Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BSAVA CERT/BSAVA MANUAL > mock exam > Flashcards

mock exam Flashcards

1
Q

With respect to the PLR, which of the following statements is FALSE?:
a. In species with >50% decussation the indirect PLR is stronger than
the direct PLR
b. It is unnecessary to evaluate the indirect PLR if both eyes are visual and have a direct PLR
c. Non-mammalian vertebrates only have a direct PLR
d. An animal with cortical blindness can have a normal PLR

A

a. In species with >50% decussation the indirect PLR is stronger than
the direct PLR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With regards to biomicroscopy of the cornea, what is the minimum level of
magnification require to appreciate individual endothelial cells?:
a. 10X
b. 25X
c. 50X
d. 100 X

A

b. 25X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following best describes anterior chamber volumes in veterinary
species?:
a. Rabbit = 0.3ml, dog = 0.6ml, cat = 0.4ml
b. Rabbit = 0.5ml, dog = 0.6ml, cat = 0.77ml
c. Rabbit = 0.3ml, dog = 0.6ml, cat = 0.6ml
d. Rabbit = 0.5ml, dog = 1.0ml, cat = 0.6ml

A

c. Rabbit = 0.3ml, dog = 0.6ml, cat = 0.6ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With regards to vitreocentesis in the dog, which of the following statements best matches the recommended technique?:

a. It should be performed with a 26G needle 6mm posterior to the limbus
b. It should be performed with a 24G needle 6mm posterior to the limbus
c. It should be performed with a 24G needle 10mm posterior to the limbus
d. It should be performed with a 26G needed 10mm posterior to the limbus

A

a. It should be performed with a 26G needle 6mm posterior to the limbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the dog, the orbital fissure acts as a conduit for which cranial nerves, or one or more branches of these nerves?:

a. II, III, IV, V, VI
b. III, IV, VI
c. IV, V, VI, VIII
d. II, III,V, VI

A

b. III, IV, VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical characteristic of intraconal orbital disease

a. Axial exophthalmos
b. Minimal/absent protrusion of the third eyelid
c. Minimal/absent strabismus
d. Retention of ocular motility

A

d. Retention of ocular motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following canine ocular anomalies is NOT typically associated with the merle gene:

a. Microphthalmos
b. Optic nerve coloboma c. PPM
d. Uveitis

A

d. Uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of extraocular polymyositis:

a. Golden Retriever breed is over-represented
b. Bilateral exophthalmos
c. Bilateral nictitans protrusion
d. History of a previous ‘stressor’ such as oestrus

A

c. Bilateral nictitans protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With regards to traumatic proptosis, which of the following statements is TRUE:
a. The prognosis for restoration of vision in cats following proptosis is fair
b. Approximately 60-70% dogs retain vision following proptosis
c. Retention of a consensual PLR from the affected eye to the
unaffected eye is a positive prognostic indicator
d. Dolicocephalicbreedsofdogareatincreasedrisk

A

c. Retention of a consensual PLR from the affected eye to the
unaffected eye is a positive prognostic indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following is not typically associated with infections with canine
distemper virus?:
a. Chorioretinitis
b. Optic neuritis
c. Lacrimal adenitis
d. Iritis
A

d. Iritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Approximately what % of cases of facial paralysis are thought to be idiopathic in dogs?:
a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90%

A

c. 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. With regards to fluoroquinolone-related retinal toxicity in cats, which of the following statements is FALSE:?
    a. The reported incidence, following enrofloxacin administration, is 0.0008%
    b. Marbofloxacin has been associated with retinal toxicity at disease 20 times the manufacturer’s recommended daily dosage
    c. Retinal toxicity is most likely explained by inefficacy of the ABCG2 protein
    d. Orbifloxacin is associated with dose-dependent retinal degeneration
A

b. Marbofloxacin has been associated with retinal toxicity at disease 20 times the manufacturer’s recommended daily dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the dazzle reflex?:
a. It is a subcortical reflex
b. It is present from approximately 14 days in puppies and kittens
c. It may be absent in animals with ipsilateral facial nerve paralysis
d. It is particularly useful in assessing retinal function when the PLRs cannot be
evaluated

A

b. It is present from approximately 14 days in puppies and kittens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With regards to the palpebral reflex, which of the following statements is FALSE:?

a. The lateral canthus is innervated by the zygomatic nerve
b. The upper eyelid is innervated by the lacrimal nerve
c. The orbicularis oculi muscle is innervated by the facial nerve
d. The medial canthus is innervated by the mandibular nerve

A

d. The medial canthus is innervated by the mandibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding drugs used in pharmacological testing of ocular disease relating to autonomic dysfunction:?

a. Physostigmine is a direct-acting parasympathomimetic
b. Pilocarpine is an indirect-acting parasympathomimetic
c. Hydroxyamphetamine is an indirect-acting sympathomimetic
d. Phenylephrine is a direct-acting sympatholytic

A

c. Hydroxyamphetamine is an indirect-acting sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Second order Horner’s syndrome is not associated with a lesion in which of the following?:

a. Cervical spinal cord
b. T1-T3 spinal cord
c. T1-T3 ventral nerve roots
d. Sympathetic trunk

A

a. Cervical spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cavernous sinus syndrome?:
a. The cavernous sinus extends from the orbital fissure to the petro-occipital
canal
b. CNs III, IV and VI and the ophthalmic and mandibular branches of CNV are located in close proximity to the cavernous sinus
c. Disease processes involving the orbit may result in cavernous sinus syndrome
d. Mydriasis is a typical sign of cavernous sinus syndrome

A

b. CNs III, IV and VI and the ophthalmic and mandibular branches of CNV are located in close proximity to the cavernous sinus

18
Q 
In cats, what is the most common intraocular abnormality associated with eyelid
colobomas?:
a. Persistent pupillary membrane
b. Choroidalcoloboma
c. Optic nerve head coloboma
d. Retinal dysplasia
A

a. Persistent pupillary membrane

19
Q
  1. Which is the most common causative organism of feline dermatophytosis?:
    a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    b. Microsporum canis
    c. Microsporum gypseum
    d. Cladosporiumherbarum
A

b. Microsporum canis

20
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an example of an autoimmune disease that may
affect feline eyelids?:
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Pemphigus erythematosus
A

b. Discoid lupus erythematosus

21
Q

What are the two most common orbital tumours in dogs?:

a. Lymphoma and haemangioma
b. Haemangiosarcomaandadenocarcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma and peripheral nerve sheath tumour
d. Squamous cell carcinoma and mast cell tumour

A

d. Squamous cell carcinoma and mast cell tumour

22
Q

With regards to Chlamydophila felis, which of the following statements is TRUE?:
a. The incubation period of infection with the organism in cats is approximately
6-9 days
b. It is considered to be a zoonotic agent
c. Conjunctival cytology for inclusion bodies is a reliable method of diagnosis of infection
d. Cats experimentally infected with the organism excrete it from the gastrointestinal tract for 109 days

A

b. It is considered to be a zoonotic agent

23
Q

With regards to feline calicivirus (FCV), which of the following statements is FALSE?:

a. It is primarily a respiratory tract pathogen
b. It is a less frequent cause of conjunctivitis than FHV
c. It is a double-stranded DNA virus
d. Most cats infected with FCV become chronically infected and shed the virus continuously

A

c. It is a double-stranded DNA virus

24
Q

With regards to feline corneal sequestra, which of the following statements is TRUE:?
a. Studies suggest that FHV-1 in not the inciting factor in many Persian cats with sequestra
b. TBUT values are accelerated (reduced) in eyes of cats with corneal sequestra
c. Conjunctival goblet cell densities are increased in cats with corneal sequestra
d. Spectroflourometry of keratectomy samples have determined that porphyrins
are present in corneal sequestra

A

a. Studies suggest that FHV-1 in not the inciting factor in many Persian cats with sequestra

25
Q

With regards to fluoroquinolone-induced retinal degeneration in cats, which of the following statements is FALSE?:

a. The first funduscopic change is a graying or granular appearance along the visual streak
b. Pradofloxacin has been demonstrated to have no retinal toxicity in young healthy cats at 6-10 times the recommended dose
c. Dysfunction of ABCG2 at the blood-retinal barrier likely results in accumulation of photoreactive fluoroquinolones in feline retina
d. Risk factors include old age and renal or hepatic impairment

A

a. The first funduscopic change is a graying or granular appearance along the visual streak

26
Q

Where is the visual streak located in the canine retina in relation to the optic nerve head?:

a. Immediately ventral and temporal
b. Immediately ventral and nasal
c. Immediately dorsal and temporal
d. Immediatelydorsalandnasal

A

c. Immediately dorsal and temporal

27
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of continuous over simple interrupted sutures?:

a. Lack of capability of shifting of the suture within the tissue
b. Provision of even tension along the length of the wound
c. Less ability to stretch within the tissue
d. Restriction of vector forces to the suture loop

A

b. Provision of even tension along the length of the wound

28
Q

. With regards to the use of CT in the cat, which of the following statements is TRUE?:

a. Evidence of bony lysis is highly suggestive of orbital malignancy
b. In orbital inflammation, decreased radiointensity of the tissues is expected
c. CT should not be used if metallic foreign bodies are suspected
d. Slice thickness is usually 0.1-1.0mm

A

a. Evidence of bony lysis is highly suggestive of orbital malignancy

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT recommended as a permanent treatment of distichiasis?:

a. Eyelid wedge resection
b. Cryotherapy
c. Electrolysis
d. CO2 laser therapy

A

d. CO2 laser therapy

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical complication associated with feline ophthalmia neonatorum?:

a. Retinal dysplasia
b. Symblepharon
c. Corneal ulceration
d. Endophthalmitis

A

a. Retinal dysplasia

31
Q

From external to internal, how is the trilaminar preocular tear film composed?

a. Mucus layer, lipid layer, aqueous layer
b. Aqueous layer, mucus layer, lipid layer
c. Aqueous layer, lipid layer, mucus layer
d. Lipid layer, aqueous layer, mucus layer

A

d. Lipid layer, aqueous layer, mucus layer

32
Q

Which of the following is an example of a frequently encountered primary neoplasm of the canine conjunctiva?

a. Papilloma
b. Lymphoma
c. Systemic histiocytosis
d. Transmissible venereal tumour

A

a. Papilloma

33
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with FHV-1 infection: a. Symblepharon

b. Corneal ulceration
c. Eosinophilic keratitis
d. Cataract

A

d. Cataract

34
Q
  1. Which of the following most closely represents central corneal thickness in the cat?:
    a. 0.35mm b. 0.45mm c. 0.55mm d. 0.65mm
A

c. 0.55mm

35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of canine corneal ulceration?:

a. FHV-1
b. Entropion
c. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
d. Ectopic cilium

A

a. FHV-1

36
Q

Which of the following bacterial genera is most commonly associated with corneal stromal collagenolysis?:

a. Corynebacterium spp.
b. Pseudomonas spp.
c. Klebsiella spp.
d. Yersiniaspp.

A

b. Pseudomonas spp.

37
Q 
Which of the following breeds is reported to be affected by primary open angle
glaucoma:
a. Flatcoated Retriever
b. Norwegian Elkhound 
c. Siberian Husky
d. WelshSpringerSpaniel
A

b. Norwegian Elkhound

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of collie eye anomaly?:

a. Choroidal hypoplasia
b. Optic nerve head coloboma
c. Retinal detachment
d. Tan/brown pigment spots in tapetal fundus

A

d. Tan/brown pigment spots in tapetal fundus

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognised feature of feline dysautonomia?

a. Reduced tear production
b. ReducedPLRs
c. Third eyelid protrusion
d. Cataract

A

d. Cataract

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common recognised cause of canine KCS?

a. Neurogenic
b. Immune-mediated
c. Congenital
d. Neoplasia

A

d. Neoplasia

BSAVA CERT/BSAVA MANUAL (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions