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exam 2 > Cards/hypertension > Flashcards

Cards/hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure (SBP) in adults?
A. < 120 mm Hg
B. 120-129 mm Hg
C. 130-139 mm Hg
D. ≥ 140 mm Hg

A

A. < 120 mm Hg

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2
Q

. Which of the following is considered Stage 2 hypertension?
A. SBP 120 mm Hg
B. SBP 130 mm Hg
C. SBP 140 mm Hg
D. SBP 150 mm Hg

A

C. SBP 140 mm Hg

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3
Q

Which class of medications is considered first-line for hypertension management?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D. Antidepressants
-

A

B. Diuretics

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3
Q
  1. Which diagnostic test is used to assess renal function in hypertensive patients?
    A. Urinalysis
    B. Blood glucose
    C. 12-lead ECG
    D. Brain natriuretic
A

A. Urinalysis

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4
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of hypertension management?
    A. Lowering cholesterol levels
    B. Reducing morbidity and mortality associated with hypertension
    C. Increasing blood glucose levels
    D. Managing weight loss
A

B. Reducing morbidity and mortality associated with hypertension

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5
Q

What dietary approach is recommended for hypertensive patients?
A. High-sodium diet
B. DASH diet
C. Low-protein diet
D. High-fat diet

A

B. DASH diet

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6
Q

What is the recommended sodium intake for hypertensive patients?
A. > 2,000 mg/day
B. < 1,000 mg/day
C. 3,500-5,000 mg/day
D. < 1,500 mg/day

A

D. < 1,500 mg/day

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7
Q
  1. What is the recommended duration of aerobic exercise per week for hypertensive patients?
    A. 30 minutes
    B. 60 minutes
    C. 90-150 minutes
    D. 180 minutes
A

C. 90-150 minutes

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8
Q
  1. What should be monitored regularly in patients on ACE inhibitors or ARBs?
    A. Serum potassium and creatinine levels
    B. Blood glucose levels
    C. Lipid profile
    D. Urinalysis for proteinuria
A

A. Serum potassium and creatinine levels

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9
Q

Which condition involves elevated BP in clinical settings but normal at home?
A. Secondary hypertension
B. White coat hypertension
C. Stage 1 hypertension
D. Masked hypertension

A

B. White coat hypertension

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10
Q

Which demographic group has specific recommendations for hypertension management?
A. Children
B. Elderly
C. Pregnant women
D. All of the above

A

All the above

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10
Q

. What is a potential complication of hypertensive urgency?
A. Bradycardia
B. Stroke
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Obesity

A

B. Stroke

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11
Q
  1. What is the purpose of measuring blood pressure on multiple occasions for diagnosis?
    A. To increase patient anxiety
    B. To confirm hypertension
    C. To save time
    D. To avoid diagnosis
A

B. To confirm hypertension

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12
Q

Which diagnostic test is used to evaluate left ventricular hypertrophy in hypertensive patients?
A. Urinalysis
B. Blood glucose
C. 12-lead ECG
D. Brain natriuretic peptide

A

C. 12-lead ECG

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13
Q
  1. What is the BP goal for hypertensive patients with diabetes or chronic kidney disease?
    A. < 140/90 mm Hg
    B. < 130/80 mm Hg
    C. < 120/80 mm Hg
    D. < 150/90 mm Hg
A

B. < 130/80 mm Hg

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14
Q
  1. What is the term for elevated BP at home but normal in clinical settings?
    A. White coat hypertension
    B. Masked hypertension
    C. Stage 1 hypertension
    D. Secondary hypertension
A

B. Masked hypertension

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15
Q

What is the primary goal of hypertension management?
A. To reduce blood sugar levels
B. To increase cholesterol levels
C. To achieve target blood pressure
D. To reduce weight

A

C. To achieve target blood pressure

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15
Q

Which medication class is commonly used as first-line therapy for hypertension in Black patients?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Beta-blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers

A

B. Thiazide diuretics

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15
Q
  1. Which lifestyle modification is effective in reducing blood pressure?
    A. High-sodium intake
    B. Sedentary lifestyle
    C. Alcohol consumption
    D. Weight loss
A

D. Weight loss

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16
Q

Which condition may require immediate BP reduction within hours to days to prevent target organ damage?
A. Hypertensive urgency
B. Hypertensive emergency
C. White coat hypertension
D. Masked hypertension

A

A. Hypertensive emergency

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17
Q

. Which of the following is a risk factor for hypertension?
A. Regular physical activity
B. Normal body weight
C. High alcohol intake
D. Balanced diet

A

C. High alcohol intake

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18
Q

Which hypertension medication is contraindicated in patients with a history of angioedema?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Beta-blockers

A

C. ACE inhibitors

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19
Q

. At what age do women start having hypertension more often than men?
A. 45 years
B. 55 years
C. 65 years
D. 75 years

A

C. 65 years

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20
Q

What is the most common chronic health problem seen in primary care?
A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Asthma
D. Arthritis

A

B. Hypertension

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21
Q

Which condition is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension?
A. Smoking
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Low physical activity
D. High-fat diet

A

B. Chronic kidney disease

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22
Q

. How many blood pressure readings are required to diagnose hypertension?
A. One reading
B. Two readings at one visit
C. Two readings on two or more visits
D. Three readings on one visit

A

C. Two readings on two or more visits

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23
Q

What is the systolic blood pressure range for Stage 1 hypertension?
A. 120-129 mm Hg
B. 130-139 mm Hg
C. 140-159 mm Hg
D. 160-179 mm Hg

A

B. 130-139 mm Hg

24
Q

What is the diastolic blood pressure threshold for diagnosing hypertension?
A. < 80 mm Hg
B. 80-89 mm Hg
C. ≥ 80 mm Hg
D. ≥ 90 mm Hg

A

C. ≥ 80 mm Hg

25
Q

What diagnostic test is used to assess for hypertensive nephropathy?
A. EKG
B. Urinalysis
C. Chest X-ray
D. Lipid panel

A

B. Urinalysis

26
Q

Which exam finding may indicate hypertensive retinopathy?
A. Corneal arcus
B. Carotid bruits
C. Papilledema
D. Xanthelasma

A

C. Papilledema

27
Q

What is the primary goal of hypertension management?
A. Reduce LDL cholesterol
B. Lower blood glucose levels
C. Achieve blood pressure control
D. Increase physical activity

A

C. Achieve blood pressure control

27
Q

How much weight loss is associated with a 1 mm Hg reduction in systolic blood pressure?
A. 1 kg
B. 2 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 10 kg

A

A. 1 kg

28
Q

Which lifestyle modification can help lower blood pressure?
A. Reducing protein intake
B. Increasing sodium intake
C. Increasing dietary potassium
D. Reducing fiber intake

A

C. Increasing dietary potassium

29
Q

How often should patients with elevated blood pressure be reassessed?
A. Annually
B. Every 3-6 months
C. Every 6-12 months
D. Monthly

A

B. Every 3-6 months

30
Q

Which medication class is recommended for African-American patients without comorbidities?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. ARBs
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-blockers

A

C. Calcium channel blockers

31
Q

Which hypertension medication class should be avoided in pregnancy?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Diuretics
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Beta-blockers

A

C. ACE inhibitors

31
Q

What are the classes of pharmacological treatment for hypertension?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Statins
D. Diuretics
F. Calcium channel blocker

A

ACE, Beta-blockers, diuretics, Calcium channel blocker

32
Q

Which condition is a contraindication for thiazide diuretics?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperglycemia

A

B. Hyponatremia

33
Q

What is the target blood pressure for most hypertensive patients?
A. <140/90 mm Hg
B. <150/90 mm Hg
C. <130/80 mm Hg
D. <120/80 mm Hg

A

C. <130/80 mm Hg

34
Q

Which type of hypertension has no identifiable cause?
A. Secondary hypertension
B. Primary hypertension
C. White coat hypertension
D. Masked hypertension

A

B. Primary hypertension

35
Q

What is a common cause of secondary hypertension?
A. Obesity
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Smoking
D. Sedentary lifestyle

A

B. Chronic kidney disease

36
Q

Which medication is most appropriate for a patient with hypertension and chronic kidney disease?
A. Diuretics
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-blockers

A

B. ACE inhibitors

36
Q

What is a recommended treatment for hypertensive urgency?
A. Immediate IV drug therapy
B. Gradual blood pressure control
C. Emergency hospitalization
D. Oral antihypertensives with lifestyle modifications

A

B. Gradual blood pressure control

37
Q

Which medication is recommended for hypertension management in patients with heart failure?
A. Statins
B. Diuretics
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers

A

C. ACE inhibitors

38
Q

Which condition is characterized by hypertension that is difficult to treat?
A. Resistant hypertension
B. White coat hypertension
C. Masked hypertension
D. Secondary hypertension

A

A. Resistant hypertension

39
Q

What is the initial step in managing hypertension?
A. Initiate pharmacotherapy
B. Lifestyle modifications
C. Referral to cardiology
D. Start with combination therapy

A

B. Lifestyle modifications

40
Q

What is the primary target organ affected by hypertension?
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys

A

B. Heart

41
Q

How soon should a patient be re-evaluated after starting antihypertensive therapy?
A. 1-3 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 3 months
D. 6 months

A

A. 1-3 weeks

42
Q

What is a common cause of non-adherence to hypertension medication?
A. Cost of medication
B. Frequency of dosing
C. Lack of symptoms
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

43
Q

Which hypertension medication class can cause hyperkalemia?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Beta-blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers

A

C. ACE inhibitors

44
Q

Which antihypertensive agent is recommended for Black patients without comorbidities?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. ARBs
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Beta-blockers

A

C. Thiazide diuretics

45
Q

Which lab test is important to monitor in patients on diuretics?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Serum potassium
C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Serum calcium

A

B. Serum potassium

46
Q

Which medication can be added for patients with resistant hypertension?
A. Statins
B. Aldosterone antagonists
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Beta-blockers

A

B. Aldosterone antagonists

47
Q

. What is the primary goal in the treatment of hypertensive emergency?
A. Gradual blood pressure control
B. Immediate IV drug therapy
C. Oral antihypertensives with lifestyle modifications
D. Emergency hospitalization

A

B. Immediate IV drug therapy

48
Q

What is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyponatremia

A

B. Peripheral edema

49
Q

Which agent should be used cautiously in patients with gout?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Beta-blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers

A

A. Thiazide diuretics

50
Q

What is a common side effect of aldosterone antagonists?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia

A

A. Hyperkalemia

51
Q

You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?

A) 1 month
B) 1 year
C) 6 months
D) 3 months

A

A) 1 month

52
Q

Marvin, age 56, is a smoker with diabetes mellitus and uncontrolled hypertension despite multiple medications. When considering an additional agent to add, the APRN recognizes that which of the following drugs includes potential for causing the development of bronchial asthma and inhibiting gluconeogenesis?

A) Beta blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) ARBs
D) ACE inhibitors

A

A) Beta blockers

53
Q

Which classification of antihypertensive drugs is the most effective for treating hypertension in African American clients?

A) Alpha-adrenergic blockers
B) Beta-blockers
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) ACE inhibitors

A

C) Thiazide diuretics

54
Q

When treating primary hyperlipidemia, if initial treatment with a statin does not provide the desired outcomes, the next pharmacologic step could include adding a bile acid sequestrant or fibrate.

A) False
B) True

A

A) False

55
Q

The cholesterol components considered most responsible for atherosclerosis plaque formation is (are):

A) Phospholipids
B) High-density lipoprotein cholesterol
C) Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol
D) Total cholesterol

A

C) Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol

56
Q

Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?

A) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
B) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department (ED).
C) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
D) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.

A

B) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department (ED).

57
Q

Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

A) Severe asthma
B) A common valvular lesion
C) Severe hypertension
D) A prosthetic heart valve

A

D) A prosthetic heart valve

58
Q

Which of the following patients is a candidate for statins?

A) April is an 80-year-old female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 180.
B) Manny is a 75-year-old male with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 6.5%.
C) Jerry is a 55-year-old male with a history of syncope.
D) Christa is a 65-year-old female with a history of myocardial infarction (MI).

A

D) Christa is a 65-year-old female with a history of myocardial infarction (MI).

59
Q

Jamie, age 49, who has a history of hyperlipidemia, has symptoms that lead you to suspect unstable angina. Your next action would be to:

A) Hospitalize the client in a monitored setting with pharmacological control of ischemia, arrhythmias, and thrombosis as appropriate.
B) Initiate lipid lowering agents.
C) Start aspirin therapy and schedule an exercise stress test.
D) Prescribe a Holter monitor and start her on a beta blocker.

A

A) Hospitalize the client in a monitored setting with pharmacological control of ischemia, arrhythmias, and thrombosis as appropriate.

60
Q

If chest pain may be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?

A) Peptic ulcer
B) Hiatal hernia
C) Costochondritis
D) Pericarditis

A

C) Costochondritis

exam 2 (9 decks)

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