Module 10 Muscular System Flashcards

1
Q

my/o

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sarc/o

A

flesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sthen/o

A

strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

origin

A

attachment of a muscle to a bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

insertion

A

attachment of a muscle to a bone or structure that DOES move when the muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

intrinsic muscle

A

muscle that has its origin and insertion located in the same body region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

extrinsic muscle

A

muscle that has its origin located in a region different from that of its insertion; ex. sternocleidomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

fixator

A

a muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

synergists

A

muscles that have the same action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

prime mover

A

the main muscle that performs the action, helped by synergists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

antagonist

A

a muscle that has an opposing action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sarcolemma

A

muscle cell’s cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

muscle cell’s ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

myofibrils

A

a bundle of myofibrils make up a muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

single muscle structure (smallest to largest)

A

individual muscle cell (muscle fiber) is surrounded by endomysium; muscle fibers are grouped together to form a fascicle which is surrounded by perimysium; fascicles together make up the muscle which is surrounded by epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fascia

A

tough, fibrous tissue that does not allow for expansion; forms muscle compartments and separates muscle from the hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sarcomere

A

section of myofibril extending from one z line to the next; the overlapping of the myofilaments near the center of the sarcomere is what causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

myosin

A

several hundred protein molecules that make up thick myofilaments; includes: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

5 physiological characteristics of muscles

A
  1. excitability- ability to be stimulated by a nerve to contract
  2. conductivity
  3. contractility- can shorten with force
  4. extensibility- can be stretched; muscles are stretched by the contraction of other muscles
  5. elasticity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

neuromuscular junction

A

shows excitability; nerve ending and muscle cell don’t touch, instead receptors with specific shape are located on the muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acetylcholine

A

(ACh) neurotransmitter released for skeletal muscle tissue that signals the muscle cell to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

threshold

A

minimum amount of ACh required in receptors for the muscle to react; creates an all or nothing response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

synaptic cleft

A

AKA synapse; indentation in the muscle cell that forms a gap where the nerve ending meets the muscle; allows receptors to communicate between nerve ending and muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

muscle twitch

A

contraction of one muscle cell due to one nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

phases of muscle twitch- 1. latent phase

A

muscle cell has not shorted during this phase; nerve impulse comes down the neuron; ACh is released and fits into the receptors; sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca+; Ca+ binds to troponin; tropomyosin shifts position to expose the active sites; myosin grabs ahold of actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

phases of muscle twitch- 2. contraction phase

A

myosin pulls (power stroke; the muscle cell shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

phases of muscle twitch- 3. relaxation phase

A

myosin lets go; muscle goes back to its shape because it is elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

phases of muscle twitch- 4. refractory phase

A

Ca+ is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the muscle produces acetylcholinesterase; muscle appears to be relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

tetany

A

sustained muscle contraction due to frequency of nerve impulses that come and complete their latent phases before the muscle cell can even begin to enter the relaxation phase from the first nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

motor unit

A

a single nerve cell and all the muscle cells its stimulates; one nerve cell can have more than one nerve ending

31
Q

recruitment

A

getting more and more motor units involved to get a bigger motion

32
Q

isotonic contraction

A

tension remains constant and motion was the result

33
Q

isometric contraction

A

increased muscle tension without movement; ex. flexing muscles

34
Q

lever

A

rigid object that can be used to lift something; has 3 basic parts: resistance (weight to be lifted) , effort (force applied to lift), and fulcrum (pivot point)

35
Q

aerobic respiration

A

glucose molecule (process is glycolysis)-> pyruvic acid producing 2 ATP molecules; the addition of oxygen results in CO2 and H2O and produces enough energy to form 36 ATP

36
Q

muscle metabolism

A

chemical reactions a muscle cell uses to process energy; energy produced in mitochondria through cellular respiration; two forms: aerobic and anaerobic respiration

37
Q

creatine phosphate

A

energy storage molecule; when energy is not immediately needed, creatine is added to ATP resulting in creatine phosphate

38
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

glucose molecule (undergoes glycolysis) -> pyruvic acid -> converted to lactic acid (waste product); only produces 2 total ATP

39
Q

fatigue

A

muscle inability to fully respond to nerve impulse; eventually the muscle may weaken to the point of not being able to respond at all

40
Q

physiological contracture

A

complete fatigue in which the muscle appears to be stuck; cannot relax of contract

41
Q

oxygen debt

A

the amount of oxygen needed to remove the built up lactic acid; once debt has been paid then the fatigue is over

42
Q

slow-twitch fibers

A

some skeletal muscles that are specifically adapted to stay aerobic, so they are less likely to fatigue; have extra mitochondria, better blood supply (for oxygen and glucose), glycogen stores within the muscle, and myoglobin to store oxygen until needed

43
Q

fast-twitch fibers

A

skeletal muscles that excel at anaerobic respiration

44
Q

3 types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

45
Q

skeletal muscle:

A

long, striated with many nuclei per cell; voluntary nerve stimulus; aerobic and anaerobic; associated with bones

46
Q

cardiac muscle:

A

striated with a single nucleus, self-stimulating, aerobic, heart

47
Q

smooth

A

spindle-shaped cells with no striations and a single nucleus; involuntary; aerobic; hollow organs and blood vessel walls

48
Q

nonessential amino acids

A

11 amino acids that the body can make; include alanine, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, tyrosine

49
Q

essential amino acids

A

other 9 amino acids that must come from the diet; lysine, leucine, methionine, tryptophan, etc.

50
Q

complete proteins

A

have all nine of the essential amino acids

51
Q

incomplete proteins

A

missing one or more of the 9 essential amino acids

52
Q

functions of the muscular system

A
  1. movement
  2. stability
  3. control of body openings and passages
  4. communication
  5. heat production
53
Q

effects of aging on the muscular system

A

lean muscle mass decreases (atrophies); fat is deposited in muscle, muscle fibers shrink; begins in the 20s for men and 40s for women; rate of atrophy genetically determined;

54
Q

EMG

A

electromyography; procedure that asses the health of the muscles by testing how a muscle responds to electric stimuli

55
Q

spina bifida

A

congenital; bifid=forked; results from a failure of the neural tube to close in lumbar/sacral region; spinal cord incompletely enclosed

56
Q

spinal stenosis

A

narrowing of vertebral canal or intervertebral foramina caused by hypertrophy of the vertebral bone; occurs most frequently in middle-aged and elderly people; as the bone grows it compresses the roots of the spinal nerves

57
Q

degenerative disc disease

A

occurs when gelatinous nucleus pulposus becomes replaced by fibrocartilage with age, sometimes destabilizing the spine and leading to subluxation of vertebrae and ruptured discs

58
Q

spondylolysis

A

laminae of the vertebrae are defective; defective vertebrae may be displaced anteriorly, and stressed ca cause microfractures in a defective lamina and eventual dissolution of the lamina

59
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

occurs when a defective vertebra slips anteriorly especially at the L5-S1 level; less severe may only call for pain treatment while more severe may require surgery

60
Q

osteoporosis

A

progressive metabolic bone disease that decreases bone density, with deterioration of the bone structure; effects bone density and strength; peak bone strength is around 30yo

61
Q

types of osteoporosis

A

Primary- occurs spontaneously; major cause is lack of estrogen in menopausal women;
Secondary- caused by another disorder or by a drug; ex. chronic kidney disease, hormonal disorders, multiple myeloma, progesterone, corticosteroids
Idiopathic- rare; cause unknown

62
Q

symptoms of ostoporosis

A

vertebral compression fractures (fractures of spinal vertebrae), fragility fractures (common in radius, femur, trochanter, humerus and pelvis)

63
Q

diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

bone density testing, vitamin D level, tests of causes of secondary osteoporosis

64
Q

people susceptible to osteoporosis

A

all women 65+, women between menopause and 65 that have risk factors, all men and women who have had a fracture caused by little or no force, 65+ who have unexplained back pain or loss of 1.2” body height, thin bones (visible on xrays)

65
Q

bone density testing

A

used to detect of confirm osteoporosis; DEXA; often checks spine and hip because they’re the most common place of major fractures

66
Q

osteoporosis prevention

A

managing risk factors, consuming adequate amounts of calcium and VitD, engaging in weight-bearing activities, taking certain drugs (for some people)

67
Q

osteoporosis treatment

A

calcium and VitD, weight-bearing exercise, drugs, treatment of fractures

68
Q

biphosophonates

A

useful in preventing and treating all types of osteoporosis; shown to reduce bone turnover; can rarely cause osteonecrosis of the jaw; long-term use of bisphosphonates may increase the risk of developing unusual fractures of the femur, so doctors recommend taking bisphosphonate holidays (breaks)

69
Q

calcitonin

A

inhibits the breakdown of bone; not prescribed frequently; doesn’t reduce risk of fracture, bud does help relieve pain they cause; nasal spray; can decrease blood levels of calcium, so levels need to be monitored

70
Q

hormonal therapy

A

ex. estrogen; most effective when started within 4-6 years of menopause; risks may exceed its benefits for many women so not usually the option chosen

71
Q

raloxifene

A

estrogen-like drug that may be useful in preventing and treating bone loss without estrogen’s negative side effects;

72
Q

Denosumab

A

prevents bone loss; injection 2x a year; should not miss a dose or go on drug holiday because it may cause a loss in gone density and increased risk of vertebral fractures

73
Q

Romosozumab

A

increases bone density in the hip and lumbar spine and reduces the risk of fracture in postmenopausal women; inject 1x a month for one year

74
Q

anabolic agents

A

ex. Teriparatide and abaloparatide; increase the formation of new bone, increase bone density, and decrease the likelihood of fractures