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EMS > Green Mile > Flashcards

Green Mile Flashcards

1
Q

What is your number one responsibility related to being an EMT?

A

Personal Safety

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2
Q

What are the 2 main benefits to the 911 universal number?

A
  1. Public service answering point is generally staffed by trained communications personnel. Many are EMD’s (Emergency Medical Dispatchers).
  2. Use of 911 reduces the time it takes the caller to access the Emergency Services system.
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3
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

Gloves, gown, etc.

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4
Q

What must the EMT wear at an accident scene?

A

A reflective vest

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5
Q

What is informed consent?

A

The patient verbalizes consent

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6
Q

What is implied consent?

A

It is understood that if the patient were awake and oriented, he or she would consent to care

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7
Q

What is your best protection when a patient refuses care?

A

Documentation

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8
Q

How do you handle an intoxicated person who is refusing care?

A

Contact Medical direction or law enforcement

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9
Q

Which one of the following is a function of providing the physician or nurse with an oral report when transferring care to the hospital emergency department (ED)?

A

To summarize patient assessment and treatment information

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10
Q

Maintaining _______ _________ with your patient builds trust and lets the patient know that he or she is your first priority.

A

Eye contact

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11
Q

What muscles should you use lifting patients?

A

Legs

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12
Q

When lifting the stretcher with a patient secured to it, the EMt must avoid which one of the following?

A

Bending at the waist

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13
Q

You should always document the _______ and _______ of a wound

A

entrance and exit wound

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14
Q

What is the standard reference position for the body in the study of anatomy; in this position, the body is standing erect, facing the observer, with arms down at the sides and the palms of the hands forward


A

Anatomical position

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15
Q

Which one of the following is required for a normal perfusion to occur?

A

Adequate breathing, sufficient red blood cells, good heart function.

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16
Q

Treatment for snoring respirations is a

A

Head tilt chin lift or jaw thrust maneuver

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17
Q

What is the age range for adolescents?

A

12-18 years of age

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18
Q

Describe adequate breathing

A

Breathing adequately is the process of inspiring oxygen and expiring carbon dioxide while maintaining a proper rate and tidal volume

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19
Q

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a MVA you should position the ambulance:

A

100’ past the scene on the same side of the road.

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20
Q

What rhythm will the AED shock?

A

Ventricular Fribulation

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21
Q

You have been asked to describe the American Heart Association’s Chain of Survival to a group of Emergency Medical Responder students. What description is best?

A

A sequence of events that, if enacted quickly, gives the best chance for surviving cardiac arrest
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22
Q

Which one of the following links in the American Heart Association’s Chain of Survival must occur first, if a patient is to survive cardiac arrest?

A

Early access

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23
Q 
Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient?
a Hypoglycemia
b Congenital heart defects
c Ventricular fibrillation
d Respiratory failure
A

d Respiratory failure

24
Q

When treating a patient with chest pain in the prehospital setting, the primary goal of the EMT is to:

A

recognize the possibility of cardiac compromise and provide proper care.

25
Q

As a general rule, a postictal patient should be placed on the stretcher and transported in what position?

A

Lateral recumbent

26
Q

An intoxicated appearance and uncharacteristic behavior are typical of:

A

Diabetic emergency

27
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

accumulation of certain acids that occurs when insulin is not available
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28
Q

You are called to assess a patient with respiratory distress. Your patient is a 27-year-old female at a local community college classroom with altered mental status and deep, rapid respirations. Witnesses state that she seemed confused when class started, and then she became unresponsive and collapsed on the floor. A rapid medical assessment shows the presence of a strong radial pulse and deep, rapid respirations at a rate of 28 breaths/min. Also, an insulin pump is attached to the patient’s abdomen with an error message on the display screen. On the initial assessment, you find no trauma or abnormalities. Based on your initial assessment findings, what is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?

A

DKA

29
Q

When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the RUQ but also in the right shoulder, this is known as:

A

Referred pain

30
Q

hich of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?
Answer
It is only felt in hollow organs.
It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.
It is caused by psychological stress.
It is usually described as “crampy” or “colicky.”

A

It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it

31
Q

A patient has been bitten by an unidentified snake. Which one of the following statements made by the patient would lead the EMT to believe that the snake was poisonous?

A

Its head was triangular

32
Q

You have been dispatched to transfer a patient with schizophrenia from a hospital emergency department to a psych department at another hospital. While en route, your partner states that he cannot remember what schizophrenia is. You should tell him that schizophrenia is a behavioral disorder commonly characterized by:

A

Delusions and hallucinations

33
Q

Which one of the following emergency care measures for a patient with a possible bone fracture can be an effective means to reduce pain?

A

Splinting the fracture

34
Q

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as:

A

bleeding between the skull and dura mater.



35
Q

Which one of the following is the most commonly injured area of the spinal cord?

A

cervical spine

36
Q

patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has suffered the separation of a rib from a spinal vertebrae. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred?

A

Throacic spine

37
Q

A patient has suffered an injury that severed his spinal coard in the thoracic region. Which one of the following is true?

A

He will experience paralysis to the legs

38
Q

A patient was stabbed in the right anterior chest and is in obvious respiratory distress. As you perform the secondary assessment, which one of the following sings and symptoms would indicate that she is suffering from a tension pneumothorax?

A

bsent breath sounds on the right, distended neck veins, tracheal deviation to the left.

39
Q

The AEMT showed that he understands the difference between a pneumothorax and a tension pneumothorax when he made which one of the following statements?

A

“A tension pneumothorax causes cardiac output to decrease; a simple pneumothorax does not affect cardiac output.”

40
Q

What is the significance of bradycardia in pediatrics?

A

In infants & children, bradycardia is a late response to hypoxia. In newborns, bradycardia is the initial response to hypoxia

41
Q

Which one of the following actions indicates that the EMT is properly suctioning the newborn?

A

He squeezes the bulb syringe prior to placing it in the baby’s nose.
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42
Q

The APGAR scoring system is useful in determining:

A

Status of the overall condition

43
Q

Assessment of a newbon indicates that his heart rate is 120 beats per minute. How many points should he be awarded according to the APGAR scoring system?

A

2

44
Q

ssessment of a newborn indicates that she has slow and irregular respirations with a weak cry. You should award her how many points according to the APGAR scoring system?

A

1

45
Q

When should the EMt use the APGAR scoring system on a newborn?

A

one and five minutes after the baby has been delivered.

46
Q

Following a call in which you treated a pediatric patient suffereing from croup, a new EMT who is in orientation asks you how you can differentiate croup from epiglottitis. Which one of the following responses would be most appropriate?

A

“The child with epiglottitis typically drools; the child with croup rarely, if ever drools.

47
Q

You are responding to a patient with a complication related to her chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Based on this description, the paramedic would anticipate which of the following?

A

Catheder placed in the abdomen

48
Q

Most ambulance collisions take place in

A

intersections

49
Q

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision?

A

It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
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50
Q

hen extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include:

A

eflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

51
Q

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the North American Emergency Response Guidebook?
A chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool
A domestic disturbance with the potential for violence
A patient with a suspected infectious disease
Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision

A

A chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool

52
Q

Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident?
Medical protocols
Emergency response guidebook
Medical dictionary
Food and Drug Administration toll-free hotline

A

Emergency response guidebook

53
Q

You are working the scene of a collision involving a tractor trailer that is hauling an unknown chemical. After it has been determined that no material has been spilled, the rescue chief asks you to get the truck’s shipping papers. Where would these most likely be located?

A

Cab of the truck

54
Q

What is the incident command system?

A

he incident management concept that has become the standard for on-scene management of MCIs

55
Q

What is the lowest priority triage tag?

A

Black

56
Q

What is the EMT’s first priority on the scene of a MCI involving a weapon of mass destruction?

A

PERSONAL DAMN SAFETY

EMS (19 decks)

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