Mod 3 Microbial Genetics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The study of heredity

A

Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sum total of genetic material within a cell

A

Genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genome of cells is made up of

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genome of viruses is made up of

A

DNA or RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mode of gene transfer in which DNA is taken up by cell and incorporated into it’s genome

A

Transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

units of DNA that contain the genetic information

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gene Expression

A

begins with transcription, leading to translation and conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nucleoside

A

nitrogenous base + pentose sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nucleotide

A

nucleoside + phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In a eukaryotic cell the genome is made up of DNA information found in

A

The nucleus, chloroplasts, and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a prokaryotic cell the genome is made up of DNA information found in

A

Plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Condensed, tightly wrapped form of the DNA molecule

A

Chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Shape of chromosomes for prokaryotic (eubacteria) cells

A

Single circular loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Shape of chromosomes for eukaryotic cells

A

Multiple and linear ( open on the ends)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Two researchers who played a critical role in establishing that DNA is the genetic material

A
Fred Griffith (early 1900s)
&
Oswald Avery (mid 1900s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Discovered that non-pathogenic heat killed smooth strain and non-pathogenic rough cells combined to cause an infection

A

Fred Griffith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Refined Griffith’s transformation experiments to show that DNA was the genetic material being transferred

A

Oswald Avery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Two main themes of the Central Dogma of Biology

A
  1. DNA Replication

2. Gene Expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

fundamental units of heredity that are responsible for a given trait

A

genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

site on the chromosome that provides information for a certain cell function

A

genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

genetic sequence of the DNA of a particular organism

A

Genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

physical expression of the genes; observable/measurable traits

A

Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Genome size of a virus

A

4-5 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prokaryotic genome size - ex. E.coli

A

4,288 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Genome size of Human cells

A

31,000 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Two types of nucleic acids

A

DNA & RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Structure of a Nucleotide (3 parts)

A
  1. Purine or pyrimidine base (nitrogen containing)
  2. Ribose or deoxyribose (5 carbon sugar group)
    1 & 2 } form Nucleoside of deoxynucleoside and
    combine with
  3. Phosphoric acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nucleoside =

A

nitrogenous base + pentose sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Nucleotide =

A

nucleoside + phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2 groups of Nitrogenous bases in DNA structure

A

Purines & Pyrimidines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adenine & Guanine

A

Purines of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Thymine & Cytosine

A

Pyrimidines of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

5 carbon sugar that is deoxygenated on carbon #2

A

Deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

alternate with pentose sugars to form the backbone of DNA structure

A

Phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Individual nucleotide are connected together by ______ which are a type of ______.

A

phosphodiester bonds; covalent bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

two complementary strands of the repeating phosphate/pentose sugar + nitrogenous base structure form a

A

double helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describes that one strand of the double helix is situated in the 5’-> 3’ while the other is 3’ ->5’

A

Antiparallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Base pairing rules

A

A with T: 2 hydrogen bonds

G with C: 3 hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Adenine only pairs with ____

A

Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Guanine only pairs with ____

A

Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nitrogenous base attaches to the

A

1 Carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Phosphate groups attach to

A

3 & #5 Carbons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the complement to the following strand of DNA? 5’ - TTGCTAAGG - 3’

A

3’ - AACGATTCC - 5’
OR
5’ - CCTTAGCAA - 3’
* Must denote orientation*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
An organism with 1000 nucleotide base pairs in it's genome was found to contain 100 Adenine bases.
How many...
Thymine?
Guanine?
Cytosine?
A
Thymine = 100
Guanine = 900
Cytosine = 900
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pyrimidines of RNA

A

Cytosine & Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Purines of RNA

A

Adenine & Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pentose sugar of RNA

A

Ribose Sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Consists of a single strand of nucleotides that can double back on itself and form a hairpin shape

A

RNA structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3’ - TACGTTCCATAG - 5’

mRNa transcript of this DNA template is:

A

5’ - AUGCAAGGUAUC - 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Three types of RNA

A
  • ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  • transfer RNA (tRNA)
  • messenger RNA (mRNA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Coding RNA

A

messenger RNA (mRNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Non-coding RNA

A

ribosomal RNA & transfer RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Prokaryotic DNA is organized in one of two forms:

A

relaxed circle, or supercoiled DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Eukaryotic DNA wraps around these protein molecules to allow it to condense and take on a more closed form

A

Histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Nucleosomes

A

coiled repeating units of DNA wrapped around histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

DNA Replication process

A

Parental DNA strands open and hydrogen bonds are broken to allow DNA Polymerase to read sequence and form a new daughter strand from the template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DNA Replicas are comprised of

A

1 Parental strand and 1 New daughter strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Prokaryotic DNA Synthesis Process

A

DNA Polymerase Enzymes bind to the Origin of Replication and move away from each other (bidirectional) when they reach the Terminus the new circular chromosome has been created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Eukaryotic DNA Synthesis Process

A

Sets of DNA Polymerase enzymes bind to multiple origins of replication and move bidirectionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The molecule of DNA that is read and interpreted to synthesis the new daughter strand is called

A

DNA template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DNA templates are always read in the _____ direction and synthesized in the _____ direction

A

3’ - 5’ ; 5’ - 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DNA polymerase can’t recognize the DNA template until a short strand of RNA primer is attached to it. This is synthesized by the enzyme_____

A

Primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

These are polymerized together to form a daughter stand of DNA

A

Deoxynucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Binds to both sides of DNA at the Replication fork to catalyze synthesis of daughter strands

A

DNA Polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The enzyme opens up and breaks the hydrogen bonds between bases at the origin sites

A

DNA Helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Weak spots where Helicase can more easily break bonds

A

Adenine & Thymine (only 2 hydrogen bonds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bind to DNA to prevent reformation of hydrogen bonds until DNA Polymerase III can read and begin replication process

A

Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSBs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ahead of the replication fork this enzyme unwinds DNA to relieve tension caused by Helicase to prevent “knots”

A

DNA Gyrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Leading strand

A

the strand that is oriented in the 3’ to 5’ orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Lagging strand

A

has to get bent due to the fact that it is in the 5’ to 3’ orientation and is therefore synthesized discontinuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Fragments formed on the lagging stand due to discontinuous synthesis

A

Okazaki fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

works on lagging strand to remove primers and fills DNA gaps with correct nucleotides

A

DNA Polymerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

enzyme that creates the covalent bonds to join Okazaki fragments to form a complete strand

A

DNA ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Has the ability to backup one base and remove a mismatched base

A

DNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

DNA replication occurs faster in _____ with a rate of 750 to 1000 base pairs/ second
and slower in _______ at a rte of 50 - 100 base pairs per sec.

A

faster - prokaryotes

slower - eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

the process of transcription, translation, & conformation to interpret the DNA code & produce functional protein

A

Gene Expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

small linear sequence of nucleotides with a fixed start & end point

A

Gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

a set of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid

A

Codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T/F All genes code for proteins

A

False - tRNA & rRNA function as is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

T/F One gene produces one polypeptide

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

the orientation in which a set of nucleotides are to be read

A

Reading Frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Only one strand of DNA contains the gene. This strand is called the

A

Template Strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

This strand is interpreted by RNA polymerase to direct and create the RNA molecule (tRNA, mRNA, rRNA)

A

Template Strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the complementary strand

A

Coding Strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The _______ & the ________ are most important gene regions in the transcription steps.

A

Promotor; terminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The ________ & the ________ are most important in directing translation

A

leader; trailer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

This region of the gene contains the information that directs the synthesis of the polypeptides

A

Coding

88
Q

sequence of bases that is located at the start of the 3’ end of a gene

A

Promoter

89
Q

Region important for enhancing the binding of RNA polymerase

A

Promoter

90
Q

Two sites recognized by RNA polymerase as weak areas for binding

A
  • 10 promoter (Pribnow Box)

- 35 promoter

91
Q

This region is not transcribed or translated

A

Promoter

92
Q

Starts with the +1 nucleotide in the mRNA

A

Leader region

93
Q

Contained in the leader region and helps alignment of mRNA with the 16s rRNA ribosome

A

Shine-Delgarno Sequence

94
Q

always starts in the DNA sequence with TAC

A

Coding region

95
Q

Universal start codon sequence

A

AUG

96
Q

Stop codons

A

UGA,
UAG,
UAA

97
Q

Required for expression of coding region

A

Trailer sequence

98
Q

Required for stopping the transcription process

A

Terminator sequence

99
Q

mRNA molecule is a transcription of these regions

A

Leader, Coding, Trailer

100
Q

Through translation the mRNA molecule is used to create a

A

polypeptide

101
Q

3 Steps of Transcription

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

102
Q

Formation of the transcription bubble occurs during

A

Initiation

103
Q

Once RNA polymerase has bound to the promotor and it opens and begins unwinding we have formed the

A

Transcription Bubble

104
Q

RNA polymerase transcribes the DNA template. This step is

A

Elongation

105
Q

RNA polymerase reads the template in the orientation _______ and synthesizes RNA in the orientation ________

A

3’ - 5’ ; 5’ - 3’

106
Q

Eukaryotic transcription takes place in

A

the nucleus

107
Q

“important” information in genes

A

Exons

108
Q

“non-important” information in genes

A

Introns

109
Q

Eukaryotic Promotors

A

TATA box (-30) & CAAT box (-50-100)

110
Q

take up space and segment exons; must be removed from transcript for ribosome to read and produce the correct protein

A

Introns

111
Q

Added to the 5’ side as posttranscriptional modification to protect it from enzymatic digestion

A

7 -methylguanosine nucleotide (guanine cap)

112
Q

Added to the 3’ side in posttranscriptionl modification to protect it from enzymatic digestion

A

200 adenine nucleotides - Poly-A tail

113
Q

3 Posttranscriptional modifications in Eukaryotic transcription

A
  1. Guanine cap added
  2. Poly A tail added
  3. Introns cut out and exons connected together
114
Q

Enzymes that forms lariat and removes introns

A

Splicesomes

115
Q

Posttranscriptional modifications are only seen in _______ organisms

A

Eukaryotic

116
Q

Translation occurs by reading

A

codon sequences

117
Q

more that one codon can code for the same amino acid called

A

Code degeneracy

118
Q

of possible codons

A

64

119
Q

61 codons that code for specific amino acids

A

sense codons

120
Q

3 codons that are stop codons

A

Nonsense

121
Q

The universal start codon is ____ and codes for ____

A

AUG; methionine

122
Q

3rd position of the codon can vary without changing the correct amino acid - 1st & 2nd are most important

A

Wobble Effect

123
Q

This type of RNA is the transcript template with the codon sequence

A

mRNA

124
Q

This type of RNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosomes for protein synthesis

A

tRNA

125
Q

RNA that is a component of the ribosomes and either catalyzes transpeptidation reactions or aligns the mRNA to the Shine-Delgarno sequence

A

rRNA

126
Q

In ________ transcription and translation can occur simultaneously but in ______ they are separated by the ______.

A

Prokayotes; Eukaryotes; nuclear membrane

127
Q

Numerous ribosomes can synthesis on one mRNA strand called a

A

polyribosome

128
Q

the end of the tRNA molecule that contains the amino acid

A

Acceptor end

129
Q

If the acceptor end has an amino acid attached it is called

A

charged tRNA

130
Q

The end of tRNA that is exposed to recognize/bind the mRNA codon

A

Anticodon

131
Q

Two subunits of ribosome

A

30S & 50S

132
Q

found in the 30S subunit of ribosome and is the complement to the shine-delgarno sequence - recognizes it for alignment

A

16S rRNA

133
Q

found in the 50S subunit of ribosome and has enzymatic activity to form peptide bonds between amino acids

A

23S rRNA

134
Q

Process of Initiation

A
  1. 30S subunit binds to mRNA
  2. Special initiator tRNA carries methionine binds to 30S subunit
  3. 50S subunit binds the 30S-mRNA-tRNA complex
135
Q

3 important sites on Ribosome

A

A site, P site, E site

136
Q

site that accepts incoming tRNA

A

A site

137
Q

site that contains tRNA with polypeptide chain and donates it to the tRNA in A site when bond is formed

A

P site

138
Q

site where tRNAs are released

A

E site

139
Q

Elongation of the polypeptide chain is terminated when

A

A stop codon enters the A site

140
Q

WHich region contains he shine-delgarno sequence

A

Leader

141
Q

WHich gene region is important for RNA polymerase binding and activity?

A

Promoter

142
Q

List all the Purines

A

Adenine & Guanine

143
Q

List all the Pyrimidines

A

Thymine, Cytosine, & Uracil

144
Q

Genes that are expressed continuously

A

constitutive genes

145
Q

housekeeping genes

A

produced all the time and play a central routine role in the maintenance of the. cell

146
Q

encode for enzymes that are expressed in specific situation - can be turned on/off

A

Inducible genes

147
Q

the effector molecule that increases the expression of the inducible gene

A

inducer

148
Q

Regulatory proteins of transcription

A

repressor proteins & activator proteins

149
Q

proteins that bind to specific sites on the DNA to inhibit or enhance RNA polymerase binding

A

Regulatory proteins

150
Q

Repressor proteins bind to

A

operator regions

151
Q

activator proteins bind to

A

areas upstream of the promotor

152
Q

Polycistronic

A

In an open reading frame there is more than one gene that is produced

153
Q

Prokaryotic genomes encode for more than one gene so are

A

polycistronic

154
Q

Eukaryotic genomes are

A

monocistronic

155
Q

the sequence of bases coding for a cistron

A

Operon

156
Q

regulates an organism to only work to catabolize lactose when it is present

A

Lac Operon

157
Q

there is always a low level of basal transcription occurring because

A

operons are leaky

158
Q

When lac(i) is present it binds to the operator region as a

A

repressor

159
Q

structural genes of the lac operon

A

lacZ, lacY, lacA

160
Q

functions of B-galactosidase

A
  • breaks lactose down to glucose & galactose

- converts lactose to allolactose

161
Q

produces B-galactosidase

A

lacZ gene

162
Q

function of lactose permease

A

transport lactose from outside to inside the cell

163
Q

produces lactose permease

A

lacY gene

164
Q

this turns on the lac operon

A

allolactose

165
Q

galactoside transacetylase without a known function

A

lacA

166
Q

not part of the lac operon but is important in controlling it

A

lacI

167
Q

when there is no lactose present

A

the lac operon gene is not turned on

168
Q

When lactose is present _____ is formed by B-galactosidase.

A

allolactose

169
Q

Allolactose binds to the _______ releasing it from the operator and allows for expression of the lac operon.

A

repressor protein

170
Q

When a cell uses all the lactose in the environment there is not more production of allolactose so

A

the repressor protein is opened and freed to attach back to the operator

171
Q

These operons are biosynthetic/ anabolic pathways

A

Argenine Operon & Tryptophan Operon

172
Q

Argenine acts as a co-repressor meaning

A

it binds to the inactive repressor to bind to operator to block RNA polymerase activity

173
Q

the end product from the Argenine operon is

A

enzymes that help in the synthesis of Argenine

174
Q

Repressor of argenine operon is formed in _______ and requires ________ as a co-repressor.

A

and inactive state; argenine

175
Q

Genes of the trp operon are

A

enzymes used to synthesize Tryptophan

176
Q

molecules that are used to regulate this operon work by bending the DNA at the promotor region preventing it from binding

A

Arabinose Operon

177
Q

These regulate the Arabinose operon by binding to different sites on and around the operator to bend the molecule

A

AraC molecules

178
Q

AraC molecules have open ends that bind to _____ when there is no Arabinose in the environment.

A

eachother

179
Q

A change in phenotype due to a change in genotype

A

mutation

180
Q

An organism that is in it’s natural, nonmutated characteristic

A

wild type

181
Q

An organism that has a mutation

A

mutant strain

182
Q

mutation that creates a mutant from a wild type strain

A

forward mutation

183
Q

mutation that reverts a mutant strain back to a wild type strain

A

reversion (back) mutation

184
Q

Two categories of mutation causes

A

spontaneous mutations & induced mutations

185
Q

a random change in the DNA due to errors in replication without a known cause

A

Spontaneous mutations

186
Q

mutations that result from exposure to known mutagens

A

Induced mutations

187
Q

Categories of Mutations

A
Point
Missense
Nonsense
Silent
Frameshift
188
Q

mutation category - substitution of a base occurs

A

Point mutation

189
Q

mutation category - causes change in a single amino acid

A

Missense mutation

190
Q

mutation category - changes a normal codon into a stop codon which truncates a polypeptide

A

Nonsense mutation

191
Q

mutation category - changes a base but does not alter the phenotype of the cell

A

Silent mutation

192
Q

mutation category - when the reading frame of the mRNA is shifted. Occurs when 1 or 2 bases are added or deleted

A

Frameshift mutation

193
Q

Used as a repair mechanism by proofreading and exonuclease activity

A

DNA polymerase

194
Q

repair that occurs by removing distorted bases or entire nucleotides that cause a distortion

A

Excision repair

195
Q

repair that occurs by repairing altered bases without removing them

A

Direct repair

196
Q

uses the enzyme photolyase to split thymine dimers apart using visible light

A

Photoreactivation

197
Q

This repair requires the cell to have a copy of the molecule that needs to be repaired to use as a “blueprint” for repair

A

Recombinatorial Repair

198
Q

A mutant organism that requires an essential macromolecule be provided to it because it can’t make it

A

Auxotrophs

199
Q

method used to indirectly select auxotrophic mutants through selective media

A

Replica plating

200
Q

Selection of mutants that can grow in an adverse condition or environmental stress

A

Direct Selection

201
Q

What is the Ames test?

A

a test for carcinogens; a mutational reversion assay

202
Q

Indicator organism in the Ames test that is a mutant strain of Salmonella typhimurium

A

Auxotroph Histidine

203
Q

transfer of DNA from one cell to another cell

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer

204
Q

transfer or DNA by direct cell to cell contact

A

Conjugation

205
Q

requires formation of the sex pilus for DNA transfer

A

Conjugation

206
Q

This is used to transfer plasmids of pieces of chromosomal DNA

A

Conjugation

207
Q

methods of creating genetic variation

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer, Transformation, Transduction, Transposition

208
Q

DNA segments that shift from site to site

A

Transposons

209
Q

Genetic variation that occurs when pieces of DNA move and integrate into different sites in the chromosomes

A

Transposition

210
Q

Genetic variation that occurs when DNA is transferred from cell to cell by bacterial phage

A

Transduction

211
Q

AKA Jumping Genes

A

Transposons

212
Q

Using a plate with antibiotic on it and growing a culture is a _______ method for isolating _______.

A

direct; antibiotic resistant mutations

213
Q

An Ames test is performed and the plate results in no growth - this means

A

the chemical being tested is not a carcinogen - does not have the ability to revert mutation

214
Q

requires one cell to be an F+. cell and another to be F- to build a conjugation tube/ sex pilus

A

Horizontal Gene transfer

215
Q

Competent cells pick up DNA fragments from the environment and incorporate it into it’s DNA; demonstrated in Griffith’s experiments

A

Transformation

216
Q

When phage takes up information from one host cell and carries it to infect another cell _______ occurs.

A

Transduction