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hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Which body fluid is NOT a known transmission route for HIV?
A. Blood
B. Semen
C. Saliva
D. Breast milk

A

C. Saliva

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2
Q

What is the primary method of preventing mother-to-child transmission of HIV?
A. Avoiding breastfeeding
B. Using condoms
C. Treating the mother with ART during pregnancy
D. Regular exercise

A

C. Treating the mother with ART during pregnancy

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3
Q

What does PrEP stand for in HIV prevention?
A. Pre-exposure prophylaxis
B. Post-exposure prophylaxis
C. Pre-existing prevention
D. Preventive exposure protocol

A

A. Pre-exposure prophylaxis

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4
Q

What stage of HIV infection is characterized by flu-like symptoms?
A. Asymptomatic stage
B. Acute retroviral syndrome
C. Symptomatic stage
D. Progression to AIDS

A

B. Acute retroviral syndrome

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4
Q

What test is used to confirm a positive ELISA test for HIV?
A. Western Blot
B. Rapid antibody test
C. CBC
D. Urinalysis

A

A. Western Blot

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5
Q

What is the goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV management?
A. To cure HIV
B. To suppress viral load
C. To increase weight
D. To improve hearing

A

B. To suppress viral load

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6
Q

Which HIV prevention method involves taking medication after potential exposure?
A. PrEP
B. PEP
C. ART
D. DOT

A

B. PEP

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7
Q

What is a major opportunistic infection that defines the progression to AIDS?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis B

A

B. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

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8
Q

Which lab value is critical in determining the stage of HIV progression?
A. CD4 count
B. Hemoglobin
C. Platelet count
D. White blood cell count

A

A. CD4 count

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9
Q

What is the main advantage of early initiation of ART in HIV patients?
A. Prevention of HIV transmission
B. Weight gain
C. Improved vision
D. Increased appetite

A

A. Prevention of HIV transmission

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10
Q

Which hemoglobin level defines anemia in men according to the WHO?
A. < 13 g/dL
B. < 12 g/dL
C. < 11 g/dL
D. < 10 g/dL

A

A. < 13 g/dL

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11
Q

What MCV value is indicative of microcytic anemia?
A. > 100 fL
B. 80–100 fL
C. < 80 fL
D. 70–90 fL

A

C. < 80 fL

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12
Q

Which type of anemia is characterized by macrocytic cells?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia

A

C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

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13
Q

What RDW value range is considered normal?
A. 11.5–13.5%
B. 10–12%
C. 14–16%
D. 12–14%

A

A. 11.5–13.5%

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14
Q

Which test measures the average size of red blood cells?
A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. RDW

A

A. MCV

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15
Q

What is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Acute blood loss
B. Hemolysis
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. G6PD deficiency

A

A. Acute blood loss

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16
Q

What laboratory finding is typical in iron deficiency anemia?
A. High MCV
B. Low serum ferritin
C. Increased TIBC
D. Both B and C

A

B. Low serum ferritin
C. Increased TIBC

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17
Q

Which food is rich in iron?
A. Oranges
B. Spinach
C. Milk
D. Bread

A

B. Spinach

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18
Q

What is the treatment of choice for iron deficiency anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 injections
B. Oral iron supplements
C. Blood transfusion
D. Folic acid supplements

A

B. Oral iron supplements

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19
Q

What is a typical symptom of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Fatigue
B. Weight gain
C. Shortness of breath
D. Both A and C

A

A. Fatigue
C. Shortness of breath

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20
Q

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with chronic disease anemia?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Acute infection
C. Hemolysis
D. Acute blood loss

A

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

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21
Q

What is the typical RBC morphology in anemia of chronic disease?
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Normocytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. Spherocytic

A

B. Normocytic, normochromic

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22
Q

Which lab finding is expected in anemia of chronic disease?
A. Increased TIBC
B. Decreased serum ferritin
C. Normal or increased serum ferritin
D. Increased serum iron

A

C. Normal or increased serum ferritin

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23
Q

What is the primary treatment for chronic disease anemia?
A. Iron supplements
B. Treating the underlying condition
C. Vitamin B12 injections
D. Blood transfusions

A

B. Treating the underlying condition

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24
Q

Which inflammatory marker is often elevated in anemia of chronic disease?
A. CRP
B. LDH
C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin

A

A. CRP

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25
Q

Which food should be avoided in patients with G6PD deficiency?
A. Milk
B. Fava beans
C. Oranges
D. Bread

A

B. Fava beans

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26
Q

What is the main complication of G6PD deficiency?
A. Hemolysis
B. Iron overload
C. Chronic infection
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

A. Hemolysis

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27
Q

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of G6PD deficiency during an acute episode?
A. Heinz bodies
B. Howell-Jolly bodies
C. Spherocytes
D. Target cells

A

A. Heinz bodies

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28
Q

What is a common trigger for hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
A. Folic acid
B. Certain medications (e.g., Bactrim, aspirin)
C. High-protein diet
D. Physical exercise

A

B. Certain medications (e.g., Bactrim, aspirin)

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29
Q

What is the primary management strategy for G6PD deficiency?
A. Iron supplementation
B. Avoiding hemolytic triggers
C. Vitamin B12 injections
D. Blood transfusions

A

B. Avoiding hemolytic triggers

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30
Q

What type of anemia is sickle cell anemia?
A. Microcytic
B. Normocytic
C. Macrocytic
D. Hyperchromic

A

B. Normocytic

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31
Q

Which test is used to diagnose sickle cell anemia?
A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
B. Serum ferritin
C. Vitamin B12 level
D. Peripheral smear

A

A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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32
Q

Which symptom is commonly seen in sickle cell anemia?
A. Jaundice
B. Splenomegaly
C. Pain crises
D. All of the above

A

. Jaundice
B. Splenomegaly
C. Pain crises
D. All of the above

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33
Q

What is a common long-term complication of sickle cell anemia?
A. Renal failure
B. Stroke
C. Osteomyelitis
D. All of the above

A

A. Renal failure
B. Stroke
C. Osteomyelitis
D. All of the above

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34
Q

Which medication can reduce the frequency of pain crises in sickle cell anemia?
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Folic acid
C. Aspirin
D. Vitamin B12

A

A. Hydroxyurea

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35
Q

What type of anemia is thalassemia?
A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic
C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. Hemolytic

A

B. Microcytic, hypochromic

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36
Q

What is the primary cause of thalassemia?
A. Nutritional deficiency
B. Genetic mutation
C. Chronic infection
D. Autoimmune disorder

A

B. Genetic mutation

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37
Q

. Which laboratory finding is typical in thalassemia?
A. Increased MCV
B. Decreased RDW
C. Increased serum iron
D. Decreased MCH

A

D. Decreased MCH

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38
Q

What is the main treatment for severe thalassemia?
A. Iron supplements
B. Blood transfusions
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitamin B12 injections

A

B. Blood transfusions

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39
Q

Which complication is associated with frequent blood transfusions in thalassemia?
A. Iron overload
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyponatremia

A

A. Iron overload

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40
Q

Which type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Normocytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. Hemolytic

A

C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic

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41
Q

Which symptom is specific to vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
A. Neuropathy
B. Weight gain
C. Hyperactivity
D. Jaundice

A

A. Neuropathy

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42
Q

What is the primary cause of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
A. Dietary deficiency
B. Iron overload
C. Hemolysis
D. G6PD deficiency

A

A. Dietary deficiency

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43
Q

What is the typical treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
A. Oral iron supplements
B. Vitamin B12 injections
C. Folic acid supplements
D. Blood transfusions

A

B. Vitamin B12 injections

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44
Q

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
A. Decreased MCV
B. Increased RDW
C. Decreased serum iron
D. Increased serum ferritin

A

B. Increased RDW

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45
Q

Which type of anemia is caused by folic acid deficiency?
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Normocytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. Hemolytic

A

C. Macrocytic, hyperchromic

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46
Q

What is a common cause of folic acid deficiency anemia?
A. Chronic infection
B. Poor dietary intake
C. Hemolysis
D. G6PD deficiency

A

B. Poor dietary intake

47
Q

Which symptom is associated with folic acid deficiency anemia?
A. Atrophic Glossitis
B. Neuropathy
C. Weight gain
D. Hypertension

A

A. Atrophic Glossitis

48
Q

What is the primary treatment for folic acid deficiency anemia?
A. Iron supplements
B. Folic acid supplements
C. Vitamin B12 injections
D. Blood transfusions

A

B. Folic acid supplements

49
Q

Which laboratory finding is typical in folic acid deficiency anemia?
A. Increased MCV
B. Decreased RDW
C. Increased serum ferritin
D. Decreased serum iron

A

A. Increased MCV

50
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recommended method to prevent HIV transmission?
A. Use of condoms
B. Sharing needles
C. Regular HIV testing
D. PrEP for high-risk individuals

A

B. Sharing needles

51
Q

Which body fluid does NOT transmit HIV?
A. Blood
B. Semen
C. Sweat
D. Breast milk

A

C. Sweat

52
Q

Which stage of HIV infection is characterized by flu-like symptoms?
A. Asymptomatic stage
B. Acute retroviral syndrome
C. Symptomatic stage
D. AIDS

A

B. Acute retroviral syndrome

53
Q

Which test is used to measure the average size of red blood cells?
A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. RDW

A

A. MCV

54
Q

What is a common cause of microcytic, hypochromic anemia?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic disease
D. Hemolysis

A

A. Iron deficiency

55
Q

Which lab finding indicates iron deficiency anemia?
A. High MCV
B. Low serum ferritin
C. Increased TIBC
D. Both B and C

A

B. Low serum ferritin
C. Increased TIBC

56
Q

What is the primary goal in managing HIV?
A. Reducing symptoms
B. Achieving an undetectable viral load
C. Increasing CD4 counts only
D. Preventing all opportunistic infections

A

B. Achieving an undetectable viral load

57
Q

which body fluids are involved in the transmission of HIV?
A. Saliva, tears, and sweat
B. Blood, semen, and breast milk
C. Urine, sweat, and saliva
D. Tears, urine, and semen

A

B. Blood, semen, and breast milk

58
Q

Why is it important to apply universal precautions in HIV management?
A. To increase awareness of HIV
B. To prevent the spread of HIV and other infections
C. To treat HIV more effectively
D. To monitor CD4 counts regularly

A

B. To prevent the spread of HIV and other infections

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a high-risk group for HIV transmission?
A. Men who have sex with men
B. Individuals with multiple sex partners
C. Sex workers
D. Monogamous married couples

A

D. Monogamous married couples

60
Q

What is essential for high-risk groups in managing HIV?
A. Regular STI screening and holistic care
B. Monthly hospital visits
C. Annual HIV testing only
D. Avoiding all medications

A

A. Regular STI screening and holistic care

61
Q

During which stage of HIV infection does the virus present but not cause symptoms?
A. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
B. Asymptomatic Stage
C. Symptomatic Stage
D. Progression to AIDS

A

B. Asymptomatic Stage

62
Q

What defines the progression to AIDS in HIV patients?
A. CD4 counts above 200
B. CD4 counts below 200 or the presence of AIDS-defining illnesses
C. Presence of acute retroviral syndrome
D. Absence of any symptoms

A

B. CD4 counts below 200 or the presence of AIDS-defining illnesses

63
Q

What characterizes the symptomatic stage of HIV infection?
A. No symptoms present
B. Presence of classic symptoms and opportunistic infections
C. CD4 counts are above 500
D. Virus is undetectable

A

B. Presence of classic symptoms and opportunistic infections

64
Q

Which stage of HIV infection is characterized by the initial infection period?
A. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
B. Asymptomatic Stage
C. Symptomatic Stage
D. Progression to AIDS

A

A. Acute Retroviral Syndrome

65
Q

What is an important aspect of educating patients about HIV transmission?
A. Only focusing on blood transmission
B. Ignoring the risk from breast milk
C. Understanding transmission through body fluids
D. Emphasizing transmission through casual contact

A

C. Understanding transmission through body fluids

66
Q

What is the purpose of performing genetic testing of the virus in newly diagnosed HIV patients?
A. To determine the patient’s ancestry
B. To assess the suitability of medications
C. To confirm the diagnosis
D. To monitor liver function

A

B. To assess the suitability of medications

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically included in the lab work for newly diagnosed HIV patients?
A. Lipid panels
B. CBCs
C. STI screenings
D. Allergy tests

A

D. Allergy tests

68
Q

What must be confirmed before starting Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)?
A. The patient is already on antiretroviral therapy
B. The patient has a history of HIV infection
C. The patient is HIV-negative
D. The patient has completed PEP

A

C. The patient is HIV-negative

69
Q

Which screening test for HIV can be performed at home and purchased over the counter?
A. Western Blot
B. ELISA
C. Rapid HIV test
D. PCR test

A

C. Rapid HIV test

70
Q

Which of the following statements about Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) is true?
A. PrEP is only taken after potential exposure to HIV
B. PrEP should be taken continuously by high-risk individuals
C. PrEP is effective regardless of the patient’s HIV status
D. PrEP should be discontinued if the patient becomes HIV-positive

A

B. PrEP should be taken continuously by high-risk individuals

71
Q

What does a high viral load indicate in an HIV patient?
A. Effective antiretroviral therapy
B. Low risk of transmission
C. High level of HIV in the blood
D. Successful HIV eradication

A

C. High level of HIV in the blood

72
Q

Why are lipid panels included in the lab tests for newly diagnosed HIV patients?
A. To monitor kidney function
B. To assess cardiovascular risk factors
C. To evaluate liver function
D. To check for anemia

A

B. To assess cardiovascular risk factors

73
Q

. In interpreting HIV lab results, what does a reactive result in an antigen/antibody fourth-generation test indicate?
A. The patient is definitely HIV-negative
B. Further testing is required to confirm HIV status
C. The patient has a different viral infection
D. The patient should start treatment immediately

A

B. Further testing is required to confirm HIV status

74
Q

If a patient’s HIV-1 antibody test is positive and the HIV-2 antibody test is negative, what is the next recommended step?
A. Retest with a different method
B. Start immediate antiretroviral therapy
C. Obtain a viral load test
D. No further action is needed

A

C. Obtain a viral load test

75
Q

What does a negative result in the HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody tests combined with a negative viral load indicate?
A. The patient is HIV-positive
B. The patient has an undetectable viral load
C. The patient is HIV-negative
D. The tests should be repeated in one month

A

C. The patient is HIV-negative

76
Q

What should be done if an HIV test shows reactive results but the HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies are negative and the viral load is negative?
A. Confirm the patient is HIV-negative and provide reassurance
B. Conduct an immediate follow-up test
C. Initiate antiretroviral therapy
D. Refer the patient to a specialist for further evaluation

A

A. Confirm the patient is HIV-negative and provide reassurance

76
Q

Why is it important for clinicians to assess HIV lab results before releasing them to patients?
A. To avoid unnecessary panic and misinterpretation
B. To prepare a treatment plan immediately
C. To ensure that the patient is informed by mail
D. To adjust the medication dosage accurately

A

A. To avoid unnecessary panic and misinterpretation

77
Q

In the context of HIV testing, what does a fourth-generation test detect?
A. Only HIV antibodies
B. Only HIV antigens
C. Both HIV antigens and antibodies
D. Viral RNA directly

A

C. Both HIV antigens and antibodies

78
Q

What is the significance of detecting HIV-1 antibody but not HIV-2 antibody in a fourth-generation test?
A. The patient has a false-positive result
B. The patient is infected with HIV-1 but not HIV-2
C. The patient is likely immune to HIV-2
D. The test needs to be repeated

A

B. The patient is infected with HIV-1 but not HIV-2

79
Q

When a fourth-generation HIV test is reactive, but subsequent antibody tests are negative, what might be the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The patient is in the early stage of HIV infection
B. The tests are faulty and should be disregarded
C. The patient has another type of viral infection
D. The patient is in the late stage of HIV infection

A

A. The patient is in the early stage of HIV infection

80
Q

Why is it crucial to perform a viral load test after a positive HIV-1 antibody test?
A. To determine the patient’s response to vaccines
B. To quantify the amount of virus present in the blood
C. To check for co-infections
D. To assess the patient’s CD4 count

A

B. To quantify the amount of virus present in the blood

81
Q
  1. What does a “qualitative negative” result indicate in an HIV test?
    A. The test was not performed correctly
    B. The patient is HIV-negative
    C. The patient’s viral load is very high
    D. The patient needs to be retested immediately
A

B. The patient is HIV-negative

82
Q

What is the recommended initial approach for disclosing an HIV diagnosis to a patient?
A. Over the phone
B. By mail
C. Face-to-face
D. Through an email

A

C. Face-to-face

83
Q
  1. Why is it important to encourage patients to disclose their HIV status to significant others and the state health department?
    A. To receive financial benefits
    B. For prevention of transmission and legal compliance
    C. To get free medication
    D. To join a support group
A

B. For prevention of transmission and legal compliance

84
Q
  1. When should HIV drug therapy be initiated?
    A. Only after symptoms appear
    B. As soon as possible after diagnosis
    C. When the patient reaches a certain age
    D. After a year of monitoring
A

B. As soon as possible after diagnosis

85
Q

What is the goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV management?
A. To cure HIV completely
B. To delay treatment until symptoms worsen
C. Maximal suppression of the viral load and delay resistance development
D. To reduce treatment to once a year

A

C. Maximal suppression of the viral load and delay resistance development

86
Q

How are HIV medications typically administered to maximize their effectiveness?
A. As a single agent
B. Three agents from two different classes
C. Two agents from the same class
D. Four agents from four different classes

A

B. Three agents from two different classes

87
Q
  1. What is the significance of the “U equals U” campaign in HIV management?
    A. It refers to universal health coverage for HIV patients
    B. It highlights that Undetectable equals Untransmittable
    C. It stands for Unlimited Usage of medications
    D. It is a campaign for new HIV vaccines
A

B. It highlights that Undetectable equals Untransmittable

88
Q

What are the types of medications used in combination for HIV treatment?
A. NRTIs, NNRTIs, integrase inhibitors, entry inhibitors, protease inhibitors, attachment inhibitors, and post-attachment inhibitors
B. Antibiotics, antivirals, anti-inflammatory drugs
C. Pain relievers, vitamins, supplements
D. Antidepressants, antipsychotics, mood stabilizers

A

A. NRTIs, NNRTIs, integrase inhibitors, entry inhibitors, protease inhibitors, attachment inhibitors, and post-attachment inhibitors

89
Q

Why are pharmacokinetic enhancers (PKEs) used in HIV treatment?
A. To increase the number of medications taken
B. To reduce side effects and enhance the effectiveness of other medications
C. To replace other HIV medications
D. To be taken as standalone treatments

A

B. To reduce side effects and enhance the effectiveness of other medications

90
Q

How often should viral load be monitored after initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART)?
A. Monthly
B. Every two years
C. Initially, then 2-3 weeks later, 4-6 weeks after initiation, and then every 3-4 months
D. Every week

A

C. Initially, then 2-3 weeks later, 4-6 weeks after initiation, and then every 3-4 months

91
Q

What does effective HIV therapy result in within 8 to 12 weeks?
A. Complete eradication of the virus
B. Full viral suppression
C. Mild reduction in viral load
D. Increased viral load

A

B. Full viral suppression

92
Q

What is an essential aspect of follow-up care for people living with HIV?
A. Monthly CT scans
B. Regular screenings for other chronic diseases
C. Annual physical exams
D. Quarterly bone density tests

A

B. Regular screenings for other chronic diseases

93
Q

. What are AIDS-defining illnesses?
A. Diseases that only occur in children
B. Illnesses specifically linked to cancer
C. Conditions that meet the criteria for AIDS, such as HIV-related encephalopathy and CMV retinitis
D. Acute illnesses that resolve on their own

A

C. Conditions that meet the criteria for AIDS, such as HIV-related encephalopathy and CMV retinitis

94
Q

. How often should CD4 counts be monitored in a patient with AIDS?
A. Annually
B. Every 6 months
C. Every month
D. Every 3 to 6 months

A

D. Every 3 to 6 months

95
Q

Who is a candidate for pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)?
A. Anyone over 40 years old
B. Patients with chronic illnesses
C. Individuals in serodiscordant relationships, men who have sex with men, and IV drug users
D. Only people with HIV

A

C. Individuals in serodiscordant relationships, men who have sex with men, and IV drug users

96
Q

. What is the estimated reduction in HIV spread through sexual contact by using PrEP?
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 90%
D. 100%

A

C. 90%

97
Q

What is the key to the effectiveness of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)?
A. Administering the medication within 24 hours of exposure
B. Administering the medication within 72 hours of exposure
C. Taking a single dose of medication
D. Using antibiotics instead of antivirals

A

B. Administering the medication within 72 hours of exposure

98
Q

What type of support is crucial during the period of PEP treatment?
A. Financial support
B. Educational and emotional support
C. Only medical support
D. Housing support

A

B. Educational and emotional support

98
Q

What should be included in the initial assessment before starting PrEP?
A. Complete physical examination
B. HIV, hepatitis, renal, and liver function tests
C. Bone density scan
D. Genetic testing

A

B. HIV, hepatitis, renal, and liver function tests

99
Q
  1. What is the appropriate action if a patient on PEP tests HIV-positive after exposure?
    A. Stop all medications immediately
    B. Continue PEP without changes
    C. Switch to a long-term antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen
    D. No further treatment is needed
A

C. Switch to a long-term antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen

100
Q

CBC: HCT 24%, MCV 72, ferritin decreased, iron decreased, transferrin saturation decreased, and TIBC increased
What type of anemia is indicated by these lab results?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: A. Iron-deficiency anemia (low HCT and MCV indicating microcytic anemia, low ferritin, low iron, low transferrin saturation, and high TIBC are consistent with iron-deficiency anemia)

101
Q

CBC: HCT 28%, MCV 102, folate >20, B12 280
What type of anemia is indicated by these lab results?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease

A

C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
since MCV is high indicating macrocytic anemia, but B12 is within the low-normal range, this suggests a possible B12 deficiency or early stage

102
Q

CBC: HCT 28%, MCV 102, folate 4, B12 >2000
What type of anemia is indicated by these lab results?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: B. Folate deficiency anemia (high MCV indicating macrocytic anemia, low folate level, and high B12 level suggest folate deficiency)

103
Q

CBC: HCT 25%, MCV 78, ferritin normal, iron decreased, transferrin saturation normal, and TIBC decreased
What type of anemia is indicated by these lab results?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Sideroblastic anemia

A

Answer: C. Anemia of chronic disease (low HCT and MCV indicating microcytic or normocytic anemia, normal ferritin, low iron, normal transferrin saturation, and low TIBC suggest anemia of chronic disease)

104
Q

The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?

A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B) Western blot
C) Viral load
D) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test

A

A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

105
Q

Which of the following tests would you order for an adult diabetic male with the following CBC results?
Hb 11g/dL, Hct 38%, and MCV of 105 fl. His reticulocyte count is normal.

A) Serum folate and B12 level
B) Serum ferritin and peripheral smear
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D) Schilling test

A

A) Serum folate and B12 level

106
Q

As a rule of thumb, the estimated hematocrit level is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?

A) Five
B) Three
C) Four
D) Two

A

B) Three

107
Q

Which of the following is the cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis?

A) Nausea
B) Lightheadedness
C) Pain
D) Palpitations

A

C) Pain

108
Q

The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

A) Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
B) Complete sexual abstinence
C) Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
D) Complete eradication of the virus

A

C) Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood

109
Q

Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder of craving for food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?

A) Pica
B) Hypochromasia
C) Ferritin
D) Porter’s syndrome

A

A) Pica

110
Q

Which statement about HIV occupational postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health care workers is the most accurate?

A) PEP should be started within hours of exposure.
B) PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure. (Correct Answer)
C) PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.
D) Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.

A

B) PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.

111
Q

Peripheral neuropathy can be seen in the setting of which type of anemia?

A) Iron deficiency
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Folate deficiency

A

B) Vitamin B12 deficiency

112
Q

A patient with known iron deficiency anemia is asking about food items that can help their condition. Which of the following food(s) would you recommend as the APRN?

A) Iron-fortified cereals and grains
B) Dark green leafy vegetables
C) Dried fruit including apricots and raisins
D) All of these

A

D) All of these

113
Q

Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?

A) The eradication of the HIV
B) Disease progression
C) A favorable prognostic trend
D) The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s medications

A

C) A favorable prognostic trend

exam 2 (9 decks)

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