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EMT Study > Mod 5 > Flashcards

Mod 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

Basic Life Support is a set of procedures including:

A

non-invasive treatment for choking, cardiac and respiratory arrest.

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2
Q

Brain damage begins at how many minutes of cerebral anoxia?

A

4-6 minutes.

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3
Q

After finding out that the patient is unresponsive, you should:

A

scan the patient for signs of breathing-

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a Basic Life Support intervention?

A

Tracheal airway placement.

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5
Q

The most common reason for adult cardiac arrest is:

A

cardiac arrhythmia.

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6
Q

The most common reason for pediatric cardiac arrest is:

A

respiratory emergency.

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7
Q

For every minute that a patient sits in VF, he loses chance of survival.
% from his

A

7-10%

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8
Q

Apneic means:

A

having no breathing:

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9
Q

Your AED will shock what cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Ventricular Fibrillation.

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10
Q

Which of the following is the best way to treat cardiac arrest patient upon arrival at the scene?

A

Perform CPR until the AED is connected, then attempt to shock the patient.

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11
Q

What is the primary reason to utilize pediatric AED electrodes on kids?

A

They have an energy attenuator that reduces the delivered dose of therapy.

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12
Q

What should you do if you are treating a pediatric cardiac arrest patient and your AED kit has no pediatric electrodes?

A

Use the adult electrodes that are available.

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13
Q

When would you utilize adult electrodes instead of pediatric electrodes?

A

When the patient is 8 years of age or older.

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14
Q

What should be done when you remove an arrest patient’s shirt and find a medication patch on the chest?

A

Remove the patch and wipe the area then attach electrodes as normal.

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15
Q

If your patient has suffered a traumatic cardiac arrest what is the ideal airway maneuver to be utilized?

A

Jaw thrust.

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16
Q

You have been attempting to open a trauma patient’s airway with jaw thrust but have been unsuccessful. You should:

A

carefully perform head tilt-chin lift.

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17
Q

Which patient is a candidate for the recovery position?

A

An unconscious breathing patient with a pulse but no trauma.

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18
Q

What is the rescue breathing rate for an adult respiratory arrest patient?

A

One breath every 5-6 seconds.

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19
Q

What is the rescue breathing rate for a pediatric respiratory arrest patient?

A

One breath every 3-5 seconds.

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20
Q

You are providing CPR to a 52 year old with a partner. What CPR ratio should you utilize?

A

30 compressions: 2 breaths.

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21
Q

Your crew is providing CPR to a 11 year-old female with the beginning of breast development. What CPR ratio do you use?

A

30 compressions: 2 breaths.

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22
Q

You are providing 2-rescuer CPR to a 10 year old male with no facial or underarm hair. What CPR ratio do you use?

A

15 compressions: 2 breaths.

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23
Q

You are providing single rescuer CPR to a 4 year old. What CPR ratio do you use:

A

30 compressions: 2 breaths.

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24
Q

Your cardiac arrest patient is a 10 year-old with no facial or underarm hair. What AED electrodes are best utilized?

A

Adult electrodes.

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25
Q

You are performing 2 rescuer CPR on a 54 year old. Paramedics intubate the patient. How should you perform CPR?

A

Continuous compression with a breath every 6-8 seconds.

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26
Q

What is the rate of compression for an adult cardiac arrest patient?

A

At least 100 compressions per minute.

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27
Q

What is the best indicator you have ventilated the patient with sufficient volume?

A

The breath caused visible chest rise.

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28
Q

The main cause of gastric distension is:

A

too rapid/forceful ventilation.

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29
Q

It is recommended that a new rescuer take over compressions every

A

2 minutes of CPR

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30
Q

To receive CPR patient must be:

A

supine on a hard surface.

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31
Q

The landmark for compressions on an adult patient is:

A

between the nipples on the sternum.

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible complication of chest compressions?

A

gastric distension.

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33
Q

The main advantage of mechanical CPR is that it:

A

eliminates of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.

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34
Q

What is the maximum times per minute should an adult respiratory arrest patient be ventilated?

A

12

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35
Q

What is the maximum times per minute a pediatric respiratory arrest patient should be ventilated?

A

20

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36
Q

What is the recommended compression depth for an adult patient?

A

About 2”-2.4”.

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37
Q

What is the recommended compression depth for a child patient?

A

one third the diameter of the chest or about 2”.

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38
Q

What is the correct pulse site to check for circulation of a child during
CPR?

A

Carotid

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39
Q

What is the correct location to check for the pulse of an infant during
CPR?

A

Brachial

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40
Q

correct location to check for the pulse of an adult during
CPR?

A

Carotid

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41
Q

When performing chest compressions on a child you should use:

A

one or two hands.

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42
Q

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?

A

Dependent blood pooling.

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43
Q

CPR should be initiated when:

A

a valid living will is unavailable.

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started?

A

Care is transferred to a bystander.

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45
Q

Your choking patient is gesturing towards his throat. He can muster a loud cough but cannot expel the object. You should:

A

provide oxygen and transport.

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46
Q

What is the landmark for the first choking maneuver for a 15 month old?

A

Right above the umbilicus.

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47
Q

What is the landmark for the first choking maneuver for a 5 year old?

A

Above the umbilicus.

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48
Q

What is the landmark for the first choking maneuvers for a third-trimester pregnant 28 year-old?

A

In the middle of the sternum.

49
Q

What is the landmark for the first choking maneuvers for a 4 month old?

A

Between the shoulder blades.

50
Q

The 40 year-old who you are ventilating has just vomited. You suction and ventilate again but you get resistance. You should:

A

reposition the head and try again.

51
Q

Your breath gets resistance. You have repositioned the head and the second breath is also met with resistance. You should:

A

provide 30 chest compressions.

52
Q

The definition of shock is:

A

poor flow of oxygen to tissues and of waste products away from tissues.

53
Q

A primary waste product that occurs from cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:

A

carbon dioxide.

54
Q

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which is:

A

tachycardia.

55
Q

To compensate for poor perfusion to the core of the body, a person will:

A

shunt blood away from the skin and surface.

56
Q

The type of shock characterized by failure of the heart to pump effectively is called:

A

Cardiogenic.

57
Q

The type of shock characterized by systemic massive dilation of blood vessels due to injury to nerve pathways is called:

A

Neurogenic shock.

58
Q

The type of shock characterized by massive systemic blood vessel dilation from rampant infection is called:

A

Septic shock.

59
Q

The type of shock characterized by low circulating volume is called:

A

Hypovolemic shock.

60
Q

The type of shock characterized by mechanical blockage to blood flow or pumping is called:

A

Obstructive shock.

61
Q

Septic and anaphylactic shock both cause blood vessel dilation, classifying them as.
forms of shock.

A

Distributive

62
Q

Patients in most shock cases will appear pale sweaty and tachycardic.
This is due to the body’s response of:

A

secreting epinephrine during shock.

63
Q

Patients with spinal injuries often cannot respond to shock. As a result neurogenic shock patients often appear with:

A

warm dry skin and normal or slightly slow heart rates.

64
Q

Which of the following is a possible mechanisms for hypovolemic shock?

A

Dehydration

65
Q

Which of the following is a possible mechanism for cardiogenic shock?

A

Heart attack.

66
Q

Which of the following is a possible mechanism for anaphylactic shock?

A

Severe allergic reaction.

67
Q

Which of the following is a possible mechanism for neurogenic shock?

A

Spinal injury.

68
Q

Which of the following is a possible mechanism for obstructive shock?

A

Tension pneumothorax.

69
Q

An early finding in a shock patient that suggests the condition is still compensated is:

A

Tachycardia.

70
Q

What decompensated shock symptom suggest that the body’s response is no longer adequate to maintain function?

A

Low blood pressure.

71
Q

Patients with anaphylactic shock often display a symptom not generally found in other shock types.

A

Wheezing.

72
Q

Vasovagal episodes (psychogenic shock) are temporary, self-correcting shock states involving syncope caused by:

A

momentary blood vessel dilation.

73
Q

What is another term for hypovolemic shock from severe blood loss?

A

Hemorrhagic shock.

74
Q

Which of the following cases would most likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

A

Stab wound to the liver.

75
Q

If an adult patient’s blood pressure is 77/44 and he is confused and disoriented, he is in:

A

Decompensated shock.

76
Q

Pediatric patients in hypovolemic shock typically do not display hypotension until their blood volume drops to:

A

50% of normal.

77
Q

A sign of decompensated shock is:

A

hypotension

78
Q

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?

A

A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and altered mental status.

79
Q

In pediatric patients, capillary refill time (CRT) of over____ seconds is a sign of shock.

A

2

80
Q

Elderly patients have difficulty with shock because of all of the following EXCEPT:

A

a lifetime of experience with shock creates a more brisk physiological response to hypoperfusion.

81
Q

An 80 year old has had nausea and diarrhea for 3 days. He is confused diaphoretic, with absent radial pulses and BP 88/42.

A

This patient is in decompensated hypovolemic shock.

82
Q

32 year-old was stabbed in the chest. He has absent breath sounds on that side JVD and a deviated trachea. His BP is 82/50.

A

You suspect obstructive shock.

83
Q

Your patient has a severely bleeding amputation of the lower leg that has not responded to direct pressure. You should:

A

apply a tourniquet to the injured stump .

84
Q

A pedestrian is struck by a car and is semi-conscious with warm, dry skin BP 77/40 and HR 66. You suspect:

A

Neurogenic shock.

85
Q

You are called for the unconscious patient at a funeral home. The PT is lucid, warm and dry with BP 122/70 and HR 82.

A

Sounds like psychogenic shock (syncope/vasovagal reaction).

86
Q

Treatments for shock include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

placing a torniquet on the patient.

87
Q

The intervention most likely to positively affect the outcome of a patient with internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock is:

A

rapid Transport.

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign of late or decompensated shock?

A

Tachycardia.

89
Q

In an adult patient, you start worrying about hypotensive decompensated shock if the patient is below _ systolic.

A

90

90
Q

Choose the mechanism most likely to create anaphylactic shock.

A

Eating chinese food when one is allergic to peanuts.

91
Q

A patient has a myocardial infarction and loses a significant amount of the left ventricle. This patient is at risk for:

A

Cardiogenic shock.

92
Q

Choose the shock that could be attributed to severe blood loss:

A

Hypovolemic

93
Q

Which is not an effect of the secretion of epinephrine as a response to shock?

A

Bronchoconstriction.

94
Q

Which of the following devices manages shock by pushing blood from the lower body into the torso and vital organs?

A

Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment (PASG)

95
Q

Which of the following will NOT create hypoperfusion?

A

Tachycardia

96
Q

If the patient is in cardiogenic shock and his left ventricle cannot keep up with the blood entering the chamber, you:

A

hear crackles in the lungs.

97
Q

Indications for a tourniquet are:

A

severe bleeding that does not respond to direct pressure.

98
Q

You have packaged your hypovolemic trauma patient. The trauma center is 15 minutes away and the ALS unit is 10 minutes out.

A

You decide to make for the trauma center and advise the medics.

99
Q

Breathing rates in shocky patients are expected to:

A

increase.

100
Q

Hi-flow oxygen helps the patient in shock by:

A

enriching the blood and improving whatever little perfusion the patient still has left.

101
Q

Water conducts electricity, therefore the aed should not be used in water. If the patients chest is wet then the electrical current may move across the ____ rather than between the pads to the patients heart

A

Skin

102
Q

Apply the aed to infants or children after the first ___ cycles of cpr have been completed

A

Five

103
Q

If you use adult sized aed pads on an infant or small child, do not _____

A

Cut the pads to adjust size. Instead use the anterior-posterior placement

104
Q

You may encounter a patient who has an automated implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) or pacemaker that delivers shocks directly to the heart if necessary. These devices are used in patients who are at high risk for certain ___ and ____

A

Cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest

105
Q

It is easy to recognize AICDs or pacemakers because

A

They create a hard lump beneath the skin

106
Q

If you identify an AICD or pacemakers then you should place the aed pad at least

A

1 inch (2.5cm) away from the device

107
Q

Most prehospital Cardiac arrests occur as the result of a sudden

A

Cardiac rhythm disturbance (dysrhythmia)

108
Q

The normal heart rhythm is known as normal

A

Sinus rhythm

109
Q

Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is the

A

Disorganized quivering of the ventricles , resulting in no blood flow and a stat of cardiac arrest

110
Q

Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a

A

Rapid contraction of the ventricles that does not allow for normal filling of the heart

111
Q

Type of shock

Damaged cervical spine,which causes widespread blood vessel dilation,bradycardia(slow pulse),low blood pressure, signs of neck injury

A

Neurogenic shock

112
Q

Type of shock

Extreme life threatening allergic reaction,can develop within seconds , mild itching or rash,burning skin, vascular dilation,generalized edema,coma,rapid death

A

Anaphylactic shock

113
Q

Type of shock

Severe infection ,warm skin or fever,tachycardia,low blood pressure

A

Septic shock

114
Q

Type of shock

Loss of blood or fluid , rapid,weak pulse,low blood pressure,change in mental status ,cool clammy skin,increased respiratory rate

A

Hypovolemic shock

115
Q

Cardiogenic shock patient should not receive nitroglycerin;by definition,they are

A

Hypotensive

116
Q

The early stage of shock,while the body can still compensate for blood loss is called

A

Compensated shock

117
Q

The late stage, when blood pressure is falling and the mental status is declining is called

A

Decompensated shock

118
Q

Hypothermia can occur in which shock?

A

Neurogenic shock. Lose the ability to control body temperature

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