Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT Study > Mod 7 > Flashcards

Mod 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the umbilical cord do?

A

Carries oxygen to the infant via the umbilical vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a sign of imminent birth in the next few minutes?

A

Crowning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify the first stage of labor

A

Contractions to crowning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identify the second stage of labor:

A

crowning to delivery of infant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Identify the third stage of labor:

A

delivery of infant to delivery of placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You are delivering a newborn and see this.(head coming out picture)
You should:

A

Apply firm downward pressure on the outside of the head with your finger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You are delivering a newborn and see this.(cord around babies neck)
You should FIRST:

A

Attempt to manipulate the cord off the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You are delivering a newborn and see this.(looks like head with black stuff on it)
You should FIRST:

A

apply gentle pressure to the top of the head to prevent explosive delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which fetal age corresponds to an embryonic fetus that is only a few layers of cells thick and no organs?

A

5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which fetal age corresponds to a uterus that is roughly at the level of the bellybutton?

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What fetal age corresponds to an infant that is head-down and a mother that experiences Braxton-Hicks contractions?

A

36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What makes women in late-stage pregnancy breathe shallow and often quickly?

A

Upward pressure on the diaphragm makes large breaths difficult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does PRIMIGRAVIDA mean?

A

First pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a patient is referred to as Gravida 4 para 2 that means:

A

She has been pregnant 4 times, but only carried 2 infants to a viable age of birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a typical time for a primigravida to spend in the first stage of labor?

A

16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As the time of birth approaches, the contractions will:

A

Increase in frequency and intensity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester many mothers experience:

A

easier breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ___week of gestation.

A

20th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as:

A

seizures that result from severe hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes a late-stage pregnant woman to get diaphoretic and hypotensive when laid supine?

A

Pressure of the uterus on the inferior vena cava inhibiting blood flow back to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is it called when the placenta develops over the cervical opening?

A

Placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is it called when a cord is wrapped around a newborn’s head?

A

Nuchal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Meconium is material from the fetus’ GI tract. The presence of it in the amniotic fluid makes you suspect:

A

the fetus may have airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During delivery of the baby’s head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because:

A

suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This age is characterized by no speaking, no stranger anxiety, and a preference for parents or care-givers.

A

Infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This age is characterized by associating injury with punishment and anxiety over being separated from parents/caregivers.

A

Toddler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This age is characterized by boundary testing, needing to be interviewed in private, and not wanting to be observed during procedures.

A

Adolescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is are appropriate vitals for newborns?

A

Breathing 40-60; Heart rate 110-180.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is are appropriate vitals for adolescents?

A

Breathing 12-20; Heart rate 60-100.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the:

A

intercostal muscles are not well developed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The Pediatric Assessment Triange (PAT) allows you to effectively perform a/n_
_ in a pediatric patient.

A

general impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which is NOT an element of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?

A

Airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than:

A

6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Strategies when communicating with older adults include:

A

have only one EMT speak to the patient at at time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stress in elderly patients can often be caused by all of the following except:

A

keen understanding of the healthcare system and how it works.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In thinking about trauma in the elderly the EMT should remember that:

A

elderly patients often have trauma triggered by medical events such as
зупсоре.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should:

A

attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Since older patients often fear being admitted to a hospital, they may:

A

understate how severe their symptoms are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(True or false) An altered mental status is a normal part of aging and should not be considered remarkable during physical exam.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An important part of determining altered mental status in the elderly patient is to:

A

establish the patient’s baseline mental status from family or caretakers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The elderly may not display tachycardia during shock the way an older patient would because:

A

the shock response may be bluntened by anti-hypertensive medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An older patient with significant dehydration would MOST likely present with:

A

dizziness or fainting upon standing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism?

A

71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because:

A

the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A “silent” heart attack occurs when:

A

the usual chest pain is not present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with:

A

tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should:

A

ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most important piece of information when treating an ischemic stroke patient?

A

The best estimate possible of time of the start of symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person’s risk for:

A

Head trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called:

A

cataracts.

51
Q

When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should:

A

recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

52
Q

Syncope in the older patient is:

A

caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.

53
Q

Which of the following is a potential cause of aortic aneurysm?

A

Hypertension

54
Q

A palpable pulsatile mass in the abdomen is a suspicious finding for what condition?

A

Aortic aneurysm.

55
Q

What is kyphosis

A

A forward rounding of the back.
Hunchback (kyphosis) usually refers to an abnormally curved spine. It’s most common in older women and often related to osteoporosis.

56
Q

Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as:

A

a decrease in bone mass and density.

57
Q

Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted. You find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way but did not move her. When you gently tap the patient she does not respond. You should:

A

direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you quickly visualize her chest for signs of breathing.

58
Q

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:

A

osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT an anatomical/physiological difference in a child compared to an adult?

A

A more calcified and rigid bone structure.

60
Q

The main reason for using pediatric AED pads is to:

A

Deliver lower energy amounts.

61
Q

Which of the following appliances is a tube in the neck through which the patient breathes?

A

Trachiostomy

62
Q

Which of the following appliances is a tube through which excess cerebrospinal fluid is drained into the abdomen?

A

Ventricular Peritoneum Shunt

63
Q

Which of the following is a simple hole in the neck without a tube? It is often seen after laryngectomy.

A

Stoma

64
Q

You are resuscitating an infant and when you place the patient supine this happens. (Baby laying down picture,something with the tongue maybe idk)You should:

A

place a towel under the back.

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of imminent delivery?

A

Intense headache.

66
Q

Which is the most characteristic feature of autism?

A

Impaired social interaction.

67
Q

Which is the most characteristic feature of Down’s Syndrome?

A

“Moon Face” appearance with round head and flat occiput.

68
Q

Which is the most characteristic feature of cerebral palsy?

A

Brain injury or impaired development affecting muscle movement, tone and control.

69
Q

Which of the most characteristic feature of Attention Deficit Disorder?

A

Hyperactivity, impulsiveness and inability to focus.

70
Q

What is the most common reason for a patient to receive a Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD)?

A

To assist a failing heart until a transplant can be obtained.

71
Q

Which of the following is a tube inserted into the stomach through which nutrition is provided?

A

Gastrostomy

72
Q

Which of the following is a tube inserted into the bladder that allows urine to drain into a bag?

A

Foley catheter

73
Q

Due to a relatively larger body-surface-area-to-mass ratio, children are more prone to

A

Hypothermia

74
Q

An infant appears indifferent to your examination, lying passive and quiet. What does this tell you about the infant?

A

She is likely to be very ill.

75
Q

Which of the following is an early sign of hypoperfusion in a child?

A

Delayed capillary refill

76
Q

What is the number one killer of children over 1 year of age?

A

Trauma

77
Q

Infants naturally breathe through their:

A

Nose

78
Q

In assessing a child’s circulation a capillary refill greater than _ seconds suggests hypoperfusion.

A

2 seconds

79
Q

When a child (versus an adult) sustains significant blunt trauma to the chest, the most likely injury is:

A

Underlying lung and pleural injury.

80
Q

Which of the following is much more common in pediatric, rather than adult, head injuries?

A

Vomiting

81
Q

Seizures in children are most often caused by:

A

rapidly rising high body temperatures.

82
Q

A child who is being transported for a fourth fall in 2 weeks, resulting in two broken arms, should be evaluated for:

A

Child abuse

83
Q

An EMT is evaluating a child that fell out of bed. She notes numerous bruises of a variety of stages of healing on the patient’s back and medial thighs. What should she do about this observation?

A

Document it and make the ER doctor aware of the finding.

84
Q

Which of the following positions would result in extremely difficult breathing for a severely obese patient to be in?

A

Supine

85
Q

The use of multiple prescription drugs causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or interaction is:

A

polypharmacy.

86
Q

A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious of:

A

pneumonia.

87
Q

Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:

A

bleeding in the brain.

88
Q

Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because:

A

their bones bend more easily than an adult’s.

89
Q

The pediatric patient should be removed from the car seat and secured to an appropriate spinal immobilization device if:

A

the car seat is visibly damaged.

90
Q

When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child you can:

A

depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.

91
Q

What is the hallmark sign of epiglottitis?

A

Drooling

92
Q

What is the hallmark sign of croup?

A

Seal-like barking cough.

93
Q

When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to:

A

avoid documenting any unsupported opinions.

94
Q

Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because:

A

they fear retribution from the abuser.

95
Q

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and poor diet are all possible indicators of elder.______

A

Neglect

96
Q

In contrast to a living will, a “do not resuscitate” (DNR) order becomes valid when:

A

the patient develops cardiac arrest.

97
Q

Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury if they:

A

are taking blood thinning medications.

98
Q

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:

A

osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.

99
Q

When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to:

A

recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries.

100
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients?

A

Falls

101
Q

What is the first stage of puberty in females that leads to regular menstrual cycles?

A

Menarche, or the first menstrual bleeding, marks the beginning of regular menstrual cycles.

102
Q

How long is the average duration of a typical menstrual cycle?

A

The average menstrual cycle lasts about 28 days.

103
Q

What happens to the follicles that don’t mature and release an egg?

A

The remaining follicles die and are reabsorbed by the body.

104
Q

What stimulates the maturation and release of an egg during ovulation?

A

The release of specific hormones in the female body stimulates follicle maturation and ovulation.

105
Q

When does ovulation typically occur during the menstrual cycle?

A

Ovulation occurs approximately two weeks prior to menstruation.

106
Q

How long is a typical pregnancy, and what is it measured in?

A

A typical pregnancy lasts about 9 months, or 40 weeks, of gestation.

107
Q

What is the role of the uterus during pregnancy and labor?

A

The uterus encloses and protects the developing fetus and produces contractions during labor to help push the fetus through the birth canal.

108
Q

What is the birth canal made up of?

A

The birth canal consists of the vagina and the cervix (the lower third of the uterus).

109
Q

What is the function of the cervix during pregnancy?

A

The cervix contains a mucus plug that seals the uterine opening to prevent contamination from the outside.

110
Q

What does the discharge of the mucus plug (bloody show) indicate?

A

The discharge of the mucus plug, often pink-tinged, signals the beginning of labor.

111
Q

What is the perineum?

A

The perineum is the area between the vagina and the anus.

112
Q

What is the role of the placenta during pregnancy?

A

The placenta provides nourishment to the fetus through the umbilical cord and supports fetal development.

113
Q

How does the placental barrier protect the fetus?

A

The placental barrier separates the circulations of the woman and fetus, allowing nutrients, oxygen, waste, and carbon dioxide to pass between them, but preventing blood from mixing.

114
Q

What happens to the placenta after delivery?

A

After delivery, the placenta separates from the uterus and is expelled.

115
Q

What is the function of the umbilical cord?

A

The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta, providing oxygen, nutrition, and waste removal.

116
Q

What does the umbilical vein and arteries do?

A

The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus, while the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta.

117
Q

What is the role of the amniotic sac?

A

The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled membrane that insulates and protects the fetus.

118
Q

What happens when the amniotic sac ruptures?

A

When the sac ruptures, amniotic fluid is released, typically as a gush, and it lubricates the birth canal and removes bacteria.

119
Q

How much amniotic fluid does the sac usually contain?

A

The amniotic sac contains approximately 500 to 1,000 mL of amniotic fluid.

120
Q

What is considered a full-term pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy is considered full-term when it reaches 39 weeks but has not gone beyond 40 weeks and 6 days.

121
Q

What is “term gestation”?

A

Term gestation refers to a pregnancy that has reached full term, from 39 to 40 weeks and 6 days.

122
Q

How does the uterus change during pregnancy?

A

The uterus grows and stretches to accommodate the developing fetus and increases in fluid volume. This causes displacement from its pelvic position, increasing the risk of injury, particularly by the 20th week.

123
Q

What respiratory changes occur during the second trimester of pregnancy?

A

The growing uterus pushes on the diaphragm, reducing tidal volume and requiring an increase in respiratory rate. The pregnant woman also has an increased oxygen demand.

EMT Study (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions