Missed Questions_NTK Flashcards
The binding of what receptor to its ligand downregulates the immune response against tumor cells by inhibiting cytotoxic T cells.
programmed death receptor 1 (PD-1) to its ligand (PD-L1)
Many types of cancers evade the immune system by increasing expression of PD-L1. Monoclonal antibodies blocking PD-1 help prevent T cell inhibition and promote apoptosis of tumor cells.
What molecular mediator is responsible for the intracellular effects of the G protein-mediated adenylate cyclase second messenger system. Hormone receptors that use this system include the TSH, glucagon, and PTH receptors.
Protein kinase A
Protein kinase A is responsible for the intracellular effects of the G protein-mediated adenylate cyclase second messenger system. Hormone receptors that use this system include what receptors?
TSH, glucagon, and PTH receptors.
What is Schizoid vs. Schizotypal?
Schizoid: prefers to be a loner, detached, unemotional.
Schizotypal: eccentric; odd thoughts, perceptions, and behaviors
Regardless of the patient’s hydration status, the majority of water reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the ____________ passively with the reabsorption of solutes.
PCT
The Aedes aegypti mosquitoes can transmit the viruses that causes what two infectious disease?
dengue fever and chikungunya.
Buzz words:
Soil and Pigeon Droppings == ?
Crytococcuccus neoformans
What are the only cells within the atherosclerotic plaque capable of synthesizing structurally important collagen isoforms and other matrix components.
Vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs)
What nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the posterior external auditory canal via its small auricular branch.
The vagus nerve
Sensation to the rest of the canal is from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Sensation to the rest of the canal is from what nerve.
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
What is the hepatitis B virus (HBV) replication sequence?
The hepatitis B virus (HBV) replicates via the following sequence:
double-stranded DNA → +RNA template → double-stranded DNA progeny.
Although it is a DNA virus, HBV replicates via reverse transcription.
What Virus has the following sequence:
Single-stranded DNA → double stranded DNA template → one-stranded DNA progeny.
Parvo B19!
The only ssDNA virus!!!
What virus has the following replicative sequence:
double-stranded DNA → double-stranded DNA templete → double stranded DNA progeny
Adenovirus, herpesvirus, and poxvirus.
What is the DOC used in HIV+ patients as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and Toxoplasma gondii infections.
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
What process can Ethanol inhibits and can cause hypoglycemia once hepatic glycogen stores are depleted.
Gluconeogenesis
Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor that disrupts HIV genome integration, which means what?
Prevention of the synthesis of viral mRNA.
Integration of double-stranded HIV DNA into the host cell’s chromosomes is necessary to induce viral gene expression and prevent degradation of the viral genome.
Crohn’s disease presents as what type of diarrhea?
secretory
____________ infection can cause a serum sickness-like syndrome with joint pain, lymphadenopathy, and a pruritic urticarial rash. Other features may include right upper quadrant pain, hepatomegaly, and elevated hepatic transaminase levels.
Acute hepatitis B
Which SERM has an ADR of endrometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma?
Tamoxifen
What is the classic presentation of RIGHT-sided colon cancers?
Vs. Left-sided colon cancers?
Right-sided colon cancers usually grow as exophytic masses and present with occult bleeding and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia.
Left-sided colon cancers tend to infiltrate the intestinal wall and encircle the lumen, causing a change in bowel habits (eg, constipation) and symptoms of intestinal obstruction (eg, abdominal pain, distension, nausea/vomiting).
What are the symptoms of intestinal obstruction?
abdominal pain, distension, nausea/vomiting
What functions to remove RNA primers in bacterial replications?
DNA polymerase I functions to remove RNA primers (via 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity) and replace them with DNA (via 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity).
DNA polymerase I is the only bacterial DNA polymerase that possesses 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity.
Epistaxis is commonly caused by irritation of the highly vascular mucosa of what/where?
the anterior nasal septum. The anterior nasal septum contains the Kiesselbach plexus.
The anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, and superior labial arteries anastomose @ ???
Kiesselbach Plexus; in the anterior nasal septum
The interstitial and alveolar edema and exudate formation in acute respiratory distress syndrome results from increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
This leads to what?
This leads to decreased lung compliance, increased work of breathing, and worsened ventilation to perfusion mismatching.
The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is typically normal.
Atropine is indicated for the treatment of bradycardia as it decreases vagal influence on the SA and AV nodes. A common side effect of Atropine ==?
increased intraocular pressure. It may precipitate acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible individuals.
Schistocytes sugguests what?
Schistocytes suggest microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (eg, hemolytic-uremic syndrome [HUS], thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura [TTP], disseminated intravascular coagulation [DIC]) or mechanical damage [eg, prosthetic valve]).
What is the major difference between DIC and HUS microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
DIC has the coagulation system activated.
HUS does not i.e. will have normal PT/aPTT times.
Immunosuppressed/immunocompromised pt. with linear ulceration on upper endoscopy; what is the causative bug?
CMV
How does the amino acid Alanine relate to Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate?
2,6-bisphosphate levels). Insulin causes activation of PFK-2, leading to increased fructose 2,6-bisphosphate levels and augmented glycolysis. High concentrations of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate also inhibit gluconeogenesis, leading to decreased conversion of alanine and other gluconeogenic substrates to glucose.
What other microbe, other than Toxo, can cause brain abcesses?
Nocardia spp.
Pulmonary nocardiosis can present as cavitary pneumonia (often misdiagnosed as tuberculosis); branching gram-positive organisms are seen on sputum examination.
Lab Findings of absent T cells and hypogammabloulinemia is suggestive of what immunodef. disease?
Severe combined immune deficiency; combined T and B cell dysfunction.
**Thymic shadow is not usually present d/t severe T cell def.
The quantity and functioning of T cells is generally not affected, so an absent thymic shadow is unlikely; and there is insuffience production of mature B cells.
This is a classic description of immuno-def syndrome.
X-linked (Bruton’s) agammagloubulinemia
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) ==> ???
Parainfluenza virus is a common cause of croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), which presents with a “barky,” seal-like cough and inspiratory stridor.
Although parainfluenza can cause bronchiolitis, it is less common than RSV.
Viral bronchiolitis is a lower respiratory tract infection that usually occurs before age 2 and is most commonly caused by what pathogen?
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
Infants born to HBeAg-positive mothers have a high risk of acquiring perinatal hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection. Infected neonates have high levels of HBV replication and are at high risk for chronic infection, but are usually asymptomatic or have only mildly elevated liver function tests.
What would be the results of the viral labs on the infant?
(+) HBeAg
What causes the second most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV pt.?
Primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL); EBV
Classically, large, solitary lesions are more likely to suggest PCNSL rather than toxoplasmosis; however, multiple lesions (as seen in this patient) are also common in PCNSL
Primary CNS lymphoma is typically composed of what type of immune cells?
B Lymphocytes
HIV-associated esophagitis can be caused by what pathogens? (3)
- Candida albicans
- HSV-1
- CMV
The most common eye-related complication of congenital cytomegalovirus infection is ____________.
chorioretinitis
How does the body use triglycerides in adipose tissues to make glucose?
Via Glycerol Kinase
Glycerol produced by the degradation of triglycerides in adipose tissue can be used by glycerol kinase in the liver and kidney to synthesize glucose during gluconeogenesis.
Glycerol Kinase
@Liver.
Turns Glydersol into Glycerol 3-phosphate, which gets made into DHAP –> which can enter either glycolysis or gluconeogenesis.
What is triad of Sx in congential toxoplasmosis?
Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications and chorioretinitis form the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis.
in utero (transplacental infection)
During times of starvation, what enzyme provides substrates for hepatic gluconeogenesis and ketone body formation?
Hormone-sensitive lipase is found in adipose tissue, where it functions to drive the breakdown of stored triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol.
Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase and associated pathology.
Impaired β-oxidation of fatty acids causes hypoglycemia after prolonged fasting and inappropriately low levels of ketone bodies. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase catalyzes the first step in the β-oxidation pathway and is the most commonly deficient enzyme.
MCAD is an enzyme aka as???
Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase
Hb with a high affinity for O2 have a decrease P_50 that is represented by a __________ shift in the oxygen dissocation curve.
Hb w/ high affinity for Oxygen = Left-shift of curve.
The reduced ability to release oxygen within the peripheral tissues leads to renal hypoxia, increased erythropoietin synthesis, and compensatory erythrocytosis.
