Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMS > Module Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Module Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Why was The White Paper “Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society” an important document?

A

Because it led to the design and implementation of the first federally qualified ambulance service and personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four levels of EMS practitioners?

A

EMR
EMT BASIC
ADVANCED-EMT
PARAMEDIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some safe driving techniques used when driving an ambulance?

A

Select the best route for safe travel
Maintain a safe following distance
Use headlights
Exercise caution when using warning devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do you do if you arrive at an unsafe scene?

A

Retreat to a safe place until police or other personnel arrive to make the scene safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the functions of a quality improvement committee?

A

To review and audit all aspects of an EMS system to enhance the quality of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You arrive on the scene of a MVC with power lines down. What would be your actions to control this scene?

A

The first plan of action would be to call the local utility company to get the live wires turned off, and once the scene is safe begin to assess and care for the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the qualifications of a medical director for an ambulance service?

A

To be a licensed physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is your first priority as an EMT?

A

Personal safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a standing order?

A

A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would be an EMS public health initiative?

A

Educating the public on the benefits of wearing seatbelts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the duties of an Emergency Medical Dispatcher?

A

Interrogate caller and assign priority to call:
Provide pre arrival medical instructions to callers and information crews:

Dispatch and coordinate EMS resources

Coordinate with other public safety agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a hospital emergency department and who do they care for?

A

It is a department staffed with physicians, nurses, and others trained in emergency medical treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When would the EMT be the most likely to make a medical mistake?

A

When he/she works outside of their respected scope of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What immunizations should the EMT get yearly?

A

PPD tuberculin test

Influenza vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of the tuberculosis skin test yearly?

A

To screen for TB exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should you know about hepatitis B if you are treating a patient that has his condition?

A

It is a serious disease that can last for months, and can be contracted through blood and body fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of protective clothing must the EMT wear at the site of a MVC?

A

A public safety vest (reflective vest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the five stages of dying?

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Microorganisms that cause diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Should you wash your hands after taking your gloves off and between each patient?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?

A 
Fatigue
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Dark urine
Loss of appetite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the safety concerns of treating a patient with severe acute respiratory syndrome?

A

One needs to be concerned with the respiratory droplets that may be deposited on an object that is touched. The best protection against this is a surgical mask and some gloves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of effective communication should the EMT have when dealing with death and dying?

A

Be straightforward, and let the patient and his or her family members express themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is meant by “burnout” in the EMS system?

A

Burnout, in relation to the Emergency Medical Services, is a condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by a state of irritability and fatigue that can markedly decrease effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the scope of practice for the EMT?

A

Provide basic emergency medical care

Transportation to patients who access the EMS system

26
Q

What is meant by the standard of care?

A

Standard care is the care that is expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when managing a patient in a similar situation.

27
Q

What is a DNR?

A

A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, that indicates to medical personnel which, if any, life sustaining measures should be taken when the patient’s heart and respiratory functions have ceased. (DO NOT RESUSCITATE)

28
Q

If your patient is in full arrest and family cannot find their DNR order, what should you do?

A

You should try to resuscitate until it is found

29
Q

What is informed consent and how has it been obtained?

A

Informed consent is consent for treatment that is given by a competent patient based on full disclosure of all possible risks and consequences

30
Q

What is implied consent?

A

It is consent used for patients who are unable to provide consent, and is assumed that he or she would provide consent f he or she were able to do so

31
Q

What are the actions of the EMT if a patient is refusing treatment and is intoxicated?

A

It would then be necessary to gain consent from the appropriate individual with the legal authority to make decisions on that person’s behalf

32
Q

What is your best protection if the patient refuses your care?

A

Ask the patient to sign a refusal of care form

33
Q

What should you do if your patient refuses to sign your refusal form?

A

Document the refusal and have a witness sign

34
Q

What is meant by proximate cause?

A

Proximate cause, by definition, is the act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, which results in further injury to the patient

35
Q

What is the definition of assault?

A

A willful threat to inflict harm on a person

36
Q

What is the definition of battery?

A

The act of touching a person unlawfully without his consent

37
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

It is the intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his consent or other legal authority

38
Q

What is HIPPA?

A

It is a federal law that protects the privacy of patient health care information and gives the patient control over how the information is distributed and used

39
Q

What should you remember about cutting off clothes during a crime scene?

A

To try and preserve evidence

40
Q

What is meant by duty to act?

A

Duty to act is an obligation of the EMT to respond to the scene and to provide emergency care to the patient.

41
Q

How do you correct an error on a PCR?

A

You correct a PCR by drawing a single horizontal line through the error, initialing, and writing the correct information beside it.

42
Q

If you get a refusal sign what should you encourage the patient to do if they need help later on?

A

To call if certain symptoms arise

43
Q

What is a PCR?

A

It is documentation of an EMT’s contact with a patient

44
Q

What is the advantage of computerized documentation?

A

It ensures a more accurate report by checking the EMT’s spelling and use of abbreviations.

45
Q

If you have problems spelling what should you take with you?

A

A medical dictionary

46
Q

What does the abbreviation LLQ mean?

A

Left lower quadrant

47
Q

What does IDDM stand for?

A

Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

48
Q

What is the definition of a chief complaint?

A

It is the patient complaint that is the primary reason why the EMS crew was called to the scene

49
Q

What is the purpose of giving a verbal report to the nurse or doctor in the ER?

A

It is necessary for transfer of care

50
Q

Who monitors the radio frequencies?

A

The FCC

51
Q

How do you introduce yourself to your patient?

A

You introduce yourself as you want to be called, and then introduce the rest of your team to the patient.

52
Q

How can you get information regarding the past history of an elderly person?

A

Talk slowly, distinctly, and more loudly to such patients.

53
Q

What must you remember when you are using your cell phone to call in patient care report?

A

That the content and format of the information should be treated similarly to radio communications, and to have another plan in place in case a cel transmission fails while giving a report or communicating with another agency

54
Q

What muscles should the EMT primarily use during lifting?

A

Leg muscles

55
Q

What is body mechanics?

A

It is the application of the study of muscles and body movement to the use of the body and to the prevention and correction of problems related to posture and lifting

56
Q

What is a power grip?

A

The recommended gripping technique. It is when the palm and fingers come in complete contact with the object and all fingers are bent at the same angle

57
Q

What is the definition of rapid extrication?

A

It is a technique using manual stabilization rather than application of an immobilization device for the purpose of speeding extrication when the time saved will make the difference between life and death

58
Q

When would you perform an urgent move?

A

When the patient is suffering an immediate threat to life and the patient must be moved quickly and transported for care.

59
Q

How do you move a patient using the draw sheet method?

A

Loosen the bottom sheet of the bed

Position the wheeled stretcher next to the bed.

Reach across the stretcher and grasp the sheet firmly at the patient’s head, chest, hips, and knees.

Slide the patient gently onto the wheeled stretcher.

60
Q

What is the proper use of the stair chair?

A

To use when a wheeled stretcher cannot traverse narrow corridors and door ways, small elevators, and stairways.

61
Q

How do you use a stair chair?

A

One rescuer should stand behind the chair at the head, and another should stand at the foot facing the patient. A third rescuer, if available, should prepare to spot by standing behind and counting the steps to go.

As the chair is tilted back by the rescuer at the head, the rescuer at the foot should grasp the chair by its legs.

Both rescuers should lift and begin to carry simultaneously. If the chair has wheels, they should not be allowed to touch the steps.

As the rescuers descend with the patient, the spotter should count the steps and identify upcoming conditions.

62
Q

What position would you transport a patient experiencing SOB?

A

In the left lateral recumbent position.

EMS (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions