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cards dvt Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for DVT related to venous stasis?
A. Prolonged immobility
B. High blood pressure
C. Increased heart rate
D. Low cholesterol levels

A

A. Prolonged immobility

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2
Q

What is the goal INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy?
A. 1-2
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 4-5

A

B. 2-3

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3
Q

For patients with severe renal disease, which anticoagulant is preferred?
A. Warfarin
B. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
C. IV heparin
D. Low-dose fractionated heparin

A

B. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)

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4
Q

What is the preferred initial imaging test for DVT?
A. Chest X-ray
B. MRI
C. Compression ultrasound
D. CT scan

A

C. Compression ultrasound

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5
Q

What is a common use for the Modified-Wells criteria?
A. Diagnosing heart failure
B. Diagnosing pneumonia
C. Determining the likelihood of DVT or PE
D. Diagnosing chronic venous insufficiency

A

C. Determining the likelihood of DVT or PE

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6
Q

What diagnostic tool is considered the gold DVT standard but rarely used in practice?
A. MRI
B. Ascending venogram
C. Compression ultrasound
D. D-dimer test

A

B. Ascending venogram

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7
Q

Which of the following is an objective finding of DVT?
A. Dependent edema
B. Generalized fatigue
C. Dry skin
D. Low blood pressure

A

A. Dependent edema

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8
Q

Which of the following is a subjective report of DVT?
A. Calf muscle pain
B. Headache
C. Chest pain
D. Abdominal pain

A

A. Calf muscle pain

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8
Q

What component is part of Virchow’s triad?
A. Hypocoagulable state
B. Hypercoagulable state
C. Normal blood flow
D. Increased red blood cells

A

B. Hypercoagulable state

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9
Q

Which of the following is a potential complication of DVT?
A. Chronic venous insufficiency
B. Arterial insufficiency
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Hypertension

A

A. Chronic venous insufficiency

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9
Q

What is the primary characteristic of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Clot formation in the superficial veins
B. Clot formation in the deep vessels of the venous vasculature
C. Clot formation in the arterial system
D. Clot formation in the lymphatic system

A

B. Clot formation in the deep vessels of the venous vasculature

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9
Q

What is a common symptom reported by patients with DVT that involves swelling?
A. Generalized body swelling
B. Symmetrical leg swelling
C. Slight swelling or asymmetry between the legs
D. Swelling only in the upper body

A

C. Slight swelling or asymmetry between the legs

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10
Q

How might a patient with DVT describe the pain in their leg?
A. Sharp and intermittent
B. Generalized and dull
C. Muscle tenderness and localized
D. Radiating to the chest

A

C. Muscle tenderness and localized

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11
Q

Which of the following is a sign of DVT observed during a physical exam?
A. Fever
B. Dependent rubor
C. Dry skin
D. Low oxygen saturation

A

B. Dependent rubor

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11
Q

What physical exam finding is associated with DVT?
A. High blood pressure
B. Dependent edema
C. Low heart rate
D. Dry skin

A

B. Dependent edema

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12
Q

Which of the following is an objective finding in a patient with DVT?
A. Muscle tenderness
B. Slight swelling
C. Localized pain on exam
D. Asymmetry between the leg

A

C. Localized pain on exam

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12
Q

What is a subjective symptom reported by a patient with DVT?
A. Tender palpable cord
B. Calf muscle pain
C. Dependent rubor
D. Warmth and heat

A

B. Calf muscle pain

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12
Q

Which condition is part of a hypercoagulable state contributing to DVT?
A. Diabetes
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Prostate cancer
D. Hypertension

A

C. Prostate cancer

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13
Q

What can contribute to a vessel injury in the context of DVT?
A. Prolonged immobility
B. Surgery
C. High cholesterol
D. Low sodium intake

A

B. Surgery

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14
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for venous stasis?
A. Recent hip surgery
B. High cholesterol
C. Increased physical activity
D. Low blood pressure

A

A. Recent hip surgery

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14
Q

What are the components of Virchow’s triad for DVT risk factors?
A. High blood pressure, vessel injury, venous stasis
B. Venous stasis, vessel injury, hypercoagulable state
C. Low cholesterol, venous stasis, vessel injury
D. Hypercoagulable state, vessel injury, high blood pressure

A

B. Venous stasis, vessel injury, hypercoagulable state

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14
Q

What does a high or intermediate Wells score for DVT indicate?
A. No need for further investigation
B. A need for compression ultrasound
C. A need for MRI
D. A need for immediate surgery

A

B. A need for compression ultrasound

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14
Q

Which test is increasingly popular and available in primary care for low clinical probability of DVT?
A. MRI
B. D-dimer
C. Ascending venogram
D. Compression ultrasound

A

B. D-dimer

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15
Q

Why is the ascending venogram rarely used in practice today?
A. It is too expensive
B. It has a high risk for embolization
C. It is not as accurate as other tests
D. It requires general anesthesia

A

B. It has a high risk for embolization

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16
Q

How often should INR be monitored in stable patients on Warfarin therapy?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly to every three months
D. Every six months

A

C. Monthly to every three months

17
Q

Historically, what has been considered the gold standard diagnostic test for DVT?
A. MRI
B. D-dimer
C. Ascending venogram
D. Compression ultrasound

A

C. Ascending venogram

18
Q

What should be done for patients with DVT who require inpatient evaluation?
A. Start on direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
B. Start on low molecular weight heparins and later move to DOACs
C. Administer high doses of aspirin
D. Perform immediate surgery

A

B. Start on low molecular weight heparins and later move to DOACs

19
Q

Which complication is most notably associated with DVT?
A. Stroke
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Liver failure

A

B. Pulmonary embolism

20
Q

What is the purpose of using Sequential Compression Devices (SCDs) in the hospital setting for DVT prevention?
A. To increase blood pressure
B. To promote fluid retention
C. To prevent clot formation by enhancing venous return
D. To provide pain relief

A

C. To prevent clot formation by enhancing venous return

21
Q

What is the typical length of therapy for a provoked DVT?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

A

B. 3 months

22
Q

What is the most appropriate action if a patient with DVT is not ambulatory and at risk of bleeding?
A. Discharge with oral anticoagulants
B. Inpatient management with IV heparin
C. Home care with low-dose aspirin
D. No anticoagulation therapy

A

B. Inpatient management with IV heparin

23
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic test for further investigation of a high or intermediate clinical probability of DVT?
A. MRI
B. D-dimer
C. Compression ultrasound
D. Chest X-ray

A

C. Compression ultrasound

24
Q

When is a screening D-dimer not needed according to the Wells criteria?
A. When the patient has a low clinical probability of DVT
B. When the patient has a high or intermediate Wells score
C. When the patient has no symptoms
D. When the patient is on anticoagulation therapy

A

B. When the patient has a high or intermediate Wells score

25
Q

Which diagnostic test has low specificity and can be impacted by many different illnesses and recent surgery?
A. Compression ultrasound
B. D-dimer
C. Ascending venogram
D. MRI

A

B. D-dimer

26
Q

What does a low Wells score and a negative D-dimer indicate?
A. High probability of DVT
B. Low probability of DVT
C. High probability of PE
D. Low probability of PE

A

B. Low probability of DVT

27
Q

According to the Modified-Wells DVT criteria, what score indicates that a DVT is likely?
A. 0 or greater
B. 1 or greater
C. 2 or greater
D. 3 or greater

A

C. 2 or greater

28
Q

What should be emphasized to patients as part of DVT prophylaxis education?
A. Complete bed rest
B. Avoidance of all physical activities
C. Early ambulation and passive leg exercises
D. High protein diet

A

C. Early ambulation and passive leg exercises

29
Q

For a provoked DVT, what is the typical duration of anticoagulant therapy?
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. Twelve months

A

B. Three months

30
Q

Which patients should be managed inpatient when starting anticoagulant therapy?
A. Patients who are ambulatory and stable
B. Patients with no history of bleeding disorders
C. Patients who are not ambulatory or unstable
D. Patients who have already started on anticoagulants

A

C. Patients who are not ambulatory or unstable

31
Q

What is required when initiating Warfarin therapy?
A. No additional therapy
B. Bridge therapy for at least five days
C. Monitoring of PTT
D. Daily vitamin K injections

A

B. Bridge therapy for at least five days

32
Q

What is the initial anticoagulant therapy for patients with kidney disease who require inpatient evaluation?
A. Low molecular weight heparins
B. Direct oral anticoagulants
C. IV heparin
D. Warfarin

A

C. IV heparin

33
Q

What is a key consideration for patients on Warfarin regarding diet?
A. Avoidance of all vitamin supplements
B. Consistency in intake of vitamin K rich foods
C. Avoidance of all dairy products
D. High protein diet

A

B. Consistency in intake of vitamin K rich foods

34
Q

What is a disadvantage of direct-acting oral anticoagulants like rivaroxaban and apixaban?
A. They require bridge therapy
B. They need frequent lab monitoring
C. Cost is a prohibitive factor
D. They cannot be used in outpatient settings

A

C. Cost is a prohibitive factor

35
Q

Which of the following direct-acting oral anticoagulants does not require lab monitoring?
A. Warfarin
B. Dabigatran
C. Enoxaparin
D. Dalteparin

A

B. Dabigatran

36
Q

Which of the following conditions does NOT require inpatient management for blood thinner initiation?
A. Severe renal disease
B. Stable and ambulatory
C. Risk of bleeding
D. Unstable condition

A

B. Stable and ambulatory

37
Q

What is the primary focus of patient monitoring when on anticoagulants?
A. Assessing dietary intake
B. Assessing risk of bleeding
C. Increasing physical activity
D. Reducing medication dosage

A

B. Assessing risk of bleeding

38
Q

What is always a consideration when prescribing anticoagulants?
A. They are inexpensive
B. They have no side effects
C. Risk-benefit of bleeding
D. They are always appropriate

A

C. Risk-benefit of bleeding

39
Q

Why is patient education on the risk-benefit of anticoagulants important?
A. To encourage complete bed rest
B. To ensure patients avoid anticoagulants
C. To help patients understand the importance of bleeding risk
D. To reduce medication costs

A

C. To help patients understand the importance of bleeding risk

40
Q

What is the benefit of emphasizing early ambulation and passive leg exercises to patients?
A. To reduce dietary restrictions
B. To improve cardiovascular health
C. To prevent DVT
D. To enhance sleep quality

A

C. To prevent DVT

41
Q

Which clinical sign is included in the Wells score for DVT?
A. Fever
B. Tachycardia
C. Calf swelling
D. Headache

A

C. Calf swelling

42
Q

What is the first-line treatment for DVT?
A. Aspirin
B. Anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Antiplatelet agents

A

B. Anticoagulants

43
Q

. How long is anticoagulation therapy typically continued for a provoked DVT?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

A

C. 6 months

44
Q

What is the primary goal of DVT treatment?
A. Increase blood pressure
B. Relieve pain
C. Prevent thrombus extension and embolization
D. Reduce cholesterol levels

A

C. Prevent thrombus extension and embolization

45
Q

which medication is considered a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Aspirin

A

C. Rivaroxaban

46
Q

High-estrogen states, such as those caused by oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy, are associated with which component of Virchow’s Triad?
A. Venous stasis
B. Vessel injury
C. Hypercoagulability
D. All of the above

A

C. Hypercoagulability

47
Q

Which of the following is a possible cause of hypercoagulability?
A. Heart failure
B. Venous insufficiency
C. Inherited coagulation abnormalities
D. Indwelling IV catheters

A

C. Inherited coagulation abnormalities

48
Q

Post-myocardial infarction can lead to which component of Virchow’s Triad?
A. Venous stasis
B. Vessel injury
C. Hypercoagulability
D. All of the above

A

A. Venous stasis

49
Q

What component of Virchow’s Triad does trauma most directly contribute to?
A. Venous stasis
B. Vessel injury
C. Hypercoagulability
D. None of the above

A

B. Vessel injury

50
Q

Virchow’s Triad include

A

A. Venous stasis
B. Vessel injury
C. Hypercoagulability

51
Q

Which of the following is a cause of venous stasis?
A. Trauma
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Immobility
D. Cancer

A

C. Immobility

exam 2 (9 decks)

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