MRI

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43
Q

When should a foot X-ray be ordered according to the Ottawa Foot Rules?
A. Pain in the midfoot zone
B. Inability to bear weight immediately after injury
C. Tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal
D. Both B and C

A

B. Inability to bear weight immediately after injury
C. Tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal

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44
Q

What is the primary goal of managing acute musculoskeletal injuries?
A. Pain control
B. Preventing chronic pain
C. Restoring function
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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45
Q

Which lab test is highly specific for lupus?
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Anti-dsDNA antibody
C. Anti-CCP antibody
D. ANA

A

B. Anti-dsDNA antibody

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46
Q

What type of rash is characteristic of lupus?
A. Malar rash
B. Vesicular rash
C. Petechial rash
D. Erythema nodosum

A

A. Malar rash

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47
Q

Which sign is positive when tapping over the median nerve elicits tingling?
A. Tinel’s sign
B. Phalen’s sign
C. Babinski’s sign
D. Hoffmann’s sign

A

A. Tinel’s sign

48
Q

What is a key component of the PRICE method?
A. Elevation
B. Heat application
C. High-impact exercise
D. Ultrasound therapy

A

A. Elevation

49
Q

What is a diagnostic criterion for lupus?
A. Symmetric joint involvement
B. ANA positivity
C. Elevated uric acid
D. Hyperlipidemia

A

B. ANA positivity

50
Q

What is a non-surgical management option for carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Wrist splints
B. Knee brace
C. Elbow pads
D. Ankle support

A

A. Wrist splints

51
Q

What is a common diagnostic test for carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Tinel’s sign
B. McMurray’s test
C. Phalen’s test
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

52
Q

According to the Ottawa rules, when is ankle radiography indicated?
A. Mild ankle pain without tenderness
B. Inability to bear weight immediately after injury
C. Pain only during activity
D. Swelling without tenderness

A

B. Inability to bear weight immediately after injury

53
Q

Which grade of sprain involves a complete tear with complete joint opening on stress?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4

A

C. Grade 3

54
Q

What is the first step in managing an acute musculoskeletal injury?
A. Surgery
B. PRICE therapy
C. MRI
D. Long-term rest

A

B. PRICE therapy

55
Q

What is a non-pharmacologic management strategy for low back pain?
A. Opioids
B. Physical therapy
C. Long-term bed rest
D. High-sugar diet

A

B. Physical therapy

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of low back pain?
A. Muscle strain
B. Herniated disc
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Osteoarthritis of the shoulder

A

D. Osteoarthritis of the shoulder

57
Q

What is considered a red flag in the evaluation of low back pain?
A. Pain relieved by rest
B. Chronic pain lasting over three months
C. Weight loss and fever
D. Pain that improves with exercise

A

C. Weight loss and fever

58
Q

Which medication is commonly used for the acute management of gout?
A. NSAIDs
B. Methotrexate
C. Hydroxychloroquine
D. Glucosamine

A

A. NSAIDS

58
Q

Which dietary recommendation is advised to prevent gout recurrence?
A. High-purine foods
B. Low-purine diet
C. High-fat diet
D. Low-carbohydrate diet

A

B. Low-purine diet

59
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of gouty arthritis?
A. Pain in the DIP joints
B. Symmetrical joint pain
C. Excruciating pain in the big toe
D. Morning stiffness lasting over an hour

A

C. Excruciating pain in the big toe

60
Q

Which lab test is highly specific for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?
A. ESR
B. CRP
C. Anti-CCP antibodies
D. ANA

A

Answer: C. Anti-CCP antibodies

61
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Asymmetric joint involvement
B. Symmetric joint involvement
C. Gel phenomenon lasting less than 30 minutes
D. Pain relieved by rest

A

Symmetric joint involvement

62
Q

What is the primary goal in managing osteoarthritis?
A. Cure the disease
B. Reduce pain and improve function
C. Increase body weight
D. Eliminate all joint deformities

A

B. Reduce pain and improve function

62
Q

Which joints are commonly affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
A. DIP joints
B. MCP joints
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

B. MCP joints

63
Q

Which sign is associated with osteoarthritis in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?
A. Bouchard’s nodes
B. Heberden’s nodes
C. Swan neck deformity
D. Boutonniere deformity

A

B. Heberden’s nodes

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common site affected by osteoarthritis?
A. DIP joints
B. PIP joints
C. MCP joints
D. Hips

A

C. MCP joints

65
Q

How is gout characterized?
A. Bilateral joint inflammation
B. Recurrent painful attacks of monoarticular joint inflammation
C. Symmetrical joint inflammation
D. Non-inflammatory joint pain

A

B. Recurrent painful attacks of monoarticular joint inflammation

66
Q

At what age does the peak incidence of gout occur?
A. 20-30 years
B. 30-40 years
C. 40-50 years
D. 50-60 years

A

C. 40-50 years

67
Q

What causes the symptoms of gout?
A. Overproduction of lactic acid
B. Underexcretion of uric acid
C. Overproduction of uric acid
D. Underexcretion of lactic acid

A

B. Underexcretion of uric acid

68
Q

What additional symptoms may be present in patients with polyarticular gout?
A. Mild pain and no systemic symptoms
B. Fever, tachycardia, anorexia, malaise, headache, and chills
C. Chronic pain with no fever
D. Unilateral joint involvement

A

B. Fever, tachycardia, anorexia, malaise, headache, and chills

68
Q

Which imaging finding can confirm a diagnosis of gout?
A. Symmetrical joint space narrowing
B. Asymmetric distribution, overhanging edge cortex, and punched-out erosion of the bone
C. Diffuse osteopenia
D. Uniform soft tissue swelling

A

B. Asymmetric distribution, overhanging edge cortex, and punched-out erosion of the bone

69
Q

Which clinical finding is typical in gout?
A. Symmetrical joint inflammation
B. Asymmetrical joint inflammation
C. Bilateral swelling of the same joint
D. No joint tenderness

A

B. Asymmetrical joint inflammation

70
Q

What are common symptoms reported by patients with gout?
A. Mild discomfort and occasional swelling
B. Excruciating pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling at the joint
C. Chronic dull ache with no swelling
D. Intermittent tingling with no redness

A

B. Excruciating pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling at the joint

70
Q

What term is often used to describe gout affecting the first metatarsal joint?
A. Pannus
B. Podagra
C. Phalanx
D. Patella

A

B. Podagra

71
Q

What is the most frequently affected joint in gout?
A. Knee
B. First metatarsal joint
C. Elbow
D. Wrist

A

B. First metatarsal joint

71
Q

What are tophi in the context of gout?
A. Soft tissue masses
B. Deposits of urate crystals
C. Swollen lymph nodes
D. Fluid-filled blisters

A

B. Deposits of urate crystals

72
Q

Where might tophi be found in patients with gout?
A. On the soles of the feet
B. In the pinna of the ear, helix of the ear, or olecranon
C. On the palms of the hands
D. In the lymph nodes

A

B. In the pinna of the ear, helix of the ear, or olecranon

72
Q

Which diagnostic marker is supportive of a gout diagnosis?
A. Serum urate level over 7.5
B. Decreased ESR
C. Low white blood cell count
D. Low CRP

A

A. Serum urate level over 7.5

73
Q

Which of the following is a secondary risk factor for gout?
A. Excessive intake of purine-rich foods
B. Low-fat diet
C. Regular exercise
D. High water intake

A

A. Excessive intake of purine-rich foods

74
Q

What is a primary risk factor for gout?
A. Overproduction of lactic acid
B. Enzyme deficiency
C. Decreased clearance of calcium
D. Overproduction of cholesterol

A

B. Enzyme deficiency

75
Q

Which imaging finding is indicative of gout?
A. Symmetrical joint space narrowing
B. Overhanging edge cortex and punched-out erosion of the bone
C. Uniform soft tissue swelling
D. Diffuse osteopenia

A

B. Overhanging edge cortex and punched-out erosion of the bone

76
Q

Why is joint aspiration not always pursued as the lead diagnostic method for gout, despite being the gold standard?
A. It is too expensive
B. It can increase the risk for infection and there are alternative treatments available
C. It is not accurate
D. It is too time-consuming

A

B. It can increase the risk for infection and there are alternative treatments available

77
Q

What is considered the gold standard for diagnosing gout?
A. Serum urate level measurement
B. Joint aspiration with identification of sodium urate crystals from the fluid
C. MRI of the affected joint
D. Physical examination alone

A

B. Joint aspiration with identification of sodium urate crystals from the fluid

78
Q

What can radiographic imaging provide in the diagnosis of gout?
A. Confirmation of osteoarthritis
B. Evidence of internal tophi, normal mineralization of bone and joint space preservation, asymmetric distribution, overhanging edge cortex, and punched-out erosion of the bone
C. Confirmation of rheumatoid arthritis
D. Evidence of symmetrical joint involvement

A

B. Evidence of internal tophi, normal mineralization of bone and joint space preservation, asymmetric distribution, overhanging edge cortex, and punched-out erosion of the bone

79
Q

Which medications can increase the risk of developing gout?
A. Beta-blockers and statins
B. Thiazide diuretics and cyclosporine
C. Aspirin and acetaminophen
D. Antibiotics and antihistamines

A

B. Thiazide diuretics and cyclosporin

80
Q

Which lab tests can be obtained to look for inflammation or signs of infection in suspected gout?
A. Serum glucose, liver enzymes, and hemoglobin
B. ESR, CRP, and white blood cell count
C. Cholesterol, triglycerides, and albumin
D. Sodium, potassium, and calcium

A

B. ESR, CRP, and white blood cell count

81
Q

Which of the following conditions should be included in the differential diagnosis of gout?
A. Septic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoporosis and osteopenia
C. Fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome
D. Lupus and systemic sclerosis

A

A. Septic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis

81
Q

What is a characteristic finding in chronic tophaceous gout?
A. Rapid joint healing
B. Absence of joint pain
C. Restriction of movement and chronic pain due to multiple sites of urate deposit
D. Acute inflammation and fever

A

C. Restriction of movement and chronic pain due to multiple sites of urate deposit

82
Q

When do second acute attacks of gout usually occur if they happen?
A. Within the first month after the initial attack
B. Within the first year after the initial attack
C. Within five years after the initial attack
D. Anytime after the initial attack

A

B. Within the first year after the initial attack

83
Q

What are the stages of gout?
A. Acute, subacute, chronic, and refractory
B. Asymptomatic, acute inflammatory, intercritical, and chronic tophaceous
C. Initial, moderate, severe, and terminal
D. Prodromal, active, latent, and recurrent

A

B. Asymptomatic, acute inflammatory, intercritical, and chronic tophaceous

83
Q

During which phase of gout are patients asymptomatic but still have deposits in their joints and bursae?
A. Asymptomatic phase
B. Acute inflammatory phase
C. Intercritical phase
D. Chronic tophaceous phase

A

A. Asymptomatic phase

84
Q

Which phase of gout is characterized by extremely painful, red hot joints and possibly pruritus and desquamation of the skin around the joint?
A. Asymptomatic phase
B. Acute inflammatory phase
C. Intercritical phase
D. Chronic tophaceous phase

A

B. Acute inflammatory phase

85
Q

When might surgery be indicated for patients with gout?
A. After the first acute attack
B. For small tophi that do not cause symptoms
C. For large or extensive tophi requiring resection
D. For initial diagnosis of gout

A

C. For large or extensive tophi requiring resection

85
Q

Patients presenting with gout, abdominal pain, neuropathy, and proteinuria may be experiencing symptoms related to what?
A. Diabetes
B. Lead exposure
C. Kidney failure
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

B. Lead exposure

86
Q

When should a patient with gout follow up after initiating anti-hyperuricemic therapy?
A. One to two weeks
B. Four to six weeks
C. Three months
D. Six months

A

B. Four to six weeks

86
Q

How often should renal function and serum uric acid levels be checked in patients with chronic gout?
A. Monthly
B. Every six months
C. Annually
D. Every two years

A

C. Annually

87
Q

What is an important hydration recommendation for patients on uricosuric agents?
A. Drink at least 1 liter of fluid per day
B. Drink over 3 liters of fluid per day
C. Limit fluid intake to 500 mL per day
D. Drink only when thirsty

A

B. Drink over 3 liters of fluid per day

88
Q

Which dietary modification is recommended for patients with gout?
A. Strict elimination of all purine-rich foods
B. Moderation of purine-rich foods
C. High protein diet
D. High fat die

A

B. Moderation of purine-rich foods

89
Q

After an acute gout attack, which therapy is recommended to help maintain and improve joint function?
A. Bed rest
B. Physical therapy
C. Prolonged use of ice packs
D. Avoiding all movement

A

B. Physical therapy

90
Q

During an acute gout attack, how long should ice packs be applied to the affected joint?
A. 10 to 20 minutes
B. 30 to 45 minutes
C. 1 to 2 hours
D. Continuously without breaks

A

A. 10 to 20 minutes

91
Q

What is the advised activity modification during the first 24 hours of an acute gout attack?
A. Increase weight-bearing activities
B. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges only
C. Start physical therapy immediately
D. Engage in intense exercise

A

B. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges only

92
Q

Which medication promotes the urination out of excessive uric acid?
A. Allopurinol
B. Febuxostat
C. Colchicine
D. Probenecid

A

D. Probenecid

93
Q

When should chronic pharmacologic prophylaxis be initiated for gout?
A. After the first acute attack
B. After the second or third acute attack
C. Only if serum uric acid is greater than 6 mg/dL
D. Only if patient is above 60 years of age

A

B. After the second or third acute attack

94
Q

For patients with advanced chronic kidney disease needing anti-inflammatory treatment for gout, which medication is typically utilized?
A. NSAIDs
B. Aspirin
C. Corticosteroids
D. Colchicine

A

C. Corticosteroids

94
Q

Colchicine can be used for which of the following?
A. Acute management only
B. Chronic management only
C. Both acute and chronic management
D. It is not used for gout management

A

C. Both acute and chronic management

95
Q

Which of the following is NOT recommended for treating acute gout due to its unpredictable effect on serum uric acid levels?
A. Indomethacin
B. Naprosyn
C. Aspirin
D. Colchicine

A

C. Aspirin

96
Q

What is the primary goal for managing an acute gout attack?
A. Increasing physical activity
B. Termination of the acute attack
C. Increasing uric acid levels
D. Promoting weight gain

A

B. Termination of the acute attack

97
Q

One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

A) Synovium
B) Tendons
C) Fascia
D) Bone

A

A) Synovium

98
Q

Connie is a 63-year-old seamstress who presents with pain at the base of her right thumb on abduction and extension of her right thumb. She also complains of pain on the radial side of her right wrist with lifting. Which of these diagnostic tests will help to determine if she has de Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A) Allen’s test
B) Tinel’s sign
C) Finkelstein’s test (Correct)
D) Phalen’s maneuver

A

C) Finkelstein’s test

99
Q

Debbie is a 43-year-old female being evaluated for a wrist injury. The clinician is assessing for median nerve compression by having Debbie maintain forced flexion of her wrist for 1 minute with the dorsal surface of each hand pressed together. Which of these tests did the clinician just perform?

A) Allen’s test
B) Tinel’s sign
C) Finkelstein’s test
D) Phalen’s test (Correct Answer)

A

D) Phalen’s test

100
Q

You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM but cannot move it above gravity. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1

A

C) 2

101
Q

On physical exam, enlargement of an 83-year-old patient’s distal interphalangeal joints is noted. Enlargement of these joints is known as:

A) Heberden’s nodes
B) Bouchard’s nodes
C) Tenosynovitis
D) Tinel’s sign

A

A) Heberden’s nodes

102
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A) Treatment that encourages fluid retention, to keep the joints lubricated, is an emphasis of treatment.
B) Corticosteroid injections are encouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome.
C) Splints are not used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they restrict complete movement of the fingers and wrist.
D) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. (Correct)

A

D) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

103
Q

Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

A) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
C) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
D) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

A

B) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

104
Q

Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5–S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

A) Numbness in the lateral foot
B) Saddle area anesthesia
C) A reduced or absent ankle reflex
D) Gastrocnemius weakness

A

B) Saddle area anesthesia

105
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is often associated with:

A) Obesity
B) High-purine diet
C) Systemic symptoms
D) Weight-bearing joints

A

C) Systemic symptoms (Correct)

106
Q

Imaging is recommended for a patient with back pain if:

A) The pain radiates to one or both legs.
B) Spinal nerve entrapment is suspected.
C) The patient is pregnant.
D) The history and physical exam do not suggest a cause.

A

A) The pain radiates to one or both legs.
B) Spinal nerve entrapment is suspected.

exam 2 (9 decks)

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