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ADI 03 > Mod 1 - LAW > Flashcards

Mod 1 - LAW Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ICAO regulations commonly known as?

A

Standards and Recommended Procedures - SARPs

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2
Q

Decode EASA

A

European Aviation Safety Agency

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3
Q

Decode ECAC

A

European Civil Aviation Conference

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4
Q

Decode ICAO

A

International Civil Aviation Organisation

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5
Q

What is the main purpose of the Convention of International Civil Aviation?

A

To promote civil aviation safety and effectiveness

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6
Q

The ICAO Council ensures the SARPs are adopted and incorporated as what documents?

A

Annexes

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7
Q

How many ICAO Annexes are currently published?

A

19

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8
Q

In which Annex will you find Air Traffic Services?

A

Annex 11

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9
Q

In what languages where the ICAO Annexes written?

A

English, French, Spanish, Russian, Arabic, Chinese

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10
Q

In which Annex will you find Rules of the Air?

A

Annex 2

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11
Q

In which Annex will you fine Personnel Licensing?

A

Annex 1

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12
Q

What is the ICAO Doc 4444 called?

A

Air Traffic Management, Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)

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13
Q

According to International Legislation, which words are used to denote a Standard?

A

Must

Shall

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14
Q

According to International Legislation, which words are used to denote a Recommendation?

A

Should

Recommend

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15
Q

Who shall States notify of any differences to International Standards?

A

ICAO

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16
Q

In what document are the State differences published?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication (ICAO)

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17
Q

Which Organisation implemented SERA?

A

Eurocontrol

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18
Q

What is SES?

A

Single European Sky

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19
Q

Who carries out the Air Traffic Flow Management Function?

A

Network Manager (NM)

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20
Q

Who approves the ATCO license?

A

EASA

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21
Q

Decode ANSP

A

Air Navigation Service Provider

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22
Q 
What are the following abbreviations?
ACC
FIC
APP
TWR
A

Area Control Centre
Flight Information Centre
Approach Control Unit
Aerodrome Control Tower`

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23
Q

In what publication do States publish their national rules for pilots, operators and ATCOs?

A

AIP

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24
Q

Name the 3 parts of an AIP

A

General (GEN)
Enroute (ENR)
Aerodrome (AD)

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25
Q

How are the operationally significant changes to an AIP informed?

A

AIRAC cycle

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26
Q

In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find information on Navigation Warnings?

A

Enroute (ENR)

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27
Q

In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find information on National Regulations and Requirements?

A

General (GEN)

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28
Q

In which of the 3 sections of an AIP would you find the RWY direction of an Airport?

A

Aerodrome (AD)

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29
Q

List the 4 types of Air Traffic Services

A

Flight Information Service (FIS)
Alerting Service (ALRS)
Advisory Service (ADVS)
Air Traffic Control (ATC) Service

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30
Q

Name the 3 types of Air Traffic Control Service

A

Area Control Service (ACC)
Approach Control Service (APP)
Aerodrome Control Service (TWR)

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31
Q

What are the objectives of the Air Traffic Control Services?

A

Prevent collisions between AC
Prevent collisions between AC on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
Notify appropriate organisations regarding AC in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required.

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32
Q

Define Level

A

A generic term relating to the vertical position of an AC in flight, meaning variously height, altitude or flight level.

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33
Q

Height is the vertical position of a level, a point or object considered as a point, measured from?

A

A specific datum

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34
Q

Altitude - fill in the blanks

A

Altitude is the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object, considered as a point measured from MSL.

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35
Q

Define Elevation

A

The vertical distance of a level, or point on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from MSL.

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36
Q

What pressure should a pilot set on the altimeter to indicate Height?

A

QFE

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37
Q

What pressure should a pilot set on the altimeter to indicate Altitude?

A

QNH

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38
Q

What pressure value in hPa is used by pilots flying on a FL?

A

1013.25hPa

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39
Q

VFR and SCCL - fill in blank

A

Above 3000’ from the ground or water or a higher datum specified by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall be conducted at a cruising level appropriate to the track as specified in the SCCL table.

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40
Q

Decode SCCL

A

Semi Circular Cruising Level

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41
Q

According to SERA, above what FL shall VFR flights not operate?

A

FL285

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42
Q

QFE 997hPa, elevation 420’. QNH?

A

1011hPa

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43
Q

QNH 1021 hPa, elevation 330’. QFE?

A

1010hPa

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44
Q

Define Transition Altitude

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an AC is controlled by reference to altitudes.

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45
Q

Define Transition Level

A

The lowest FL available for use above the Transition Altitude

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46
Q

Define Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the Transition Altitude and Transition Level

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47
Q

Using 30’/hPa, QNH 993hPa, Transition Altitude 3000’. Transition Level?

A

FL50

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48
Q

How many hours before EOBT can a flight plan be submitted?

A

120hrs

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49
Q

How many minutes before departure of a flight crossing international borders can a flight plan be submitted?

A

60 mins

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50
Q

What abbreviation is used for a departure message?

A

DEP

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51
Q

Which of the following is a delay message?

A

DLA…

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52
Q

What are the wake turbulence categories?

A

L
M
H
J

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53
Q

In which item of a flight plan will you find the number of persons on a flight?

A

Item 19

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54
Q

Aerodrome - fill in the blanks

A

An aerodrome is a defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or an affixed offshore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of AC.

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55
Q

Define Runway

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take off of AC

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56
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component of a runway in use?

A

5kts

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57
Q

List considerations when selecting the runway in use

A 
Wind
Traffic pattern
Length of runways
Approach aids
Met conditions
Noise abatement
Runway capacity
Traffic conditions
Traffic circuits
Adjacent ADs
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58
Q

What are the positions of the AD traffic circuit? Graphic shown

A 
Upwind
Crosswind
Downwind
Late downwind
Base (leg)
Long final
Final
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59
Q

In which direction are standard aerodrome circuits flown?

A

Left hand

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60
Q

Who is responsible for the operation of the AC in accordance with the rules of the air?

A

Pilot in command

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61
Q

List 3 items the Pilot in Command shall become familiar with pre-flight

A

Weather reports
Fuel requirements
Alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned

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62
Q

Apart from in an emergency, under what circumstances may an AC fly in a prohibited or restricted area?

A

In accordance with the conditions of the restrictions or by permission of the State over whose territory the areas are established

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63
Q

When 2 AC are approaching each other head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall alter its heading…

A

To the right

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64
Q

When 2 AC are converging at the same level, which AC has right of way?

A

The AC on the right

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65
Q

When 2 AC are converging at the same level which AC shall give way?

A

The AC that has the other on its right

66
Q

When AC are converging, who gives way to whom?

A

Power driven - Airships - Sailplanes - Balloons

Power driven - Towing AC

67
Q

When overtaking an AC, the overtaking AC shall alter its heading to?

A

The right

68
Q

Who shall….area of…..

Assuming who has control over vehicles and people on the movement area

A

TWR

69
Q

Name 3 Distress signals

A 
SOS
MAYDAY
Red flares/rockets
Red parachute flare
SSR code - 7700
70
Q

Name 3 Urgency codes

A

XXX
PAN PAN
Repeated switching on and off of nav/landing lights

71
Q

Which lamp signal is used to clear an AC in flight to land?

A

Steady green

72
Q

How does an AC in flight acknowledge a receipt of a signal?

A

Flashing landing lights twice
Rocking wings
Switching nav lights on and off

73
Q

What does the ground signal pictured indicate?

Large Cross

A

Landings are prohibited probably for a long period

74
Q

What does the ground signal pictured indicate?

2 joined ‘plus’ signs

A

AD is being used by sailplanes

75
Q

What does the ground signal pictured indicate?

3 crosses

A

Areas on runways and taxiways are unfit for movement of AC

76
Q

What does the ground signal pictured indicate?

Dumbells

A

Land take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only

77
Q

Define ATC clearance

A

Authorisation for an AC to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit

78
Q

Define controlled flight

A

Any flight subject to an ATC clearance

79
Q

List the contents of an ATC clearance

A 
AC ID
Clearance limit
Route of flight
Level(s)/changes of level(s)
Any other necessary information
80
Q

ATC service shall be provided to which flights?

A

All IFR in A B C D E
All VFR in B C D
All SVFR
All AD traffic at controlled ADs

81
Q

Under the operation of ATC service clearance issued shall provide separation between which flights?

A 
All flights in A B
IFR flights in C D E
IFR and VFR in C
IFR and SVFR flights
SVFR flights (unless otherwise prescribed)
82
Q

Define Flight Visibility

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an AC in flight

83
Q

Define Ground Visibility

A

The visibility at an AD as reported by an accredited observer or automatic system

84
Q

Define Ceiling

A

The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000’, covering more than half the sky

85
Q

In a CTR what is the minimum height of the ceiling for VFR flight?

A

1500’

86
Q

In a CTR what is the minimum ground visibility for VFR flights?

A

5km

87
Q

VFR obstacle clearance - fill in blanks

A

A VFR flight shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities, towns, settlements or open air assemblies of persons at a height less than 1000’ above the highest obstacle within the radius of 600m from the AC. Elsewhere, at a height less than 500’ above ground or water or the highest obstacle within a radius of 150m from the AC.

88
Q

What is a Special VFR flight?

A

A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in met conditions below VMC

89
Q

What are the rules applicable to all IFR flights?

A

All AC shall be equipped with suitable instruments and with navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown

90
Q

Where no minimum flight altitude has been established…level an IFR flight can fly over high terrain at a level of?

A

2000’

91
Q

What are the vertical limits of lower and upper airspace?

A

Lower - GND to FL245

Upper - FL245 to FL660/UNLTD

92
Q

Define Controlled Airspace

A

An airspace of defined dimensions in which ATC service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification

93
Q

List the ICAO classifications of controlled airspace

A

A B C D E

94
Q

List the ICAO classifications of uncontrolled airspace

A

F G

95
Q

According to SERA what airspace classification shall be above FL195

A

Class C

96
Q

Define Flight Information Region

A

FIR means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided

97
Q

What types of flight are permitted to fly in airspace Class A?

A

IFR only

98
Q

Which flights are separated in Class B?

A

All flights

99
Q

What are the VMC criteria in Class B?

A

Vis at/above FL100 = 8km
Vis below FL100 = 5km
Horizontal distance from clouds = 1500m
Vertical distance from clouds = 1000’

100
Q

Which flights require a clearance in Class C?

A

All flights

101
Q

What speed limitation exists and for which flights does it apply in class C?

A

250kts IAS for VFR flights below FL100

102
Q

Which flights are separated in Class D?

A

IFR/IFR
IFR receive traffic info about VFR and avoidance on request
VFR given traffic info about all other flights and avoidance on request

103
Q

What speed limitation exists and for which flights does it apply in class D?

A

250kts IAS for all flights below FL100

104
Q

What are the additional VMC Criteria for the CTR?

A

No ceiling below 1500’ GND

Ground vis of 5km

105
Q

Which flights require continuous 2 way radio communication in class E?

A

IFR flights

106
Q

Which flights are separated in class E?

A

IFR/IFR

All flights require traffic info as far as practical

107
Q

Which flights are separated in class F?

A

IFR/IFR as far as practical

108
Q

Which flights are separated in class G?

A

None

109
Q

When prescribed by the competent authority, at/below which levels can VMC criteria in class G be reduced?

A

3000’ AMSL or 1000’ GND, whichever is higher

110
Q

When prescribed by the competent authority, in airspace class G, at/below 3000’ AMSL or 1000’ GND (whichever is higher) what can the visibility be reduced to for flights operating at 140kts IAS or less?

A

Not less than 1500m

111
Q

When prescribed by the competent authority, in airspace class G at/below 3000’ AMSL or 1000’ GND (whichever is higher) what can the visibility be reduced to for helicopters operating at a speed that gives adequate opportunity to see other traffic or obstacles in time to avoid collision?

A

Not less than 800m

112
Q

Decode RMZ

A

Radio Mandatory Zone

113
Q

Define RMZ

A

An airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of radio equipment is mandatory

114
Q

Which classifications of airspace may be designated as a RMZ?

A

E F G

115
Q

Define TMZ

A

An airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of pressure - altitude reporting transponders is mandatory

116
Q

Decode TMZ

A

Transponder Mandatory Zone

117
Q

Decode GAT

A

General Air Traffic

118
Q

Decode OAT

A

Operational Air Traffic

119
Q

How are prohibited areas annotated on a chart?

A

P

120
Q

Define Danger Area

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to flight of AC may exist at specific times

121
Q

Define Restricted Area

A

An airspace of defined dimensions above land areas or territorial water of a State, within which the flight of AC is restricted in accordance with the certain specified conditions

122
Q

Decode TRA

A

Temporary Reserved Area

123
Q

Decode TSA

A

Temporary Segregated Area

124
Q

What is the difference between a TRA and TSA?

A

Traffic may be allowed to transit through a TRA but will not be allowed to transit through a TSA

125
Q

What are ATS routes defined as and established for?

A

A specified route to channel the flow of traffic as necessary to provide air traffic services
Established for enroute navigation, departure and arrival route navigation

126
Q

In ATS route designators, what does the letter U mean as an optional prefix?

A

Upper

127
Q

In ATS route advisory designators, what does the letter F mean as an additional letter?

A

Advisory

128
Q

What are the 3 categories of significant points?

A

Ground based navigation aids
Intersection
Waypoints

129
Q

True or false; COWLY is a significant point marked by a radio navigation aid?

A

False

130
Q

True or false; HON is a significant point marked by a radio navigation aid?

A

True

131
Q

Which of the following symbols is a compulsory reporting point?
Image of solid black triangle and triangle outlined only

A

Solid black triangle

132
Q

What is a conditional route?

A

An ATS route/point thereof which can only be planned/used under certain conditions

133
Q

Which of the following CDRs are permanently available for planning?

A

CDR1

134
Q

In which documents are the availability of conditional routes published?

A

AUP and EAUP

135
Q

Decode TACAN

A

Tactical Air Navigation Aid

136
Q

Decode SID

A

Standard Instrument Departure

137
Q

Decode STAR

A

Standard Instrument Arrival

138
Q

What are the 3 items that indicate the designators of SIDs and STARs?

A

Basic indicator
Validity indicator
Route indicator

139
Q

In which direction is an ICAO standard holding pattern flown?

A

To the right

140
Q

How long is the outbound leg of a standard holding pattern at FL140?

A

1 minute

141
Q

Name 3 factors affecting a holding pattern

A

Heading
Speed
Wind

142
Q

Which ICAO Annex number is entitled Safety Management?

A

19

143
Q

According to ICAO, what are the 4 principles of a Safety Management System?

A

Monitoring safety levels
Safety reviews of ATS units
Safety assessments
Safety enhancing measures

144
Q

What is the minimum age for a student ATCO?

A

18

145
Q

For how long is a medical for an ATCO aged 30 valid?

A

24 months

146
Q

What is the maximum validity for a unit endorsement?

A

3 years.

147
Q

When referring to horizontal speed of an AC, what is GS

A

Ground Speed

148
Q

In which units are distances on ADs measured?

A

Metres (m)

149
Q

In which units are vertical distances measured?

A

Feet (ft)

150
Q

When referring to horizontal speed of an AC what is IAS?

A

Indicated Air Speed

151
Q

In which units is wind for take off and landing measured?

A

Degrees Magnetic

152
Q

Visibility is measured in km and m. List when metres are used and when kilometres are used

A

Metres up to 5000m, km thereafter

10km for 10km or more

153
Q

What 2 units of measurement can be used for altimeter settings?

A

hPa, inches of mercury

154
Q

List the Air Navigation Services

A 
Air Traffic Services
Surveillance Services
Meteorological Services
Communications Services
Aeronautical Information Services
Navigation Services
155
Q

Who of the following flights shall submit a flight plan?

A

A flight requiring ATC service

A VFR flight at night flying from X AD to Y

156
Q

What would you fill in item 18?

A

Other information

157
Q

Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?

Movement Area

A

Picture

158
Q

Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?

Manoeuvring Area

A

Picture

159
Q

Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?

Landing Area

A

Picture

160
Q

Which part of an AD is shown highlighted?

Apron

A

Picture

ADI 03 (10 decks)

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