Mod 1 - LAW Flashcards
1
Q
What are the ICAO regulations commonly known as?
A
Standards and Recommended Procedures - SARPs
2
Q
Decode EASA
A
European Aviation Safety Agency
3
Q
Decode ECAC
A
European Civil Aviation Conference
4
Q
Decode ICAO
A
International Civil Aviation Organisation
5
Q
What is the main purpose of the Convention of International Civil Aviation?
A
To promote civil aviation safety and effectiveness
6
Q
The ICAO Council ensures the SARPs are adopted and incorporated as what documents?
A
Annexes
7
Q
How many ICAO Annexes are currently published?
A
19
8
Q
In which Annex will you find Air Traffic Services?
A
Annex 11
9
Q
In what languages where the ICAO Annexes written?
A
English, French, Spanish, Russian, Arabic, Chinese
10
Q
In which Annex will you find Rules of the Air?
A
Annex 2
11
Q
In which Annex will you fine Personnel Licensing?
A
Annex 1
12
Q
What is the ICAO Doc 4444 called?
A
Air Traffic Management, Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)
13
Q
According to International Legislation, which words are used to denote a Standard?
A
Must
Shall
14
Q
According to International Legislation, which words are used to denote a Recommendation?
A
Should
Recommend
15
Q
Who shall States notify of any differences to International Standards?
A
ICAO
16
Q
In what document are the State differences published?
A
Aeronautical Information Publication (ICAO)
17
Q
Which Organisation implemented SERA?
A
Eurocontrol
18
Q
What is SES?
A
Single European Sky
19
Q
Who carries out the Air Traffic Flow Management Function?
A
Network Manager (NM)
20
Q
Who approves the ATCO license?
A
EASA
21
Q
Decode ANSP
A
Air Navigation Service Provider
22
Q
What are the following abbreviations? ACC FIC APP TWR
A
Area Control Centre
Flight Information Centre
Approach Control Unit
Aerodrome Control Tower`
23
Q
In what publication do States publish their national rules for pilots, operators and ATCOs?
A
AIP
24
Q
Name the 3 parts of an AIP
A
General (GEN)
Enroute (ENR)
Aerodrome (AD)
25
How are the operationally significant changes to an AIP informed?
AIRAC cycle
26
In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find information on Navigation Warnings?
Enroute (ENR)
27
In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find information on National Regulations and Requirements?
General (GEN)
28
In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find the RWY direction of an Airport?
Aerodrome (AD)
29
List the 4 types of Air Traffic Services
Flight Information Service (FIS)
Alerting Service (ALRS)
Advisory Service (ADVS)
Air Traffic Control (ATC) Service
30
Name the 3 types of Air Traffic Control Service
Area Control Service (ACC)
Approach Control Service (APP)
Aerodrome Control Service (TWR)
31
What are the objectives of the Air Traffic Control Services?
Prevent collisions between AC
Prevent collisions between AC on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
Notify appropriate organisations regarding AC in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required.
32
Define Level
A generic term relating to the vertical position of an AC in flight, meaning variously height, altitude or flight level.
33
Height is the vertical position of a level, a point or object considered as a point, measured from?
A specific datum
34
Altitude - fill in the blanks
Altitude is the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object, considered as a point measured from MSL.
35
Define Elevation
The vertical distance of a level, or point on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from MSL.
36
What pressure should a pilot set on the altimeter to indicate Height?
QFE
37
What pressure should a pilot set on the altimeter to indicate Altitude?
QNH
38
What pressure value in hPa is used by pilots flying on a FL?
1013.25hPa
39
VFR and SCCL - fill in blank
Above 3000' from the ground or water or a higher datum specified by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall be conducted at a cruising level appropriate to the track as specified in the SCCL table.
40
Decode SCCL
Semi Circular Cruising Level
41
According to SERA, above what FL shall VFR flights not operate?
FL285
42
QFE 997hPa, elevation 420'. QNH?
1011hPa
43
QNH 1021 hPa, elevation 330'. QFE?
1010hPa
44
Define Transition Altitude
The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an AC is controlled by reference to altitudes.
45
Define Transition Level
The lowest FL available for use above the Transition Altitude
46
Define Transition Layer
The airspace between the Transition Altitude and Transition Level
47
Using 30'/hPa, QNH 993hPa, Transition Altitude 3000'. Transition Level?
FL50
48
How many hours before EOBT can a flight plan be submitted?
120hrs
49
How many minutes before departure of a flight crossing international borders can a flight plan be submitted?
60 mins
50
What abbreviation is used for a departure message?
DEP
51
Which of the following is a delay message?
DLA...
52
What are the wake turbulence categories?
L
M
H
J
53
In which item of a flight plan will you find the number of persons on a flight?
Item 19
54
Aerodrome - fill in the blanks
An aerodrome is a defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or an affixed offshore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of AC.
55
Define Runway
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take off of AC
56
What is the maximum tailwind component of a runway in use?
5kts
57
List considerations when selecting the runway in use
```
Wind
Traffic pattern
Length of runways
Approach aids
Met conditions
Noise abatement
Runway capacity
Traffic conditions
Traffic circuits
Adjacent ADs
```
58
What are the positions of the AD traffic circuit? Graphic shown
```
Upwind
Crosswind
Downwind
Late downwind
Base (leg)
Long final
Final
```
59
In which direction are standard aerodrome circuits flown?
Left hand
60
Who is responsible for the operation of the AC in accordance with the rules of the air?
Pilot in command
61
List 3 items the Pilot in Command shall become familiar with pre-flight
Weather reports
Fuel requirements
Alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned
62
Apart from in an emergency, under what circumstances may an AC fly in a prohibited or restricted area?
In accordance with the conditions of the restrictions or by permission of the State over whose territory the areas are established
63
When 2 AC are approaching each other head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall alter its heading...
To the right
64
When 2 AC are converging at the same level, which AC has right of way?
The AC on the right
65
When 2 AC are converging at the same level which AC shall give way?
The AC that has the other on its right
66
When AC are converging, who gives way to whom?
Power driven - Airships - Sailplanes - Balloons
| Power driven - Towing AC
67
When overtaking an AC, the overtaking AC shall alter its heading to?
The right
68
Who shall....area of.....
| Assuming who has control over vehicles and people on the movement area
TWR
69
Name 3 Distress signals
```
SOS
MAYDAY
Red flares/rockets
Red parachute flare
SSR code - 7700
```
70
Name 3 Urgency codes
XXX
PAN PAN
Repeated switching on and off of nav/landing lights
71
Which lamp signal is used to clear an AC in flight to land?
Steady green
72
How does an AC in flight acknowledge a receipt of a signal?
Flashing landing lights twice
Rocking wings
Switching nav lights on and off
73
What does the ground signal pictured indicate?
| Large Cross
Landings are prohibited probably for a long period
74
What does the ground signal pictured indicate?
| 2 joined 'plus' signs
AD is being used by sailplanes
75
What does the ground signal pictured indicate?
| 3 crosses
Areas on runways and taxiways are unfit for movement of AC
76
What does the ground signal pictured indicate?
| Dumbells
Land take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only
77
Define ATC clearance
Authorisation for an AC to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit
78
Define controlled flight
Any flight subject to an ATC clearance
79
List the contents of an ATC clearance
```
AC ID
Clearance limit
Route of flight
Level(s)/changes of level(s)
Any other necessary information
```
80
ATC service shall be provided to which flights?
All IFR in A B C D E
All VFR in B C D
All SVFR
All AD traffic at controlled ADs
81
Under the operation of ATC service clearance issued shall provide separation between which flights?
```
All flights in A B
IFR flights in C D E
IFR and VFR in C
IFR and SVFR flights
SVFR flights (unless otherwise prescribed)
```
82
Define Flight Visibility
The visibility forward from the cockpit of an AC in flight
83
Define Ground Visibility
The visibility at an AD as reported by an accredited observer or automatic system
84
Define Ceiling
The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000', covering more than half the sky
85
In a CTR what is the minimum height of the ceiling for VFR flight?
1500'
86
In a CTR what is the minimum ground visibility for VFR flights?
5km
87
VFR obstacle clearance - fill in blanks
A VFR flight shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities, towns, settlements or open air assemblies of persons at a height less than 1000' above the highest obstacle within the radius of 600m from the AC. Elsewhere, at a height less than 500' above ground or water or the highest obstacle within a radius of 150m from the AC.
88
What is a Special VFR flight?
A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in met conditions below VMC
89
What are the rules applicable to all IFR flights?
All AC shall be equipped with suitable instruments and with navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown
90
Where no minimum flight altitude has been established...level an IFR flight can fly over high terrain at a level of?
2000'
91
What are the vertical limits of lower and upper airspace?
Lower - GND to FL245
| Upper - FL245 to FL660/UNLTD
92
Define Controlled Airspace
An airspace of defined dimensions in which ATC service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification
93
List the ICAO classifications of controlled airspace
A B C D E
94
List the ICAO classifications of uncontrolled airspace
F G
95
According to SERA what airspace classification shall be above FL195
Class C
96
Define Flight Information Region
FIR means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided
97
What types of flight are permitted to fly in airspace Class A?
IFR only
98
Which flights are separated in Class B?
All flights
99
What are the VMC criteria in Class B?
Vis at/above FL100 = 8km
Vis below FL100 = 5km
Horizontal distance from clouds = 1500m
Vertical distance from clouds = 1000'
100
Which flights require a clearance in Class C?
All flights
101
What speed limitation exists and for which flights does it apply in class C?
250kts IAS for VFR flights below FL100
102
Which flights are separated in Class D?
IFR/IFR
IFR receive traffic info about VFR and avoidance on request
VFR given traffic info about all other flights and avoidance on request
103
What speed limitation exists and for which flights does it apply in class D?
250kts IAS for all flights below FL100
104
What are the additional VMC Criteria for the CTR?
No ceiling below 1500' GND
| Ground vis of 5km
105
Which flights require continuous 2 way radio communication in class E?
IFR flights
106
Which flights are separated in class E?
IFR/IFR
| All flights require traffic info as far as practical
107
Which flights are separated in class F?
IFR/IFR as far as practical
108
Which flights are separated in class G?
None
109
When prescribed by the competent authority, at/below which levels can VMC criteria in class G be reduced?
3000' AMSL or 1000' GND, whichever is higher
110
When prescribed by the competent authority, in airspace class G, at/below 3000' AMSL or 1000' GND (whichever is higher) what can the visibility be reduced to for flights operating at 140kts IAS or less?
Not less than 1500m
111
When prescribed by the competent authority, in airspace class G at/below 3000' AMSL or 1000' GND (whichever is higher) what can the visibility be reduced to for helicopters operating at a speed that gives adequate opportunity to see other traffic or obstacles in time to avoid collision?
Not less than 800m
112
Decode RMZ
Radio Mandatory Zone
113
Define RMZ
An airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of radio equipment is mandatory
114
Which classifications of airspace may be designated as a RMZ?
E F G
115
Define TMZ
An airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of pressure - altitude reporting transponders is mandatory
116
Decode TMZ
Transponder Mandatory Zone
117
Decode GAT
General Air Traffic
118
Decode OAT
Operational Air Traffic
119
How are prohibited areas annotated on a chart?
P
120
Define Danger Area
An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to flight of AC may exist at specific times
121
Define Restricted Area
An airspace of defined dimensions above land areas or territorial water of a State, within which the flight of AC is restricted in accordance with the certain specified conditions
122
Decode TRA
Temporary Reserved Area
123
Decode TSA
Temporary Segregated Area
124
What is the difference between a TRA and TSA?
Traffic may be allowed to transit through a TRA but will not be allowed to transit through a TSA
125
What are ATS routes defined as and established for?
A specified route to channel the flow of traffic as necessary to provide air traffic services
Established for enroute navigation, departure and arrival route navigation
126
In ATS route designators, what does the letter U mean as an optional prefix?
Upper
127
In ATS route advisory designators, what does the letter F mean as an additional letter?
Advisory
128
What are the 3 categories of significant points?
Ground based navigation aids
Intersection
Waypoints
129
True or false; COWLY is a significant point marked by a radio navigation aid?
False
130
True or false; HON is a significant point marked by a radio navigation aid?
True
131
Which of the following symbols is a compulsory reporting point?
Image of solid black triangle and triangle outlined only
Solid black triangle
132
What is a conditional route?
An ATS route/point thereof which can only be planned/used under certain conditions
133
Which of the following CDRs are permanently available for planning?
CDR1
134
In which documents are the availability of conditional routes published?
AUP and EAUP
135
Decode TACAN
Tactical Air Navigation Aid
136
Decode SID
Standard Instrument Departure
137
Decode STAR
Standard Instrument Arrival
138
What are the 3 items that indicate the designators of SIDs and STARs?
Basic indicator
Validity indicator
Route indicator
139
In which direction is an ICAO standard holding pattern flown?
To the right
140
How long is the outbound leg of a standard holding pattern at FL140?
1 minute
141
Name 3 factors affecting a holding pattern
Heading
Speed
Wind
142
Which ICAO Annex number is entitled Safety Management?
19
143
According to ICAO, what are the 4 principles of a Safety Management System?
Monitoring safety levels
Safety reviews of ATS units
Safety assessments
Safety enhancing measures
144
What is the minimum age for a student ATCO?
18
145
For how long is a medical for an ATCO aged 30 valid?
24 months
146
What is the maximum validity for a unit endorsement?
3 years.
147
When referring to horizontal speed of an AC, what is GS
Ground Speed
148
In which units are distances on ADs measured?
Metres (m)
149
In which units are vertical distances measured?
Feet (ft)
150
When referring to horizontal speed of an AC what is IAS?
Indicated Air Speed
151
In which units is wind for take off and landing measured?
Degrees Magnetic
152
Visibility is measured in km and m. List when metres are used and when kilometres are used
Metres up to 5000m, km thereafter
| 10km for 10km or more
153
What 2 units of measurement can be used for altimeter settings?
hPa, inches of mercury
154
List the Air Navigation Services
```
Air Traffic Services
Surveillance Services
Meteorological Services
Communications Services
Aeronautical Information Services
Navigation Services
```
155
Who of the following flights shall submit a flight plan?
A flight requiring ATC service
| A VFR flight at night flying from X AD to Y
156
What would you fill in item 18?
Other information
157
Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?
| Movement Area
Picture
158
Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?
| Manoeuvring Area
Picture
159
Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?
| Landing Area
Picture
160
Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?
| Apron
Picture
