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BT_Step1_NTK > Embryo > Flashcards

Embryo Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 embryonic genes?

A
  • sonic hedgehog
  • FGF
  • Wnt-7a
  • Homeobox (Hox) Genes
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2
Q

What is the SHH gene and what are its main roles?

A

Makes Sonic Hedgehog protein, which is an embryonic signalling protein; *limbs, brains, eyes.

Key Roles: CNS and Limb dev.

Est. the midline.

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3
Q

What results in a mut. of the sonic hedgehog gene?

A

Holoprosencephaly; baby does not have a right or left side of brain. SINGLE LOBE brain.

cyclopia, cleft lip.

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4
Q

what is the FGF gene and why is it important?

A

Fibroblast growth factor. needed for aprical ectodermal ridge dev.

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5
Q

What factor in important in the Dorsal-Ventral dev.?

A

Wnt-7a; key for dorsal dev. “Dorsalizes the the mesoderm”, Wnt-7a activates the LMX-1 gene.

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6
Q

How is the Wnt gene important in early embryogenesis and later embryogensis?

A

early embryogenesis; regulators of dorsal-ventral axis.

Late embryogenesis; anteroposterior axis

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7
Q

The zone of polarizing activity is ~w/ dev. in what plane?

A

A-P; SHH are important in this dev.

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8
Q

homeosis: ?

A

transformation of one structure into another; leads to formation of body segments.

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9
Q

What genes are important regulators of AP axis dev.?

A

Homeobox genes

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10
Q

issues with Homeobox genes –> ??

A

abnormal limb formation; polydactyly/syn-

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11
Q
  • Haploid mature spermatozoon (?N, ?C)
  • Haploid ovum (?N, ?C)
  • Forms zygote (?N, ?C)
A
  • Haploid mature spermatozoon (1N, 1C)
  • Haploid ovum (1N, 1C)
  • Forms zygote - (2N, 2C)
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12
Q

What is the difference between a morula and a blastula?

A

blastula has fluid filled cavity called a blastocoel

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13
Q

blastocyst implant in uterus around day ?

A

day 6-10; beta-hCG starts to be secreted by the placenta

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14
Q

what forms the bilaminar disc?

A

the inner cell mass

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15
Q

epiblast dev. into what?

A

embryo.

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16
Q

what devs. into the embryo?

A

the epislast

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17
Q

what does the hypoblast dev. into?

A

yolk sac

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18
Q

presence of what indicates start of gastrulation?

A

presence of the primitive streak

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19
Q

which of the 3 germ layers does the nervous system come from?

A

Ectoderm; because your nervous system dev. from an involution of the ectoderm. neural fold and neural crest cells make up the mature nervous system

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20
Q

which of the 3 germ layers does the notochord arise come from?

A

Mesoderm; adult remnant: nucleus pulposus of spine

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21
Q

what does the neural tubes go on to become?

A

CNS; neurons, oligodendrocytes; astrocysts; retina; spinal cord.

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22
Q

Whas does the neural crest go on to become?

A

PNS: CNs, dorsal root ganglia, Autonomic ganglia, schwann cells.

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23
Q

microglia and meninges are from?

A

mesoderm

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24
Q

airway cartilage of the pulm. is from?

A

mesoderm

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25
Q

What is NOT found in adults (except as stem cells) and rises rise to CT (bones, cartilage, lymphatics & circulatory system?

A

Mesenchyme; mesenchymal tumors = sarcoma

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26
Q

what is the embryo origins of:

ant. pit (adenohypophsis):
Post. pit (neurohypophysis):

A

adenohypophsis: from rathke’s pouch of ECTODERM; outpouching of upper mouth.
neurohypophysis: from neural tube

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27
Q

what is the embryo origins of:

Adrenal Gland Cortex:

Adrenal Gland Medulla:

A

Adrenal Gland Cortex: MESODERM; makes aldo, cortisol, androgen.

Adrenal Gland Medulla: NCC; makes Epi/NE

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28
Q
  1. missing organ caused by missing embryonic tissue?
  2. missing organ d/t growth failure of embryonic tissue?
  3. incomplete organ dev.?
A
  1. agenesis; renal agenesis
  2. thymic aplasia; DiGeorge synd.
  3. Hypoplasia; microcephaly.
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29
Q

Abnormal development of a structure == ??

A

Malformation; NT defects, cleft lip/palate, congenital heart defects.

30
Q

extrinsic error in dev. Disruption = ?

A

normal tissue growth arrested d/t to external forces; amniotic band syndrome. fetal structure entrapped by fibrous bands in utero (involves limbs or digits)

31
Q

extrinsic error in dev. Deformation = ?

A

external forces to abnormal growth (NOT arrested); deforms or misshapes structures; POTTER syndromes

32
Q

What prego class are ACEi and ARBs in?

A

Class D; only use if benefits outwieghs risk in life/death situations. leads to congential malformations and oligohydromnios.

33
Q

What are the highest risk chemo agents for use in pregos?

A

Alkalating agents and anti-metabolites; leads to spont. abortions, missing digits.

34
Q

what ADR can Methotreate cause in pregos?

A

NTD; prego class X

35
Q

What is Warfarin Embyropathy?

A
  • bone and cartilage abnorms.
  • stippled epiphyses
  • nasal and limb hypOplasia
36
Q

What is Methimazole used to Tx and what effects does it have on pregos?

A

Tx Hyperthyoidism.

in pregos: Aplasia Cutis; absence of epidermis on scalp. use PTU in the 1st-trimester instead. “missing patch of skin/hair in neonate”

37
Q

S/Sx of fetal alcohol syndrome:

A
  • facial features; smooth philtrum, short palpebral fissures, thin vermillion border (upper lip)
  • cong. heart defects: [ASD/VSD/ToF]
  • skeletal anomalies; limb defects, small head.
  • intellectual disabilities; low IQ, abnormal reflex, small brain.
38
Q

how does smoking lead to impair Oxygen delivery to fetus?

A

nicotine-induced vaso-CONSTRICTION –> decrease placental blood flow –> CO competes with O2 ==> decreased oxyhemoglobin.

39
Q

How does cocaine use affect fetus?

A

Cause vasoconstriction.

- IUGR/low birth-wight; miscarriage, prematurity

40
Q

Babies of pregos with Maternal Diabetes have what?

A

Neonatal HypOglycemia: baby makes excess insulin. so after baby is born, it has a transient (~24hr.) hyper-insulinemic state.

41
Q

what congential heart defect is ~w/ Maternal DM?

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA); also can have VSDs, ASDs.

42
Q

what is Caudal Regression Syndrome?

A

Saacral agenesis–incomplete development of the sacrum; ~w/ GDM, may include sirenomelia=”mermaid syndrome”. maye also present with NTD

43
Q

Fetal Heart issue ~w/ mom’s who have PKU?

A

coarctation of aorta

44
Q

Pharyngeal Arch 1 nerve and structures: ?

A

CNV (maxillary & mandibular br.); maxilla/mandible

45
Q

Pharyngeal Arch 2 nerve and structures: ?

A

CNVII (facial); hyoid

46
Q

Pharyngeal Arch 3 nerve and structures: ?

A

CNIX (GP); Hyoid

47
Q

Pharyngeal Arch 4/6 nerve and structures: ?

A

CNX (vagus); Larynx

48
Q

What is Treacher Collins Synd?

A

FIRST arch issue; failure of NCC migration==> underdev. facial bones (w/ glossoptosis–retraction of tongue). may lead to breathing difficulty d/t underdev. lower jaw and obs. of airway by tongue

49
Q

micrognathia: ?

A

small jaw

50
Q

what genetics is involved in cleft lip & palate?

A

multifactorial; genetic and enviromental

51
Q

In cleft lip:
1 - nasal prominences fuse to form: ?
2 - maxiliary prominences are from pharyngeal arch: ??
3 - maxillary prominences fuse with medial nasal prominences fuse to form what?

A

1 - forms philtrum
2 - 1st pharyngeal arch
3 - primary palate.
Failure leads to cleft lip

**Cleft Palate is d/t to failure of palatal processes

52
Q

Eustachian tube is from what?

A

first pharyngeal pouch

53
Q

2nd pharyngeal pouch = ?

A

lining of the palatine tonsils (back of throat); invaded by mesoderm and lymphatic tissue

54
Q

3rd pharyngeal pouch = ?

A

Thymus; left and right inferior parathyroid glands; dorsal (back) = parathyroid; Ventral wing (front) = thymus

55
Q

4th pharyngeal pouch = ?

A

superior parathyroid glands; ultimobranchial body (ventral wing) == -C-Cells (calcitonin).

56
Q

DiGeorge = failure of what ?

A

failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal POUCH!

57
Q

Pharyngeal clefts are lined by what?

A

ectoderm

58
Q

What does the 1st Pharyngeal clefts become?

A

external auditory meatus; also contributes to the tympanic membrane.

59
Q

what do the 2nd to 4th Pharyngeal clefts become?

A

for cervical sinus, a temporary cavity and obliterated in development.

60
Q

What is a branchial cleft cyst?

A

a neck mass. 2nd cleft cysts MC. below the angle of the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, can become infected and painful. [DOES NOT move with swallowing]

61
Q

What is the difference between a branchial cleft cyst and a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

branchial cleft cyst DOES NOT move with swallowing.

thyroglossal duct cyst is a MIDLINE mass and moves when you swallow.

62
Q

What is the difference between a branchial cleft cyst and a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

branchial cleft cyst DOES NOT move with swallowing.

thyroglossal duct cyst is a MIDLINE mass and moves when you swallow.

63
Q

What make up the INTERNAL gential tracts of a male and female?

A

Male: epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles

Female: Fallopian tubes, uterus, upper vagina

64
Q

what releases MIF?

A

sertoli cells; suppress the dev. of paramesonepheric ducts

65
Q

paramesonephric ducts form the internal structures b/c why?

A

only happen in the absence of MIF and androgen; Fallopian tubes, uterus, upper 2/3 vagina

66
Q

bladder is from what embryonic structure, regardless of gender?

A

upper portion of the urogential sinus

67
Q

where does the inferior part of the vagina come from?

A

pelvic portion of the urogential sinus; in males this becomes the prostate and the prostatic urethra

68
Q
  • Partial fusion of mullerian ducts = ?
  • Mullerian ducts fail to fuse = ?
  • Other ovary not connected to uterus = ?
A
  • Partial fusion of mullerian ducts = Bicornate
  • Mullerian ducts fail to fuse = Uterine didelphys
  • Other ovary not connected to uterus = Unicornate uterus.
69
Q

in males; failure of urethal folds to close = ?

A

Hypospadia

70
Q

abnormal formation of the genitalia tubercle on males = ?

A

Epispadia

BT_Step1_NTK (28 decks)

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