Module 3 Flashcards

0
Q

What are the four kinds of respiration?

A

PULMONARY VENTILATION

EXTERNAL RESPIRATION

INTERNAL RESPIRATION

CELLULAR RESPIRATION and METABOLISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

______________ is also commonly referred to as ventilation or breathing

A

RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Physiologically, the term respiration refers to the ___________________

A

GAS EXCHANGE PROCESS THAT OCCURS BETWEEN THE ALVEOLI OR CELLS AND THE CAPILLARIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____________________ is the process of breathing air into and out of the lungs

A

PULMONARY VENTILATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

__________________ is the gas exchange process that occurs between the alveoli and the surrounding pulmonary capillaries

A

EXTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______________ can also be referred to as the alvoli/capillary gas exchange

A

EXTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_________________ serves to oxygenate the blood and eliminate carbon dioxide in the lungs

A

EXTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

__________________ is the gas exchange process that occurs between the cells and the systemic capillaries

A

INTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

__________________ can also be referred to as cell/capillary exchange

A

INTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_________________ is responsible for delivering oxygen to the cells and removing carbon dioxide from the cell

A

INTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

__________________ is also known as aerobic metabolism, and occurs in the cell

A

CELLULAR RESPIRATION AND METABOLISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_________________ is the process that breaks down glucose in the presence of oxygen, produces high amounts of energy in the form of ATP, and releases carbon dioxide and water as a by product

A

CELLULAR RESPIRATION AND METABOLISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The respiratory system is divided anatomically into the ___________ and the ______________

A

UPPER AIRWAY

LOWER AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ________________ extends from the nose and mouth to the cricoid cartilage

A

UPPER AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Air normally enters the body through the ______________

A

NOSTRILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When air travels through the nostrils, is flows over the damp, sticky _______________ lining of the nose

A

MUCOUS MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The _____________ is a common cause of airway obstruction in the patient with an altered mental status.

A

TOUNGUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tongue obstruction occurs when ____________________ relax.

A

THE MUSCLES CONTROLLING THE TONGUE (submandibular muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Air entering the body through the mouth and nostrils travels into the ____________

A

PHARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Air from the nasal passages enters through what is referred to as the _____________________

A

NASOPHARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Air entering through the mouth travels through the __________________

A

OROPHARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Both the oropharynx and the nasopharynx enter into the pharynx at ______________________

A

THE BACK OF THE THROAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why must the pharynx be kept clear?

A

Because obstructions in it can prevent air from traveling to the lower airways, or the substance may be aspirated into the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens if something is aspirated into the lungs?

A

It would interfere with oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two passageways that are found at the lower end of the pharynx?

A

TRACHEA

ESOPHAGUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ___________ is the passageway for air traveling into the lungs

A

TRACHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Food and water are routed to the ________________, which leads to the stomach

A

ESOPHAGUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The trachea is proctected by a small, leaf shaped flap of cartilaginous tissue called the ___________________

A

EPIGLOTTIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

At times, the epiglottis may fail to close, and food or liquid can enter the larynx and the upper portion of the trachea causing ________________

A

A PATIENT TO CHOKE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If a patient is unresponsive, the ____________________ may not work during swallowing, so that foreign objects, blood, secretions, etc., can enter the trachea and cause an airway obstruction or lung infection

A

PROTECTIVE REFLEXES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When the muscles controlling the tongue relax in a patient with an altered mental status, the muscles controlling the ________________ also relax

A

EPIGLOTTIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the event that both the tongue and the epiglottis relax, what is the opening that is blocked?

A

The opening of the larynx (glottic opening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the best method to use to relieve a situation in which the epiglottis and tongue relax closing the path to the trachea and airway?

A

Perform “head tilt, chin lift maneuver” , or a “jaw thrust maneuver” which will pull the epiglottis up away from the opening of the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The ______________________ contains the vocal cords

A

LARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The anterior portion of the the larynx is composed of large bulkky ________________

A

THYROID CARTIALAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is thyroid cartilage normally known as?

A

ADAM’S APPLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ____________________ forms the most inferior portion of the larynx

A

CRICOID CARTILAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The _________________ is the only completely circular cartilaginous ring of the upper airway

A

CRICOID CARTILAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pressure applied to the ________________ is often used in airway management

A

CRICOID RING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pressure applied to the cricoid ring is used to help prevent ________________ and to _______________

A

FILLING OF THE STOMACH

PREVENT REGURGITATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The _____________ is a common site of airway obstruction in adults, infants, and children

A

LARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The ________________ extends from the cricoid cartilage at the lower edge of the larynx to the alveoli of the lungs

A

LOWER AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The ______________ is commonly known as the windpipe

A

TRACHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The _____________ is the passageway for air entering the lungs

A

TRACHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The trachea extends fro mthe larynx to the ______________

A

CARINA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The ______________ is the point in which the trachea splits into the right and left mainstem bronchi

A

CARINA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The anterior portion of the trachea is composed of strong ______________________ that provide support and structure

A

C-SHAPED CARTILAGINOUS RINGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The posterior wall of the trachea is made up of _________________ and is therefore not a rigid structure

A

MUSCLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The _______________ are the two major branches of the trachea, that extend from the carina into the lungs

A

BRONCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The __________________ extend from the carina into the lungs, where they continue to divide into smaller sections or branches known as __________________

A

BRONCHI

BRONCHIOLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The ________________ become increasingly smaller as they continue to branch

A

BRONCHIOLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The _______________ are larger airways that contain cartilage

A

BRONCHI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The ________________ are lined with msooth muscle and mucous membranes

A

BRONCHIOLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The narrowing of the bronchioles causes an increase in __________________ inside the bronchiole, which makes it more difficult for the patient to move air into and out of the alveoli

A

AIRWAY RESISTANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

An increase in __________________ causes the patient to work harder to breathe, which may lead to _______________ and failure of the respiratory muscles

A

AIRWAY RESISTANCE

FATIGUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The bronchioles terminate in millions of tiny air sacs in the lungs called _________________

A

ALVEOLI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Each alveoli is wrapped in a web of thin-walled capillaries reffered to as the _________________

A

PULMONARY CAPILLARIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The alveoli and pulmonary capilaries is the site for ____________________________

A

GAS EXCHANGE BETWEEN THE ALVOLI AND THE BLOOD IN THE CAPILLARIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The _____________ are made out of elastic tissue

A

LUNGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The elastic tissue of the lungs causes the lungs to react like a _____________; thus, the lungs material tendency is to recoil and collapse

A

RUBBER BAND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The lungs are surrounded by two layers of connective tissue called the _________________

A

PLEURA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the two layers of connective tissue called?

A

VISCERAL PLEURA

PARIETAL PLEURA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The ______________ is the outermost covering of the lung

A

VISCERAL PLEURA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The ________________ is the thicker more elastic layer of pleura that adheres to the inner portion of the chest wall

A

PARIETAL PLEURA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Between the two layers of pleura is the __________________

A

PLEURAL SPACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The ________________ is a small space that is at negative pressure

A

PLEURAL SPACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The pleural space contains a small amount of ________________ that acts as a lubricant to reduce friction when the layers of the pleura rub against each other during breathing

A

SEROUS FLUID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Since the lung tissue wants to recoil and collapse, it is always tugging inward toward the ______________ of the body

A

MIDLINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The ________________ pleura, connected to the chest wall, retains the lung structure nad prevents them from collapsing

A

PARIETAL PLEURA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The ___________________ between the attached parietal pleura and visceral pleura, creates a “water-glass” effect

A

SEROUS FLUID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The _______________ is “if a water glass is placed open end down on a flat surface covered with water, then pulled striaght upward, a vaccuum is created between the flat surface and the glass. The water creates a seal. If the seal is broken, air is sucked inward and allows the glass to be moved off the flat surface.

A

WATER GLASS EFFECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

VISCERAL PLEURAL PULL

A

The __________________ is continuously creating a vacuum so air from outside the chest gets sucked into the pleural space through the hole in the pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The ___________________ is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity

A

DIAPHRAGM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The diaphragm is responsible for approximately ________________ percent of the effort of ventilation.

A

60-70 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The passage of air into and out of the lungs is called ________________________

A

VENTILATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

______________________ is ofte nreferred to as breathing

A

VENTILATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

__________________ is the process of breathing air in

A

INHALATION OR INSPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

________________ is the process of breathing air out

A

EXHALATION OR EXPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

During inhalation, the _________________ and the external _____________________ contract

A

DIAPHRAGM

INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The process of inhalation bring air into the lungs until the pressure inside the lungs is _______________________

A

EQUAL TO THE ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE OUTSIDE THE BODY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Inhalation is an _____________________ because it requires energy to contract the muscles

A

ACTIVE PROCESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

During exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles ________________

A

RELAX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Because the process of inhalation involves relaxation of muscles and little energy is expended, it is considered to be _______________

A

PASSIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In some respiratory diseases affecting the lower airway, the patient has a difficult time moving air into and out of the lungs making both inhalation and exhalation ____________ processes

A

ACTIVE PROCESSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Respirations are controlled by the _______________ in a variety of ways.

A

NERVOUS SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the three respiratory rhythm centers that control impulses being sent to the respiratory muscles from the brain stem?

A

DORSAL RESPIRATORY GROUP (DRG)

VENTRAL RESPIRATORY GROUP (VRG)

PONTINE RESPIRATORY CENTER (PNEUMOTAXIC CENTER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The ____________________ continuously monitor levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH in the arterial blood

A

CHEMORECEPTORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The ___________________ also stimulate an increase or decrease in impulses fro the respiratory rhythm centers to control the rate and depth of ventilation

A

CHEMORECEPTORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The __________________ located in the medulla are most sensitive to changes in blood pH and carbon dioxide, whereas the _________________ located in the carotid areteris and aortic arch are more sensitive to changes in arterial oxygen

A

CENTRAL chemoreceptors

PERIPHERAL chemoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tHE RESPIRATORY SYTEM RESPONDS PRIMARILY TO CHANGES IN THE ________________ LEVELS

A

carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

If the carbon dioxide level in arterial blood increases, the chemoreceptors sense the increase and the brainstem sens impulses to the respiratory muscles to increase the __________________ and ____________ of respiration.

A

RATE AND DEPTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

An increase in respirations results in the increased elimination of _______________

A

CARBON DIOXIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Healthy people breath on a _______________ drive

A

HYPERCARBIC DRIVE (HIGH CARBON DIOXIDE DRIVE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When the carbon dioxide level decereases in the blood, the chemoreceptors sense this and send signals to the respiratory muscles to slow down the _____________________

A

RESPIRATORY RATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

_______________ is much less of a stimulus for breathing in healthy people

A

OXYGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In patients with a category of conditions known as COPD, the ______________ level in arterial bloodis typically chronically elevated as a result of the disease process.

A

CARBON DIOXIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Because of the high carbon dioxide levels as a result of COPD, the chemoreceoptors become relatively ______________________ to changes in carbon dioxide

A

INSENSITIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Chemoreceptors of COPD patients tend to rely on _________ levels in the blood to regulate their breathing

A

OXYGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

COPD patients breath on a ___________ drive, since they breathe to increase their oxygen and not to dreduce their carbon dioxide levels

A

HYPOXIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

If oxygen is provided at high concentrations to a patient with COPD over a long period of time, the oxygen levels in the arterial blood will ___________ beyond a normal level for the patient

A

RISE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

If oxygen is provided at high concentrations to a COPD patient, the _______________ will sense this rise and may send signals to the respiratory muscles to slow down or even stop respirations

A

CHEMORECEPTORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Even though respiratory failure could be a complication in the COPD patient _____________ should never be withheld from a patient if he or she needs it

A

OXYGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If respiratory failure should occur in a COPD patient, _____________________ the patient artificially, just as with any patient who suffers respiratory failure or arrest.

A

VENTILATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

___________________ is the process by which the blood and the cells become saturated with oxygen

A

OXYGENATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Oxygenation happens as a result of __________________ and ___________________

A

INTERNAL RESPIRATION and EXTERNAL RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Internal respiration and external respiration are processes in which fresh oxygen replaces _________________

A

CARBON DIOXIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

_________________ is the mechanical process of moving air into and out of the lungs

A

VENTILATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

________________ is the physiological process of gas exchange

A

RESPIRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

______________________ is a low oxygen content in arterial blood

A

HYPOXEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hypoxemia typically occurs from a ___________________ mismatch.

A

VENTILATION-PERFUSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

A ____________________________ occurs when there is a lack of available oxygenated air in the alvoli even though perfusion to the alveoli is adequate, or when the alveoli are adequately oxygenated but perfusion to the alveoli is poor, or when there is a combination of both poor ventilation and poor perfusion in the alveolar-capillary structures.

A

VENTILATION-PERFUSION MISMATCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Other possible causes of ________________ include inadequate ventilator drive, anemia, and carbon monoxide poisoning

A

HYPOXEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

________________ refers to an inadequacy in the amount of oxygen being delivered to the cells

A

HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

________________ is a more general term than hypoxemia which refers only to low oxygen content in the arterial blood

A

HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

____________________ can occur or result from an occluded airway, inadequate breathing, inadequate delivery of oxygen to the cells by blood, or inhalation of toxic gases

A

HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Tachypnea

Dyspnea

Pale, cool, clammy skin

Tachycardia

Elevation in blood pressure

Restlessness and agitation

Disorientation and confusion

Headache

These are signs of what level of hypoxia?

A

MILD TO MODERATE HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Tachypnea
]
Dyspnea

Cyanosis

Tachycardia that may lead to dysrthmias and eventually bradycardia

Severe confusion

Loss of coordination

Sleepy appearance

Head bobbing

Slow reaction time

Altered mental status

Seizure

These are all signs of what level of hypoxia?

A

SEVERE HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

In a newborn, _________________ may be an early sign of hypoxia

A

BRADYCARDIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Infants and young children normally have higher ____________________ than adults

A

HEART RATES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

An early sign of hypoxia is an alteration in the patint’s _____________________

A

MENTAL STATUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

______________________ , a bluish gray color is a late sign of hypoxia and may be found in and around several areas of the body, including the lips, mouth, nose , fingernail beds, conjunctiva, and oral mucosa

A

CYANOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

___________________ occurs when adequate amounts of oxygen are no longer attached to the hemoglobin molecules

A

CYANOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

If the patient is displaying any signs of hypoxia, immediately _____________________________________>

A

ASSESS THE AIRWAY AND ADEQUACY OF BREATHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If breathing status is inadequate, immediately begin __________________________

A

POSITIVE PRESSURE VENTILATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The blood moving into the capillaries is ____________________

A

DEOXYGENATED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

____________________ is found on the surface of red blood cells, is responsible for picking up the majority of oxygen in the blood and carrying it through hthe arterial system to the capillaries throughout the body

A

HEMOGLOBIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A disturbance in pulmonary ventilation, oxygenation, external respiration, internal respiration, or circulation can lead to _______________________ and the conversion from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism

A

CELLULAR HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

A severe alteration in perfusion can also cause a decrease in __________________ delivery to the cells

A

GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

without A FUEL SOURCE, the cells will fail to produce energy and will __________________

A

EVENTUALLY DIE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The noses and mouths of _______________ and ______________ are smaller than those of adults making it easier to be obstructed by foreign bodies, swelling, blood, mucus, and secretions

A

INFANTS AND CHILDREN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

______________ are obligate nose breathers

A

INFANTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

____________________ MEANS THAT IT IS PREFERRED TO BREATHE THROUGH THE NOSE AND NOT THROUGH THE MOUTH

A

obligate nose breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The ___________________ of an infant or a child is realtively large in proportion to the size of the mouth

A

TONGUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

An infant or a child is more prone to airway obstruction by _________________________

A

POSTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE TONGUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

In infants and children less than 10 years of age, the ___________________ is typically the narrowest portion of the upper airway

A

CRICOID CARTILAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

tHE CHEST WALL IN AN INFANT OR A CHILD IS _____________ NAD MORE _____________ THAN IN AN ADULT .

A

softer and more pliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Infants and children rely more on the _____________ for breathing

A

DIAPHRAGM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

When you perform artificial ventilation on an infant or child, the chest should ___________________

A

EXPAND AND RISE EASILY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Because the chest expands so easily on an infant or child, it is much easier for the EMT to ___________________ the lungs and cause possible lung injury

A

OVERINFLATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Infants and children are smaller and have more limited _________________ than adults

A

OXYGEN RESERVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Children and infants have twice the _______________ rate of adults

A

METABOLIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

The smaller reserve of oxygen and greater metabolic rate of infants and children will cause them to become ___________________ more rapidly than adult patients

A

HYPOXIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

_____________________ is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in chldren

A

HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

A _________________ is necessary for adequate breathing and oxygenation

A

PATENT AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The airway and respiratory tract is the conduit that allows air to move from the atmosphere and into the _________________________ for gas exchange

A

ALVEOLI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

No matter what the patient’s condition, the ____________ must remain open at all times

A

AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

The degree of the ______________________ will directly affect the amount of air available for gas exchange

A

OBSTRUCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

The mental status of a patient typically correlates well with the status of his or her __________________

A

AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

An alert, responsive patient who is talking to you in a normal voice has an ____________________

A

PATENT AIRWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

A patient who has an altered mental status by continues to maintain a gag or cough reflex could still ________________________

A

ASPIRATE

151
Q

Snoring

Crowing

Gurling

Stridor

These are all __________________

A

ABNORMAL UPPER AIRWAY SOUNDS

152
Q

Snoring and obstruction can be corrected by performing a __________________________

A

HEAD TILT CHIN LIFT MANEUVER

153
Q

If the patient is “gurgling” immideiatley ___________________

A

SUCTION THE SUBSTANCE FROM THE AIRWAY

154
Q

It is necessary to open the mouth of an unresponsive or an altered metnal status patient to ______________________________

A

ADEQUATLEY ASSESS THE AIRWAY

155
Q

Opening the mouth is done by using the ________________ technique

A

CROSSED FINGERS TECHNIQUE

156
Q

Before a patient who is breathing inadequately can receive positive pressure ventilation, or breating assistance in which air is forced into his lungs he must have an ___________________

A

OPEN AIRWAY

157
Q

What are the two manual airway maneuvers?

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

JAW THRUST

158
Q

What are the two mechanical airways?

A

OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY

NASOPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY

159
Q

The _________________________ should be used for opening the airway in a patient who has no suspected spinal injury

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

160
Q

The ___________________ is only a temporary maneuver and must be supplemented with a mechanical airway edevice if the airway can’t be adequetly maintained

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

161
Q

What airway maneuver would be used on an unresponsive patient with no suspicion of spinal injury or trauma?

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

162
Q

What manual airway maneuver would be used on a patient with cardiac arrest not due to trauma?

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

163
Q

What airway maneuver would be used on an apneic patient with no signs of trauma?

A

HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT

164
Q

The preferred method of opening the airway in infants nad children without suspected spinal injury is the _______________________

A

HEAD TILT CHIN LIFT

165
Q

When doing the head tilt, chin lift position on infants the head should be tilted back gently into a _____________ position

A

SNIFFING OR NEUTRAL POSITION

166
Q

If a ________________ is suspected, the patient’s head and neck must be brought into and maintained in a neutral inline position.

A

SPINAL INJURY

167
Q

The _________________________ is used to open the airway in such a patient in which there is a suspected spinal injury

A

JAW-THRUST MANEUVER

168
Q

If the head tilt, chin lift maneuver is unsuccessful in opening the airway of the non spine injured patient, perform the _________________________

A

JAW-THRUST MANEUVER

169
Q

Both the head tilt, chin lift and the jaw-thrust maneuvers must be supplemented with a __________________________ device if the airway can’t be adequately maintained

A

MAECHANICAL AIRWAY DEVICE

170
Q

If the jaw thrust does not establish an open airway __________________ the jaw

A

REPOSITION

171
Q

The ________________________ would be used in unresponsive patients with suspected spinal injury or trauma patients in need of a manual maneuver to open the airway

A

JAW THRUST MANEUVER

172
Q

To position a patient with an altered mental status for airway control, place the patient in a modified ____________________________

A

LATERAL RECOVERY POSITION

173
Q

________________________ are fixed or installed units that should be part of the required on board ambulance equiopment.

A

MOUNTED SUCTION DEVICES

174
Q

Mounted suction devices should be powerful enough to provide an airflow of greater than _________________ at the end of the delivery tube and create a vacuum of more than _______________ mmHg on the gauge when the tubing is clamped or kinked

A

GREATER THAN 40 LPM

300 MMHG

175
Q

A _________________________ msut produce a vacuum adequate to suction substances from the pharynx

A

PORTABLE SUCTION DEVICE

176
Q

A portable suction device generally needs a pressure of ____________________ mmHg to provide adequate suction

A

80 TO 120 mmHg

177
Q

_____________________ units can be electric, oxygen, air, or hand owered

A

PORTABLE SUCTION UNITS

178
Q

_______________________ devices must have fully charged batteries to function effectively

A

ELECTRIC SUCTION DEVICES

179
Q

____________________ devices function only as long as a source of oxygen is available

A

OXYGEN POWERED DEVICES

180
Q

__________________ suction devices do not require any energy source other than an EMT to create the vacuum

A

HAND POWERED

181
Q

____________________ must be disposable and capable of being connected to the suction unit’s tubing

A

SUCTION CATHETERS

182
Q

What are the two different types of suction catheters?

A

HARD OR RIGID CATHETERS

SOFT CATHETERS

183
Q

The ____________________ catheter is commonly referred to as a “tonsil tiop” or “tonsil sucker.”

A

HARD OR RIGID

184
Q

The ______________________ is used to suction the mouth and oropharynx aof an unresponsive patient

A

HARD OR RIGID CATHETER

185
Q

The _____________________ should be inserted only as far as you can see, typically not farther than the base of the tongue

A

CATHETER

186
Q

The tip of the suction catheter may stimu8late a _______________ reflex and cause vomiting

A

GAG

187
Q

If you are using a _________________ on a child or infant, be careful when applying suction, bercause doing so might cause soft tissue trauma and may also stimulate bradycardia

A

HARD CATHETER

188
Q

When using a suction catheter on infants and children, never _______________________

A

TOUCH THE BACK OF THE AIRWAY

189
Q

The _____________________ is also called a “French” catheter

A

SOFT CATHETER

190
Q

The ___________________ is used in suctioning the nose and nasopharynx and in other siuations where the rigid catheter cannot be used.

A

SOFT CATHETER

191
Q

_________________ is defined as the air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

A

RESIDUAL VOLUME

192
Q

Even though the nasopharyngeal airway is lubricated, insertion is painful and may cause injury to the _________________ causing the nose to bleed and allowing blood to enter the airway, resulting in possible obstruction or aspiration.

A

NASAL MUCOSA

193
Q

Adequate and inadequate breathing depend on what two variables ?

A

The RATE at which the patient is breathing and the DEPTH of each breath

194
Q

_______________________ deals with both depth and rate

A

MINUTE VOLUME

195
Q

__________________ typically correlates with how adequately the patient is breathing

A

MINUTE VOLUME

196
Q

A decrease in either the ________________ or the respiratory rate may lead to a decrease in minute volume so severe that the patient is no longer moving an adequate amount of air per minute in and out of the lungs

A

TIDAL VOLUME

197
Q

Typically, an increase in either _________________ or respiratory rate would increase the respiratory minute ventilation

A

TIDAL VOLUME

198
Q

What is the best method to assess for tidal volume?

A

LOOK FOR ADEQUATE CHEST RISE AND LISTEN FOR AIR MOVEMENT FORM THE NOSE AND MOUTH

199
Q

___________________ is the amount f air breathed in that reaches the alvoli

A

ALVOLAR VENTILATION

200
Q

Only the air that reaches the ______________ can be used for gas exchange sicne the trachea and bronchi do not participate in gas exchange

A

ALVEOLI

201
Q

Because of the effect of _________________ on ventilation, deceases in tidal volume can dramatically reduce the amount of air reaching the alveoli for gas exchange.

A

DEAD AIR SPACE

202
Q

If an adult is breathing at 12 times per minute, but has a condition that depresses the respiratory system and is only breathing In 200 mL of air with each breath, what is his “Minute Volume” ?

A

200mL x 12 per minute

Minute Volume = 2,400 mL

203
Q

What are the four steps of assessment for adequate breathing?

A

LOOKING

LISTENING

FEELING

AUSCULTATING

204
Q

When assessing for adequate breathing, what does it mean to look (inspect)? What are the four steps?

A

INSPECT THE CHEST

OBSERVE THE PATIENT’S GENERAL APPEARANCE

DECIDE IF THE BREATHING PATTERN IS REGULAR OR IRREGULAR

LOOK AT THE NOSTRILS AND SEE IF THEY ARE OPEN WIDE DURING INHALATION

205
Q

When assessing for adequate breathing, what does it mean to listen?

A

Listen to how the patient speaks to you. If he speaks with only few words at a time, or has to catch his breath, it could mean he would need ventilation

206
Q

When assessing for adequate breathing, what does it mean to “feel”?

A

It means to feel with your ear next to the patien’ts nose and mouth, and feel for air escaping during exhalation

207
Q

When assessing for adequate breathing, what does it mean to “Auscultate”?

A

It means to place your stethoscope at the second intercostal space, about 2 inches below the clavicle at the midclavicular line, and listening to one full inhalation and exhalation and determine if the breath sounds are present and equal bilaterally

208
Q

When “Auscultating”, where are you to place your stethoscope?

A

About 2 inches below the clavicle at the midclavicular line, or at the fourth or fifth intercostal space on the mixaxillary line

209
Q

What are the four characteristics of quality or adequate breathing?

A

RATE

RHYTHM

QUALITY

DEPTH

210
Q

When checking for adequate breathing, what are the respiratory rates for adults, children, and infants respectively

A

8-24

15-30

25-30

211
Q

What is “rhythm” in respect to a characteristic of adequate breathing?

A

It just means that the pattern is regular, and that each breath is of about the same volume

212
Q

What is “quality” in respect to a characteristic of adequate breathing?

A

It means that the breath sounds are equal and full bilaterally, indicating a good expansion of each lung

213
Q

What is “depth” (tidal volume) in respect to a characteristic of adequate breathing?

A

It means that the chest will rise fully with each inhalation, and that the volume of air felt and heard by placing your ear next to the patient’s mouth and nose will be full and adequate with each breath

214
Q

___________________ is a condition where the patient is working harder to breathe

A

RESPIRATORY DISTRESS

215
Q

Respiratory distress may be from the patient working harder to move _____________ into the lungs, out of the lungs or both

A

AIR

216
Q

The key to respiratory distress is that, even though the patient is working harder to breathe, the ______________ and the ______________ are still inadequate

A

RESPIRATORY RATE AND TIDAL VOLUME

217
Q

If at any time, either the respiratory rte, or tidal volume becomes inadequate the patient ____________________________

A

NEEDS TO BE VENTILATED

218
Q

For the patient to have adequate breathing he must have both an adequate ______________ and an adequate __________________

A

TIDAL VOLUME

RESPIRATORY RATE

219
Q

_________________________ occurs when the respiratory rate and or tidal volume is insufficient enough that it results in hypoxia to the cells and organs

A

RESPIRATORY FAILURE

220
Q

_______________________ is also called apnea

A

RESPIRATORY ARREST

221
Q

_______________ occurs when the patient completely stops breathing, and there is no movement of air

A

RESPIRATORY ARREST

222
Q

Stroke

Myocardial infarction

Drug overdose

Toxic inhalation

Succocation

Traumatic injuries to the head, spine, chest, or abdomen

Infection to the epiglottis

Airway obstruction

These are all common causes of what?

A

RESPIRATORY ARREST

223
Q

A patient who exhibits signs of respiratory failure or respiratory arrest requires immediate intervention with ___________________________

A

POSITIVE PRESSURE VENTILATION

224
Q

A type of respiratory pattern that is compldetely inadequate and may be seen in witnessed cardiac arrest or in some conditions is called _________________

A

AGONAL RESPIRATIONS

225
Q

__________________ are gasping type breaths

A

AGONAL RESPIRATIONS

226
Q

_____________________ in the cardiac arrest patient usually appear soon after the person goes into cardiac arrest

A

AGONAL RESPIRATIONS

227
Q

When agonal respiratiosn are found in a patient who does not yet seem to be in cardiac arrest, immediately ______________________

A

CHECK THE PERSON’ PULSE

228
Q

If air is being forced ito the patient’s lungs, the technique is referred to as ___________________

A

POSITIVE PRESSRUE VENTILATION

229
Q

What are the four methods of artificial ventilation?

A

MOUTH TO MASK

BAG VALVE MASK OPERATED BY TWO PEOPLE

FLOW RESTRICTED, OXYGEN POWERED VENTILATION DEVICE

BAG VALVE MASK OPERATED BY ONE PERSON

230
Q

When performing artificial ventilation, regardless of the device being used, it is necessary to monitor the patient continuouysly to ensure that the _______________ is adequate

A

VENTILATION

231
Q

Ventilation must not be interrupted for greter than ________________

A

30 seconds

232
Q

Infants and children must be ventilated at a rate of ____________________

A

12-20 per minute

Once every 3 seconds or every 5 seconds

233
Q

The ventilation rate for adults WITH A PULSE is ______________

A

10-12 times per minute

ONce every 6 seconds or every 5 seconds

234
Q

Each ventilation should be delivered over how long?

A

1 second

235
Q

If the adult patient has no pulse, the ventilations are performed in conjunction with chest compressions at a ratio of ____________________

A

30 COMPRESSIONS to 2 VENTILATIONS

236
Q

If the child patient has no pulse, the ventilatonis are performed in conjunction with chest compressions at a ratio of ______________

A

15 COMPRESSIONS to 2 VENTILATIONS

237
Q

The rate of ventilation for a newborn infant WITH a pulse is _______________________

A

40-60 ventilations per minute

238
Q

In the newborn with no pulse, the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 3:1 or ___________________________

A

90 compression to 30 ventilations

239
Q

The ventilation rate is too fast or too slow

The chest does not rise and fall with artificial ventilation

The heart does not return to normal with artificial ventilation

Color does not improve

These are all indications of what?

A

INADEQUATE VENTILATION

240
Q

Ventilation a patient too rapidly does not allow for adequate exhalation and can also cause _________________________

A

GASTRIC DISTENTION

241
Q

Ventilating a patient too slowly will not provide an adequate amount of _______________

A

OXYGEN

242
Q

_________________ was once thought to reduce complications associated with positive pressure ventilation when the unresponsive patient’s airway is not protected by an advanced airway device

A

CRICOID PRESSURE

243
Q

____________________ was intended to reduce the incidence of gastric inflation, regurgitation, and aspirations of gastric contents

A

CRICOID PRESSURE

244
Q

According to the American heart Association, ________________f is not recommended for routine use but can be used fto facilitate insertion of an endotracheal tube in an adult

A

CRICOID PRESSURE

245
Q

In the pediatric patient, ______________________ can be considered only if an ___________________ is available to apply pressue without comporomising the airway or effective ventilation and to guard against collapse of the trachea from excessive pressure

A

CRICOID PRESSURE

EXTRA EMT

246
Q

Because exhaled breath contains about ________________ percent oxygen, a patient can be oxygenated with the rescuer’s exhaled breath

A

16

247
Q

In a “mouth to mouth and mouth to nose technique” the EMT forms a seal with his mouth around the patient’s mouth or nose and uses ___________________ to ventilate

A

HIS EXHALED AIR

248
Q

The ________________ is pinched during mouth to mouth ventilation

A

NOSE

249
Q

What are the major disadvangaes or limitations of the mouth to mouth technique?

A

The inability to deliver high concentrations of oxygen

Risk posed to the EMT by contact with the patient’s body fluids

250
Q

Use __________________ ventilation when the patient’s mouth cannot be opened, or when you cannot achieve a tight mouth to mouth seal

A

MOUTH TO NOSE

251
Q

When ventilation a patient it is necessary o adjust the volume and rate of ventilation based on whether the patient has a ______________________

A

PULSE

252
Q

If the patient has a pulse, the amount of air volume delivered to the patient should be approximately __________________, enough to make the chest rise adequately and effectively with each ventilation

A

10ml/kG (700-100 ml)

253
Q

If the patient has an advanced airway in place, the ventilation in the patient without a pulse is reduced to ____________________

A

8-10 ventilations per minute

Every 6 to 8 seconds

254
Q

It is extremely important to not to _______________________ the patient by providing either too fast a rate or too great a volume

A

OVERVENTILATE

255
Q

_____________________ may cause the blood flow to the brain and heart to be reduced

A

OVERVENTILATON

256
Q

Decreasing the ____________________ is aimed at reducing the incidence of gastric distention and the potential regurgitation and aspiration that can occur during motuh to mask or bag valve mask ventilation

A

VENTILATION VOLUME

257
Q

________________ should be connected to the pocket mask or BVM at a liter flow of 15 lpm as early as possible when ventilating a patient

A

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN

258
Q

What are the five steps to correctly identifying proper ventilation problems

A

REPOSTION THE HEAD AND NECK TO ENSURE THE AIRWAY IS OPEN

CHANGE FROM A HEAD TILT, CHIN LIFT TO A JAW THRUST AND VICE VERSA

READJUST THE FACE MASK AND MAKE SURE THERE ARE NO SEAL LEAKS BETWEEN TEH FACE AND THE MASK

ADMINISTER A GREATER TIDAL VOLUME

INSERT AN OROPHARYNGEAL OR NASOPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY TO ASSIST IN MAINTAINING AN OPEN AIRWAY

259
Q

________________________ is a manual resuscitator used to provide positive pressure ventilaton

A

BAG VALE MASK DEVICE

260
Q

The _____________________ consists of a self- inflating bag, a one way non rebreathe valve, a face mask, an intake/oxygen reservoir valve, and an oxygen reservoir

A

BAG VALVE MASKE DEVICE

261
Q

Most adult sized BVM devices have a volume of approximately ____________________

A

1600 mL

262
Q

In the adult, deliver approximately _________________ with each ventilation

A

600 mL

263
Q

Ensure that each ventilation delivered is enough to produce _________________ over _____________ second(s)

A

CHEST RISE

1 SECOND

264
Q

Bag valve mask devices used for ventilation of full term newborns, infants, and children should have a minimum volume of ___________________

A

450-500 mL

265
Q

In children 8 years or greater, use an _______________ BVM device

A

ADULT

266
Q

Regardless of the size of the BVM, be sure to use only enogh volume to cause _______________

A

CHEST RISE

267
Q

If you suspect a patient has a spinal injury, you must establish and maintain ____________________ as a priority

A

SPINAL STABILIZATION

268
Q

A ____________________ is powered by oxygen and, with a proper mask seal, will deliver 100 percent oxygen to thee patient

A

FLOW RESTRICTED OXYGEN POWERED VENTILATION DEVICE (FROPVD)
AKA
MTV

269
Q

In fa normal breathing patient the valve of the MTV is opened automatically by the negative pressure created by the ____________________

A

PATIENT’S INHALATION

270
Q

The MTV is designed to be used only _______________________

A

ON ADULT PATIENTS

271
Q

Accordign to the American Heart Associatoin guidelines, the FROPVD is an aid in ventilating a patient in ________________ when used in the manual mode, which requires the EMT to trigger the device to dleliver a ventilation

A

CARDIAC ARREST

272
Q

What is the peak flow rate on a MTV?

A

40lpm and 100 percent oxygen

273
Q

Most ________________ use oxygen as their power source, thereby delivering 100 percent oxygen during ventilation

A

ATV’S

274
Q

The ____________ can deliver oxygen at lower inspiratory flow rates and for longer inspiratory times therefore the devices have a lesser likelihood of causing gastric distention compared to other methods of positive pressure ventilation, including mouth to mask and GBM ventilation

A

ATV

275
Q

Some _____________ have a demand valve built in, in the event that the patient begins to breathe spontaneously

A

ATVS

276
Q

The valve of an ATV should be able to deliver a peak inspiratory flow rate of ________________

A

120 lpm

277
Q

The ATV should have an appropriate inspiration to exhalation ratio of ____________

A

1:2 seconds

278
Q

Some _______________ have alarms that indicate low oxygen levels, disconnecjtion from the mask, or a low battery

A

ATV’S

279
Q

The ________________ may also have the ability to provide positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) or continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

A

ATV

280
Q

If the patient presents with either inadequate respiratory rate or tidal volume, even though he is still breathing, it is necessary to ventilate the patient and provide supplementary oxygen to ensure that he is receiving an adequate _____________________

A

ALVEOLAR VENTILATION VOLUME

281
Q

_________________ is a form of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation used in the awake and spontaneously breathing patient who needs ventilator support

A

CPAP

282
Q

CPAP is applied typically to patients with ____________ or ________________ with pulmonary involvement who are in moderate to severe respiratory distress or early respiratory failure who have an intact mental status and airway reflex

A

RESPIRATORY DISEASE

CARDIAC FAILURE

283
Q

CPAP is often used to avoid the need to place an ______________________ to artificially ventilate the patient

A

ADVANCED AIRWAY

284
Q

CPAP is delivered via a tightly fitted mask and a device that generates a continuous flow of air through the airway under positive pressure that is __________________ than normal air pressure

A

HIGHER

285
Q

_________________ can also be used to deliver CPAP

A

NASAL PRONGS

286
Q

The continuous delivery of air under positive pressure is intended to inflate collapsed alveoli, improve oxygenation, improve pulmonary compliance, and ____________________

A

REDUCE THE PATIENT’S WORK OF BREATHING

287
Q

It takes a great deal of work and energy to ____________________ with each breath

A

REINFLATE THE ALVEOLI

288
Q

By keeping the alveoli open with the __________________, less work is required and less energy is used

A

CPAP

289
Q

The _____________________ typically averts complete respiratory failure or arrest and allows the patient to continue to breathe on his own

A

CPAP

290
Q

___________________ increases hydrostatic pressure inside the pulmonary capillaries, forcing fluid out of the capillaries and into the adjoining aveloli displacing the air in the alvoli and inhibiting gas exchange

A

LEFT VENTRICULAR FAILURE

291
Q

The continuous pressure created by the alvoli by CPAP prevents ___________________ into the alvoli and actually forces fluid that may already have accumulated out of the alvoli and back into the interstitial space and the capillaries

A

FURTHER FLUID LEAKAGE

292
Q

______________________ improves the heart rate and blood pressure and reduces the sympathetic tone by improving gas exchange and oxygenation

A

CPAP

293
Q

CPAP is delivered at a continuous airway pressure from ___________ cmH20 to ___________ cmH20

A

2-20

294
Q

Most often, CPAP is initiated at the ____________ setting and titrated up to ________ cmH20

A

LOWEST

5

295
Q

In most protocols, a CPAP pressure of ____________ cmH20 is never exceeded because of the increased risk of barotrauma

A

10

296
Q

Most orders recommend using a CPAP of __________cmH20 and titrating upward based on the patient’s physiological response

A

5

297
Q

__________________ IS USED TO SUPPORT VENTILATIONS, NOT AS A DEVICE TO PROVIDE ARTIFICAL VENTILATION

A

cpap

298
Q

Awake, alert, and oriented enough to obey commands

Able to maintain his own airway

Able to breathe on his own and has a respiratory rate greater than 25 breaths a minute

Exhibits signs and symptoms of moderate to severe respiratory distress or early respiratory failure

These are all criteria for use of

A

CPAP

299
Q

____________________ should be used with caution in patients with hypotension nad hypovolemia

A

CPAP

300
Q

CPAP creates an increase in _________________ pressure that may result in decrease in cardiac output, worsening the state of hyptension or hypperfusion

A

INTRATHORACIC

301
Q

When administering a CPAP procedure, be sure to completely _______________________ the patient, how it will feel, and its benefits

A

INFORM

302
Q

When administering a cpap procedure, it is vital that you continuously _________________ the patient in order to lessen his anxiety and fear

A

COACH

303
Q

When using the CPAP machine, it may take only ___________________ minutes before the patient begins to show improvement

A

5-10 MINUTES

304
Q

When using the CPAP you must do a continuous Sp02 moniootoring and eassess the vital signs every _________ minutes

A

5 minutes

305
Q

When using CPAP you must ensure that you have an adequate __________________ since most CPAP devices use oxygen as their source of pressure

A

OXYGEN SOURCE

306
Q

When using the CPAP machine place the patient in a seated or ___________________________ position

A

SEMI-FOWLER’S POSITION

307
Q

When using the CPAP machine, assemble the ________________ to the CPAP device and ensure it is properly functioning

A

BREATHING CIRCUIT

308
Q

When using the CPAP machine, increase the CPAP pressure by increments of _____ cmH20 until the patient’s response improves

A

TWO

309
Q

When using the CPAP, DO NOT ECEED _____CMh20 UNLESS DIRECTED BY MEDICAL DIRECTION

A

10

310
Q

When using CPAP, do not ______________ unless directed by medical direction

A

DISCONTINUE

311
Q

When transferring a patient on CPAP, it is important to _________________________ the receiving medical facility that the patient is on CPAP so they can prepare to transfer the patient ot theirCPAP device upon arrival without discontinuation to the patient

A

NOTIFY

312
Q

________________ is similar to CPAP but allows for different airway pressures to be set for inspiration and expiration

A

BILEVEL POSITIVE AIRWAY PRESSURE

BiPAP

313
Q

A ____________ is a surgical opening in the front of the neck that may be permanent or temporary

A

STOMA

314
Q

One reason for the presence of a stoma in the patient’s neck is that a ____________________ has been performed

A

TRACHEOSTOMY

315
Q

Often, a _________________, a curved hollow tube made of rubber, plastic or metal, is inserted into the stoma to help hold it open.

A

TRACHEOSTOMY TUBE

316
Q

When ventilating through the tracheostomy tube, it may be necessary to seal the patient’s _____________ and __________________ to prevent air fro mescaping

A

MOUTH AND NOSE

317
Q

________________ can cause excessive swelling that may partially or completely occlude the airway.

A

BLUNT INJURY

318
Q

If the patient is responsive and choking but is effectively moving air when inhaling nad exhaling, instruct him to _______________

A

COUGH

319
Q

Cough that becomes silent

Stridr heard on inhalation

Increase in labored breathing

These are all signs of ?

A

PARTIAL AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION WITH POOR AIR EXCHANGE

320
Q

If the airway is completely occluded and there is no air movement, perform ________________ cycles of foreign body airway obstruction maneuver

A

THREE

321
Q

In a choking patient, once the obstruction is relieved, closely asses the patient’s ___________ and ___________________

A

BREATHING STATUS AND PULSE

322
Q

If the patient has dentures that are secure in the mouth ___________________

A

LEAVE THEM IN PLACE

323
Q

Liquid oxygen is stored in _____________ or ____________ cylinders under a pressure of about 2,000lbs per square inch

A

STEEL OR ALUMINUM

324
Q

What are the five sizes of oxygen cylinders used in prehospital care from least to greatest?

A

D cylinder- 350 liters

E culinder- 625 liters

M cylinder- 3,000 liters

G cylinder- 5,300 liters

H cylinder- 6,900 liters

325
Q

The only way to truly determine the amount of oxygen in the tank is to apply the gauge and identify the _____________ remaining in the tank

A

PRESSURE

326
Q

Because oxygen is a gas that acts as an accelerant for combustion and oxygen cyliners are under high pressure, the must be handled _____________________

A

VERY CAREFULLY

327
Q

When using oxygen, never allow __________________ to touch the cylinder, regulator, fittings, valves, or hoses

A

COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS

328
Q

When using oxygen, never __________ or allow others to ______ in any area where oxygen cylinders are in use or on standby

A

SMOKE

329
Q

When using oxygen, store the cylinders below _____________

A

125 *F

330
Q

Gas flow from an oxygen cylinder is controlled by a _________________ that reduces the high pressure in the cylinder to a safe range

A

PRESSURE REGULATOR

331
Q

The pressure regulator reduces the high pressure in the cylinder to a safe range from ________ to ________ psi

A

30-70 psi

332
Q

The _________ prevents a regulator from being attached accidentally or purposefully to another type of gas.

A

YOKE

333
Q

Oxygen cylinders in the US are generally ___________ green or ____________ gray

A

STEEL

ALUMINUM

334
Q

What are the two types of regulators that may be attached to an oxygen cylinder?

A

HIGH PRESSURE REGULATOR

THERAPY REGULATOR

335
Q

The ___________________ can provide 50 psi to power a flow restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device

A

HIGH PRESSURE REGULATOR

336
Q

The ________________________ has only one gauge, which registers the cylinder contents, and a thereded outlet

A

HIGH PRESSURE REGULATOR

337
Q

The _________________ can administer oxygen from .5lpm up to 25lpm

A

THERAPY REGULATOR

338
Q

The therapy regulator tpically has _______ gauges.

A

TWO

339
Q

Oxygen exits the tank in a dry ____________ form

A

GASEOUS

340
Q

It is possible to add moisture to the oxygen by attaching an _______________________ to the regulator

A

OXYGEN HUMIDIFIER

341
Q

The _________________is a container that is filled with sterile water

A

OXYGEN HUMIDIFIER

342
Q

humidified OXYGEN IS RECOMMENDED IN _______________ patients

A

ASTHMA

343
Q

______________ is actually a drug

A

OXYGEN

344
Q

Oxygen should be used any patient in ____________ or ___________ arrest

A

CARDIAC OR RESPIRATORY ARREST

345
Q

Oxygen should be used with any patient who is being _____________

A

VENTILATED

346
Q

Oxygen should be used when any signs of _________________ in a patient with an adequate respiratory rate and an adequate tidal volume

A

HYPOXIA

347
Q

Oxygen should be used with any patient who is ___________________

A

UNRESPONSIVE

348
Q

Oxygen should be used if there is any exposure to ______________

A

TOXINS

349
Q

If there is any doubt, it is better to err on the side of benefiting the patient ,and deliver the ________________

A

OXYGEN

350
Q

Never withhold _____________ from a patient who you think may need it

A

OXYGEN

351
Q

Patients with acute coronary syndrome who are exhibiting evidence of hypoxia or hypoxemia, have a complaint of dyspnea, have signs of heart failure, and have an SpO2 of less than __________ should receive supplemental oxygen

A

94%

352
Q

_________________ is no longer a standard treatment

A

OXYGEN THERAPY

353
Q

The oxygen levels in the arterial blood in the patient with adequate perfusion and gas exchange can be increased significantly with the use of a simple nasal cannula at _____________________

A

2 to 6 lpm

354
Q

The preferred method for delivering oxygen in the prehospital setting when a high concentration is desirable is with a _____________________

A

NONREBREATHER MASK

355
Q

The __________________ has an oxygen reservoir bag attached to the mask with a one-way valve between them that prevents the patien’s exhaled air form mixing the oxygen with the reservoir.

A

NONREBREATHER MASK

356
Q

A poorly inflated nonrebreather mask reservoir may cause a decrease in the patient’s ___________________ and worsen the patient’s ventilation and oxygen status

A

TIDAL VOLUME

357
Q

The contents of the reservoir bag is _________ percent oxygen

A

100

358
Q

When using the nonrebreather mask, because some ambient air is inhaled from around the edges of the mask, the oxygen concentration actually delivered is usally around ______________ percent

A

90

359
Q

When using a nonrebreather mask, the flow from the oxygen cylinder should be set at a rate that prevents ____________________

A

The reservoir bag form collapsing when the patient exhales

360
Q

An alternative oxygen delivery device is a ________________________

A

NASAL CANULA

361
Q

The nasal canula provides a very limited oxygen concentration from approximately ________ to _________ percent

A

22-44 percent

362
Q

The main indication for use of a nasal canula if for a patient who is not able to tolerate a ____________________

A

NONREBREATHER MASK

363
Q

The nasal canula is a __________ system that does not supply enough oxygen to provide the entire tidal volume during inhalation

A

“LOW FLOW”

364
Q

As a general rule of use of the nasal canula, for every liter per minute of flow delivered, the oxygen concentration the patient inhales increases by ___________ percent

A

four

365
Q

The liter flow for the nasal cannula should be set at no less than _________ lpm and no greater than ______ lpm

A

1

6

366
Q

When using the nasal canula, connect the tubing to the regulator and set the liter volume flow between _____________ nad ______________ lpm

A

4 and 6 lpm

367
Q

A ___________________ is an oxygen delivery device that has no rewervoir and can deliver up to 60 percent oxygen, depending on the patient’s tidal volume and the oxygen flow rate

A

SIMPLE FACE MASK

368
Q

The ________________ is an oxygen delivery device that looks very similar to the nonrebreather mask but is equipped with a two way valve that allows the patient to rebreathe about 1/3 of his exhaled air

A

PARTIAL REBREATHER MASK

369
Q

The oxygen flow rate for a simple face mask oxygen delivery device is usually set at ____________ lpm but must not be set less than _______ lpm

A

10

6

370
Q

The flow rate for a partial rebreather mask is typically set at _________ lpm but should be no less than _____ lpm

A

10

6

371
Q

Partial rebreather masks can provide oxygen concentrations of between ______ and ______ percent

A

35 and 60 percent

372
Q

The ______________ is an oxygen device that is a low flow oxygen system that provides precise concentrations of oxygen through an entrainment valve connected to the face mask

A

VENTURI MASK

373
Q

The ________________ is commonly used for a patient with a history of COPD because of its ability to deliver precise concentration of oxygen

A

VENTURI MASK

374
Q

The ________________ is a oxygen delivery device that is used to deliver aerosolized medication, bland aersol therapy, or oxygen to a patient with a tracheostomy tube

A

TRECHEOSTOMY MASK