Module 19 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two most common forms of muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD).

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2
Q

What is the role of dystrophin in muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystrophin stabilizes muscle cell membranes; mutations lead to muscle degeneration.

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3
Q

What chromosomal abnormality causes DMD and BMD?

A

X-linked recessive mutations on the short arm of the X chromosome.

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4
Q

What are key clinical signs of DMD in children aged 2–3 years?

A

Frequent falls, pseudohypertrophy of calves, abnormal postures, joint contractures.

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5
Q

What is the expected disease progression of DMD?

A

Wheelchair use by age 7–12; preserved hand function; eventual respiratory/cardiac failure.

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6
Q

How is DMD diagnosed?

A

Elevated creatine kinase, genetic testing, muscle biopsy.

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7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

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8
Q

What are early clinical manifestations of MG?

A

Ptosis, diplopia, muscle weakness starting proximally and worsening with activity.

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9
Q

When are MG symptoms typically worse—morning or evening?

A

Evening (fatigue worsens throughout the day).

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10
Q

How is MG diagnosed?

A

Edrophonium (Tensilon) test, electrophysiology, and antibody testing.

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11
Q

What distinguishes myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?

A

Myasthenic crisis involves respiratory failure due to under-medication; cholinergic crisis involves excessive muscarinic effects due to overdose (e.g., bradycardia, diarrhea, salivation).

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12
Q

What causes carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression of the median nerve by the transverse carpal ligament, often due to repetitive wrist use.

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13
Q

What tests are used for carpal tunnel diagnosis?

A

Positive Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s maneuver.

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14
Q

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?

A

Acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy causing ascending flaccid paralysis.

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15
Q

What usually precedes the onset of GBS?

A

Viral or flu-like illness; occasionally vaccination.

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16
Q

What is the prognosis for GBS?

A

Recovery is possible with supportive care; severity varies.

17
Q

What causes a herniated intervertebral disc?

A

Trauma, aging, and degenerative changes leading to nerve compression.

18
Q

What is sciatica?

A

Radiating pain along the sciatic nerve due to lumbar disc herniation.

19
Q

What test is used to diagnose a herniated disc?

A

Straight-leg test.

20
Q

What neurons are damaged in ALS?

A

Both upper and lower motor neurons.

21
Q

What are early symptoms of ALS?

A

Muscle cramps and weakness in one limb; progresses to multiple areas.

22
Q

Why do ALS patients retain normal cognition and sensation?

A

ALS affects motor neurons only; sensory and cognitive pathways are preserved.

23
Q

What is the pathogenesis of MS?

A

Autoimmune destruction of CNS myelin; leads to sclerotic plaques and impaired nerve conduction.

24
Q

What are hallmark MS symptoms?

A

Optic neuritis, paresthesias, abnormal gait, bladder issues, fatigue, and Lhermitte’s sign.

25
What does Lhermitte’s sign indicate?
Electric-shock sensation with neck flexion; suggests cervical spinal cord involvement in MS.
26
What age group is most at risk for SCI?
Ages 16–30.
27
What is the difference between quadriplegia and paraplegia?
Quadriplegia affects all limbs (cervical injury); paraplegia affects lower body (thoracic/lumbar injury).
28
What distinguishes complete from incomplete SCI?
Complete SCI: no function below injury. Incomplete SCI: some sensory/motor function remains.
29
What are the four spinal cord syndromes?
Central cord (arm weakness), anterior cord (motor loss), Brown-Séquard (ipsilateral motor loss, contralateral pain/temp loss), and conus medullaris syndrome (bowel/bladder issues).
30
What level of injury impairs breathing significantly?
C1–C3: mechanical ventilation needed; C3–C5: diminished ventilation.
31
What is spinal shock?
Temporary flaccid paralysis and loss of reflexes below the injury, lasting days to months.
32
What is autonomic dysreflexia?
Sudden high BP, bradycardia, and headache due to bladder/bowel irritation in injuries at T6 or above.