Module 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average resting heart rate for an adult?

a. 60 BPM
b. 70 BPM
c. 75 BPM
d. 80 BPM

A

b. 70 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cardiac output is equal to ___

a. stroke volume -cardiac volume
b. stroke volume/cardiac rate
c. stroke volume + cardiac rate
d. stroke volume x cardiac rate

A

d. cardiac volume x cardiac rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Norepinephrine is released from ___ neurons, causing heart rate to ___.

a. parasympathetic; increase
b. parasympathetic; decrease
c. sympathetic; increase
d. sympathetic; decrease

A

c. sympathetic, increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of receptors do norepinephrine and epinephrine bind in the heart?

a. B1-adrenergic
b. a-adrenergic
c. Muscarinic
d. Nicotinic

A

a. B1-adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acetylcholine binds to ___ receptors of the heart and causes the opening of ___ channels.

a. muscarinic; K +
b. nicotinic; K +
c. muscarinic, Na +
d. nicotinic, Na+

A

a. muscarinic, K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will ____
a. increase the rate of depolarization in the ventricles
b, increase conduction rate between the SA and AV nodes
c. increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The cardiac control center of the ___ coordinates the autonomic innervation of the heart.

a. pons
b. cerebrum
c. medulla oblongata
d. midbrain

A

c. medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the ___

a. after-load
b. pre-diastolic volume (PDV)
c. stroke volume (SV)
d. end-diastolic volume (EDV)

A

d. end-diastolic volume (EDV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ejection fraction is ___

a. the ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume
b. the ratio of end diastolic volume to end systolic volume
c. increased by parasympathetic agonists
d. decreased by sympathetic agonists

A

a. the ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stroke volume is affected by all of the following EXCEPT

a. total peripheral resistance
b. emotional stress
c. cardiac contractility
d. end diastolic volume (EDV)

A

b. emotional stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, as contraction strength increases the stroke volume ___

a. decreases
b. increases
c. shows no change

A

b. increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stroke volume is inversely proportional to ___

a. preload
b. contractility
c. total peripheral resistance
d. both preload and contractility are correct

A

c. total peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In response to increased ventricular filling, ___

a. total peripheral resistance increases
b. sympathetic nerves release norepinephrine
c. myocardial cells stretch
d. myocardial contractility in decreases

A

c. myocardial cells stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The ability to distend with pressure increases is called ___

a. chronotropism
b. oncotism
c. isotropism
d. compliance

A

d. compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Elephantiasis is caused by __.

a. decreased plasma protein concentration
b. obstruction of lymphatic drainage
c. high arterial blood pressure
d. myxedema

A

b. obstruction of lymphatic drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The opposing forces that affect fluid movements across a capillary are known as ___.

a. oncotic pressures
b. startiling forces
c. colloid osmotic pressures
d. none of the choices are correct

A

b. starling forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What allows cardiac muscle to have sufficient oxygen during systole?

a. large amount of myoglobin
b. many mitochondria
c. many aerobic enzymes
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In response to increased internal temperature, blood flow to the skin will ___

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain unchanged

A

a. increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Arterial blood pressure is influenced by __

a. vasoconstriction in the peripheral arterioles
b. increased heart rate
c. increased stroke volume
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If cardiac output increases, the peripheral resistance must ___ for arterial blood pressure to remain constant

a. increase
b. decrease
c. no change

A

b. decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which blood vessels have the lowest pressure?

a. veins
b. arterioles
c. venues
d. capillaries

A

a. veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inhibition of the baroreceptor reflex would prevent proper regulation of all but ___.

a. heart rate
b. stroke volume
c. respiratory rate
d. blood pressure

A

c. respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

increased blood pressure stimulates ___.

a. decreased outflow from the baroreceptors
b. decreased sympathetic outflow to the heart
c. decreased parasympathetic outflow to the heart
d. postural hypotension

A

b. decreased sympathetic outflow to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Expanded blood volume stimulates stretch receptors in the atria of the heart, causing increased secretion of __.

a. atrial natriuretic peptide
b. aldosterone
c. epinephrine
d. parasympathetic antagonists

A

a. atrial natriuretic peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to ___ pressure.

a. atmospheric
b. systolic
c. diastolic
d. pulmonary

A

c. diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

As age increases, the maximum cardiac rate will ___.

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain unchanged

A

b. decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Essential hypertension may result from ___.

a. a diet high in sodium
b. decreased ADH secretion
c. decreased sympathetic vasoconstriction
d. decreased release of endothelin

A

a. a diet high in sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hypertension can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT ___.

a. ACE inhibitors
b. calcium channel blockers
c. diuretics
d. sympathetic agonists

A

d. sympathetic agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypertension may cause

a. increased after load
b. hypertrophy of the ventricles and valve defects
c. broken capillaries in tissues and organs
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is pulse pressure a better indicator of cardiovascular health than blood pressure alone?

a. it takes into account the fact that diastole is longer than systole
b. it accounts for the perfusion of blood to the visceral organs
c. it is a better predictor for essential hypertension in patient
d. it shows the summation of both systolic and diastolic pressures to indicate overall blood volume

A

b. it accounts for the perfusion of blood to the visceral organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Blood pressure is measured with a

a. sphygmomanometer
b. electrocardiograph
c. spirometer
d. stethoscope

A

a. sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The events listed below are all components of respiration EXCEPT

a. gas exchange
b. oxygen utilization
c. speech
d. ventilation

A

c. speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The conducting zone contains all of the following EXCEPT the ___.

a. primary bronchi
b. larynx
c. terminal bronchioles
d. respiratory bronchioles

A

d. respiratory bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diffusion rate across the respiratory membrane is rapid because __.

a. there are about 750 square feet of alveoli
b. alveoli are one cell thick
c. the air-blood barrier is two cells thick
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the ___ separates the abdominal and thoracic cavities.

a. lungs
b. liver
c. rib cage
d. diaphragm

A

d. diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Intrapleural pressure __ during expiration

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged

A

a. increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What law states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume?

a. Boyle’s Law
b. Charles’ law
c. Dalton’s law
d. Henry’s Law

A

a. Boyle’s Law

38
Q

The tendency of the lungs to return to their initial size after stretching is ___.

a. compliance
b. elasticity
c. surface tension
d. none of the choices are correct

A

b. elasticity

39
Q

What phospholipid decreases the surface tension of the alveoli?

a. Mucus
b. saliva
c. surfactant
d. lymph

A

c. surfactant

40
Q

How does surfactant reduce the surface tension of water in the lungs?

a. decomposes water
b. reduces hydrogen bonding between water molecules
c. covers the alveoli
d. all of the choices are correct

A

b. reduces hydrogen bonding between water molecules

41
Q

Fluid secretion by lung cells is due to ___ alveolar cells

a. active transport of Na+ into
b. active transport of Cl- out of
c. passive transport of HCO3- out of
d. active transport of Na+ out of

A

b. active transport of Cl- out of

42
Q

Which muscles contraction will stimulate inspiration?

a. diaphragm
b. external intercostals
c. parasternal intercostals
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

43
Q

Quiet expiration is caused by ___.

a. contraction of the external intercostals
b. contraction of the internal intercostals
c. lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure
d. contraction of the scalenes

A

c. lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure

44
Q

Quiet inspiration will ___ thoracic and lung volume and ___ intrapulmonary pressure

a. increase; increase
b. increase; decrease
c. decrease; increase
d. decrease; decrease

A

b. increase; decrease

45
Q

Cessation of breathing is known as __.

a. apnea
b. dyspnea
c. eupnea
d. pneumothorax

A

a. apnea

46
Q

The volume of gas inspired or expired in a quiet respiration cycle is the __.

a. tidal volume
b. vital capacity
c. inspiratory reserve volume
d. residual volume

A

a. tidal volume

47
Q

The volume of gas remains in the lungs after a maximum expiration is the ___.

a. tidal volume
b. vital capactiy
c. inspiratory reserve volume
d. residual volume

A

d. residual volume

48
Q

The total amount of gas in the lungs after a maximum inspiration is the ___

a. vital capacity
b. total lung capactiy
c. tidal volume
d. functional residual capactiy

A

b. total lung capacity

49
Q

Which of the following may result from emphysema?

a. reduced gas exchange surface area
b. air trapping
c. cor pulmonale
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

50
Q

Which law states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas?

a. Charles’ law
b. Boyle’s law
c. Henry’s law
d. Laplace’s law

A

c. Henry’s law

51
Q

Pulmonary circulation is a ________ resistance and ________ pressure pathway.

a. low; high
b. low; low
c. high; low
d. high; high

A

b. low; low

52
Q

When alveolar ventilation increases, the perfusion of pulmonary arterioles will ________.

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain unchanged

A

a. increase

53
Q

Decompression sickness is caused by ascending to sea level too quickly which results in bubbles of ________ to form in the blood.

a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. carbon monoxide
d. nitrogen

A

d. nitrogen

54
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors that can detect changes in blood pH are located in the ________.

a. medulla oblongata
b. aortic and carotid bodies
c. pons
d. lungs

A

b. aortic and carted bodies

55
Q

What is the condition of having low blood oxygen levels?

a. hypocapnia
b. hypercapnia
c. hypoxia
d. hypoxemia

A

d. hypoxemia

56
Q

According to the Bohr effect, as pH is lowered, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen ________.

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged

A

b. decreases

57
Q

What disease is characterized by the abnormal hemoglobin S?

a. sickle cell anemia
b. thalassemia
c. cystic fibrosis
d. emphysema

A

a. sickle cell anemia

58
Q

The highest oxygen is demonstrated by ___

a. hemoglobin A
b. hemoglobin F
c. myoglobin
d. hemoglobin S

A

c. myoglobin

59
Q

The exchange of chloride ions for bicarbonate through tissue capillaries is called the ___

a. chloride shift
b. Bohr effect
c. oxygen toxicity
d. acidosis

A

a. chloride shift

60
Q

The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as ___.

a. dissolved carbon dioxide
b. bicarbonate ion
c. carbaminohemoglobin
d. carboxyhemoglobin

A

b. bicarbonate ion

61
Q

The enzyme ________ catalyzes the formation of H2CO3 from CO2 and water.

a. renin
b. nitric oxide synthase
c. lactate dehydrogenase
d. carbonic anhydrase

A

d. carbonic anhydrase

62
Q

Where does the reverse chloride shift occur?

a. tissue capillaries
b. pulmonary capillaries
c. arterioles
d. venules

A

d. pulmonary capillaries

63
Q

A pH above 7.45 is considered

a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
c. normal
d. metabolic

A

b. alkalosis

64
Q

Which of the following changes would occur during exercise?

a. increased blood gases
b. decreased ventilation
c. decreased oxygen delivery to muscles
d. increased oxygen extraction by muscles

A

d. increased oxygen extraction by muscles

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the conducting zone?

a. primary bronchi
b. trachea
c. alveoli
d. nose

A

c. alveoli

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone?

a. gas exchange
b. filtering and cleaning the air
c. warming and humidifying the air
d. all of the choices are functions

A

a. gas exchange

67
Q

Which of the following could be true of the following pressures are being measured?

  • transpulmonary pressure=6 mmHg
  • intraplueral pressure=667mmHg
  • atmospheric pressure=670mmHg
  • intrapulmonary pressure=673mmHg
    a. lung volume would remain unchanged
    b. normal inspiration
    c. normal expiration
    d. thoracic volume increase with lung collapse
A

c. normal expiration

68
Q

The direct role of blood oxygen levels in controlling respiration is called

a. hypoxic drive
b. hypocapnia
c. oxygen perfusion
d. acidosis

A

a. hypoxic drive

69
Q

An increase in ventilation due to a higher elevation is called

a. hypoxic ventilatory response
b. acute mountain sickness
c. thalassemia
d. Bohr effect

A

a. hypoxic ventilatory response

70
Q

T/F? During quiet inspirations, the intrapulmonary pressure is below atmospheric pressure.

A

TRUE

71
Q

T/F? During exhalation, the intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

A

TRUE

72
Q

T/F? During inspiration, the intrapleural pressure is higher than during expiration

A

FALSE

73
Q

T/F? Intrapulmonary pressure is normally lower than intrapleural pressure during inspiration and expiration.

A

FALSE

74
Q

Change in lung volume per change in trans pulmonary pressure is known as

A

Lung compliance

75
Q

The tendency for the lungs to return to their original size after being distended is known as

A

elasticity

76
Q

Thin film of fluid in the alveolus that causes the lungs to resist distention is known as

A

Surface Tension

77
Q

Produced by type ll alveolar cells; decreases tension on the surface of alveoli is known as

A

pulmonary surfactant

78
Q

T/F? During hypoventilation (inadequate ventilation), the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases?

A

TRUE

79
Q

T/F? During hypoventilation, pH levels increase

A

FALSE

80
Q

T/F? An increase in arterial CO2 causes a decrease in pH in the cerebrospinal fluid

A

TRUE

81
Q

T/F? When pH levels decline, chemoreceptors are stimulated to increase ventilation

A

TRUE

82
Q

T/F? When oxygen binds to hemoglobin, it forms oxyhemoglobin

A

TRUE

83
Q

T/F? The percentage of oxyhemoglobin to total hemoglobin in arterial blood is usually about 97%

A

TRUE

84
Q

T/F? Oxyhemoglobin in the veins in normally higher than in the arteries

A

FALSE

85
Q

T/F? During the loading reaction, oxygen binds with deoxyhemoglobin

A

TRUE

86
Q

T/F? At higher altitudes, respiration rates decrease

A

FALSE

87
Q

T/F? Respiratory alkalosis can occur due to the changes in respiration at high altitudes

A

TRUE

88
Q

T/F? In response to moderate exercise, there is usually no change in blood gases

A

TRUE

89
Q

T/F? The percent oxyhemoglobin saturation increases at higher altitudes

A

FALSE

90
Q

As carbon dioxide levels increase, pH levels will ____, causing the rate of respiration to ____

a. decrease; increase
b. decrease; decrease
c. increase; decrease
d. increase; increase

A

a. decrease; increase

91
Q

Hypoventilation (inadequate ventilation) can result in respiratory ___ while hyperventilation (excessive ventilation) can result in respiratory ____.

a. alkalosis; acidosis
b. acidosis; alkalosis

A

b. acidosis; alkalosis