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physiology > module 6 > Flashcards

module 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The more movable bony attachment is the ___

a. flexor
b. origin
c. extensor
d. insertion

A

d. insertion

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2
Q

Muscles which move a limb away the midline of the body are ___ muscles.

a. abductor
b. adductor
c. extensor
d. flexor

A

a. abductor

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3
Q

A muscle that constricts an opening is a/an

a. extensor
b. levator
c. antagonist
d. sphincter

A

d. sphincter

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4
Q

The prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the___

a. flexor
b. agonist
c. abductor
d. antagonist

A

b. agonist

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5
Q

The biceps brachia causes flexion of the elbow. The triceps brachii causes extension of the elbow, so it is a/an___

a. abductor
b. antagonist
c. agonist
d. levator

A

b. antagonist

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6
Q

Each fascicle of a muscle is surrounded by ___

a. perimysium
b. epimysium
c. endomysium
d. sarcolemma

A

a. perimysium

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7
Q

The light band of a skeletal muscle is known as the ___

a. A band
b. Z disc
c. I band
d. H band

A

c. I band

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8
Q

The specialized region of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction is called the___

a. syncytium
b. varicosity
c. fascicle
d. motor end plate

A

d. motor end plate

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9
Q

Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ___ at the neuromuscular junction.

a. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
c. norepinephrine
d. serotonin

A

b. acetylcholine

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10
Q

Each somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a

a. fascicle
b. varicosity
c. motor unit
d. sarcolemma

A

c. motor unit

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11
Q

Subunits of skeletal muscle fibers that are composed of sarcomeres are called ___

a. myofibrils
b. myofilaments
c. sarcolemmas
d. transverse tubules

A

a. myofibrils

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12
Q

What is the structural and functional unit of skeletal muscle?

a. A band
b. I band
c. Sarcomere
d. Myofibril

A

c. Sarcomere

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13
Q

The A band is composed primarily of ___

a. thick filaments
b. thin filaments
c. actin
d. titin

A

a. thick filaments

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14
Q

What protein primarily makes up the thick filaments?

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Titin
d. Troponin

A

b. Myosin

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15
Q

Myosin contains binding sites for ___ and ___.

a. sodium; calcium
b. troponin; ATP
c. ATP; actin
d. actin; calcium

A

c. ATP; actin

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16
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, ____.

a. the H band increases in size
b. Ca +2 associates with tropomyosin
c. myosin heads interact with tropomyosin
d. thin filaments slide across thick filaments

A

d. thin filaments slide across thick filaments

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17
Q

Which of the following molecules is NOT part of the thin filaments?

a. Actin
b. Titin
c. Troponin
d. Tropomyosin

A

b. Titin

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18
Q

Which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relaxed muscle?

a. Tropomyosin
b. Troponin
c. Calcium
d. Titin

A

a. Tropomyosin

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19
Q

Choose the description of an event that does NOT occur during the cross bridge cycle.

a. A new ATP binding causes cross bridges to release
b. ADP is released at the end of there power stroke
c. Energized myosin heads bind troponin
d. ATP hydrolysis allows for cross bridge formation

A

c. Energized myosin heads bind troponin

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20
Q

The movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex requires ___

a. ATP
b. Ca 2+
c. acetylcholine
d. Na +

A

c. Ca 2+

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21
Q

The Ca 2+ required for skeletal muscle contraction ___

a. is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. enters the cell due to the opening of voltage regulated Ca 2+ channels from the T tubules
c. is actively transported into the cell
d. is released from mitochondria

A

a. is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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22
Q

The pumps that actively transport calcium back into the ___ are called Ca +2 -ATPase pumps.

a. transverse tubules
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. neuromuscular junction
d. none of the choices are correct

A

b. sarcoplasmic reticulum

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23
Q

What structures carry the action potentials into the interior of the muscle to cause muscle contraction?

a. T tubules
b. Terminal cisternae
c. Sarcoplasmic reticula
d. Ryanodine receptors

A

a. T tubules

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the relaxation of a muscle fiber?

a. ATP is needed to fuel the calcium pumps
b. calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum close
c. calcium moves from troponin to tropomyosin
d. Ca 2+ moves from the sarcoplasm to the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

c. Calcium moves from troponin to tropomyosin

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25
Q

The inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is called ___

a. treppe
b. recruitment
c. twitch
d. tetanus

A

d. tetanus

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26
Q

The staircase effect or ___ represents a warm up effect due to increasing intracellular calcium concentrations.

a. treppe
b. tetanus
c. incomplete tetanus
d. tonus

A

a. treppe

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27
Q

A muscle contraction against a resistance greater than the force of contraction causes muscle lengthening is called a(n)____ contraction

a. concentric
b. isometric
c. eccentric
d. isokinetic

A

c. eccentric

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28
Q

Slow twitch fibers have a ___ oxidative capacity and ___ glycogen content.

a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; low
d. low; high

A

b. high; low

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29
Q

Muscle fatigue occurs ___

a. when muscles are only partially able to contract
b. when muscle cell glycogen is depleted
c. when muscle cell pH increases
d. due to decreased extracellular K+

A

b. when muscle cell glycogen is depleted

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30
Q

Muscle hypertrophy is due to __

a. increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber
b. increased number of muscle fibers
c. increased size of the myofibrils
d. both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils

A

d. both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils

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31
Q

___ is characterized by continued attachment of myosin heads to actin filaments due to a lack of ATP.

a. Tetanus
b. Rigor mortis
c. Flaccid paralysis
d. Treppe

A

b. Rigor mortis

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32
Q

What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation?

a. it is hydrolyzed by the myosin head prior to cross bridge formation
b. it causes myosin head to detach from actin after the powerstroke
c. it powers the Ca 2+ pumps to return Ca 2+ to the SR
d. all apply

A

d. all apply

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33
Q

Transportation functions of the circulatory system include ___

a. carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide
b. carrying metabolic waste
c. carrying leukocytes
d. carrying absorbed products of digestion
e. all of the choices are correct

A

e. all of the choices are correct

34
Q

The circulatory system is able to provide regulation of other body systems by circulating ___

a. clotting
b. hormones
c. immunity
d. blood gases

A

b. hormones

35
Q

How does the circulatory system function in a protective role in the body?

a. prevents blood loss through clotting
b. leukocytes fight infection
c. delivers leukocytes to areas of inflammation and infection
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

36
Q

Interstitial fluid is derived from ___

a. lymph
b. cells
c. plasma
d. formed elements

A

c. plasma

37
Q

How much blood does the average-sized adult have?

a. 2 liters
b. 3 liters
c. 5 liters
d. 7 liters

A

c. 5 liters

38
Q

Having no nucleus, a biconcave shape, and the function of gas transport would describe a ___

a. red blood cell
b. platelet
c. white blood cell
d. albumin

A

a. red blood cell

39
Q

Which part of the red blood cell can bind to oxygen?

a. Globing part of hemoglobin
b. cell cytoplasm
c. heme part of hemoglobin
d. plasma membrane

A

c. heme part of hemoglobin

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of white blood cells?

a. have nuclei and mitochondria
b. have amoeboid movement
c. can leave blood vessels
d. make up the major formed element

A

d. make up the major formed element

41
Q

The most abundant leukocyte in the blood are the

a. eosinophils
b. basophilis
c. neutrophils
d. monocytes

A

c. neutrophils

42
Q

Which organ secretes erythropoietin?

a. kidneys
b. liver
c. bone marrow
d. lungs

A

a. kidneys

43
Q

what is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?

a. low RBC count
b. Decreased blood oxygen levels
c. Low amount of hemoglobin
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

44
Q

What substances are needed to produce red blood cells?

a. vitamin B12
b. Folic Acid
c. Iron
d. All of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

45
Q

When the wrong blood type is given to a patient, the antibodies in the patient’s blood react with the antigens on the surface on the transfused blood causing a reaction called ___

a. neutralization
b. precipitation
c. agglutination
d. coagulation

A

c. agglutination

46
Q

John has blood type B. In an emergency, John could receive which of the following blood types?

a. B only
b. AB only
c. O only
d. B or O

A

d. B or O

47
Q

What type of antigens are present in Type O blood?

a. A only
b. B only
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

48
Q

Eythroblastosis fetalis occurs when __

a. the mother has blood type A and the fetus has O blood
b. the mother has Rh+ blood and the fetus has Rh- blood
c. the mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood
d. the mother has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood

A

c. the mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood

49
Q

Mary has type AB blood. Which type of antibodies is present in her plasma

a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-A and Anti-B
d. Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B

A

d, neither anti-a nor anti-b

50
Q

which of the following stimulates the formation of the platelet plug?

a. von Willebrand factor
b. ADP
c. Thromboxane A2
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. All of the choices are correct

51
Q

What ion is necessary for the clotting process?

a. Na+
b. Cl-
c. Ca 2+
d. Mg 2+

A

c. Ca 2+

52
Q 
Asprin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing \_\_
a. thrombin formation
b. platelet plug formation
c, fibrin formation
d. clot retraction
A

b. platelet plug formation

53
Q

The final protein that forms a blood clot is __

a. fibrin
b. thrombin
c. thromboplastin
d. plasmin

A

a. fibrin

54
Q

What structures keep the AV values from everting under high ventricular pressure?

a. annuli fibrosis
b. inter ventricular and intertrial septa
c. papillary muscles and chord tendineae
d. semilunar valves

A

c. papillary muscles and chord tendineae

55
Q

The pathway of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is the __ circulation

a. cardiac
b. systemic
c. pulmonary
d. pleural

A

c. pulmonary

56
Q

Systole refers to the ___ of the ventricles, when pressure is ____

a. relaxation; lowest
b. filing; highest
c. contraction; highest
d. blood flow; lowest

A

c. contraction; highest

57
Q

What occurs when the pressure in the ventricles drop below the pressure of the atria?

a. AV valves open
b. AV valves close
c. SL valves open
d. SL valves close

A

a. AV valves open

58
Q

What part of the heart’s conduction system acts as the primary pacemaker?

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinjie fibers

A

a. SA node

59
Q

The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by ___

a. inward diffusion of Na+
b. inward diffusion of Ca 2+
c. inward diffusion of K +
d. outward diffusion of K +

A

b. inward diffusion of Ca 2+

60
Q

The ___ conducts impulses from the AV node to the bundle branches, which lead to the Purkinje fibers

a. AV valve
b. ventricular septum
c. AV bundle
d. SA node

A

c. AV bundle

61
Q

The ___ are the last part of the electrical conduction system of the heart

a. SA node
b. AV bundle
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibers

A

d. Purkinje fibers

62
Q

The production and conduction of action potentials in the heart produces a recordable tracing of the electrical activity of the heart called a(n) ____

a. EMG
b. Depolarization
c. Heart scan
d. ECG

A

d. ECG

63
Q

Ventricular depolarization__

a. occurs prior to atrial depolarization
b. appears as the T wave on an ECG
c. appears as the P wave on an ECG
d. occurs after atrial depolarization

A

d. occurs after atrial depolarization

64
Q

Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow?

a. elastic arteries
b. venues
c. capillaries
d. arterioles

A

d. arterioles

65
Q

Within the blood vessels, valves are found in the ________.

a. arteries
b. capillaries
c. arterioles
d. veins

A

d. veins

66
Q

The lymphatic system can help cancer cells ________ since cancer cells may enter, circulate, and later exit porous lymphatic capillaries.

a. mutate
b. revert to normal cells
c. metastasize
d. die off

A

c. metastasize

67
Q

Functions of the lymphatic system include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a. transport of interstitial fluid
b. transport of absorbed fat
c. providing immunological defense
d. transport of absorbed peptides

A

d. transport of absorbed peptides

68
Q

An elite marathon runner would likely benefit from increased oxygen carrying capacity in the blood from the use of ________, which would serve to ________.

a. hepcidin; increase leukopoiesis
b. erythropoietin; increase red blood cell formation
c. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor; erythrocyte production
d. thrombopoietin; increase megakaryocyte production

A

b. erythropoietin; increase red blood cell formation

69
Q

In comparing the pulmonary and systemic circulations, the pulmonary circuit ________.

a. sends blood to the lungs, is involved with oxygenating blood, and involves the generation of much larger pressures
b. sends blood to the lungs, is involved with oxygenating blood, and involves much lower overall resistance to flow
c. sends blood throughout the body, is involved with decreasing blood carbon dioxide levels, and involves much lower overall resistance to flow
d. sends blood throughout the body, is involved with deoxygenating blood, and involves the generation of smaller pressures

A

b. sends blood to the lungs, is involved with oxygenating blood, and involves much lower overall resistance to flow

70
Q

The pulmonary semilunar valve is to the right ventricle as the ________ is to the ________.

a. mitral valve; pulmonary vein
b. tricuspid valve; right atrium
c. aortic valve; aorta
d. right atrioventricular valve; left ventricle

A

b. tricuspid valve; right atrium

71
Q

The ___ of the heart are involved with ___

a. atria; ejecting blood from the heart
b. lower chambers; moving blood into major arteries
c. upper chambers; receiving deoxygenated blood
d. left side; circulating blood high in carbon dioxide and low in oxygen

A

b. lower chambers; moving blood into major arteries

72
Q

Following musculoskeletal surgery on the lower extremity, oftentimes a return to ambulation (walking) is prescribed as soon as possible to reduce edema. Why?

a. Promotes the inflammatory response and thus speeds healing
b. promotes fluid return via alternating pressures created by muscular contractions
c. increases muscular hypertrophy similar as with most exercise
d. increases mechanical stimulation to fibroblasts and tissue repair

A

b. promotes fluid return via alternating pressures created by muscular contractions

73
Q

What is the main component of an erythrocyte?

a. transferring
b. albumin
c. globulin
d. hemoglobin

A

d. hemoglobin

74
Q

What hormone stimulates the process of erythropoiesis?

a. multipotent growth factor -1
b. interleukin =1
c. erythropoietin
d. GM-CSF

A

c. erythropoietin

75
Q

What valve keeps blood from flowing back into the right atrium from the right ventricle?

a. tricuspid valve
b. bicuspid valve
c. mitral valve
d. pulmonary semilunar valve

A

a. tricuspid valve

76
Q

The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the

a. cardiac output
b. end diastolic volume
c. blood pressure
d. stroke volume

A

d. stroke volume

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning blood vessels?

a. arteries contain more muscle than veins
b. smooth muscle surrounds capillaries
c. valves are found in veins but not arteries
d. discontinuous capillaries create sinusoid

A

b. smooth muscle surrounds capillaries

78
Q

An individual with Type O blood could safely receive red blood cells from someone with ___

a. Type O blood
b. Type AB blood
c. Type A blood
d. Type B blood
e. all of the choices are correct

A

a. Type O blood

79
Q

In the heart, an action potential originates in the ___

a. Purkinje fibers
b. bundle branches
c. atrioventricular bundle
d. atrioventricular node
e. sinoatrial node

A

e. sinoatrial node

80
Q

Which statement is true for a person that has A blood?

a. they have A antigens and anti-B antibodies
b. They have B antigens and anti-A antibodies
c. They have A, B and O antigens and no antibodies
d. They do not have any antigens and have A,B, and O antibodies

A

a. they have A antigens and anti-B antibodies

physiology (9 decks)

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