Misc. Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 HIV drugs that target reverse transcriptase.

A

Zidovudine (AZT)
Didanosine (ddl)
Zalcitabine (ddC)

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2
Q

Treponema pallidum:

Is this an intracellular or extracellular parasite?
What shape is it?

A

Extracellular spirochete

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3
Q

Describe how Neisseria gonorrhea would look under the microscope.

A

diplococcus

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4
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis:
Is this an intracellular or extracellular parasite?
What sub-category of the Protista kingdom would this be?

A

Extracellular

Protozoa

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5
Q

Which is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) that involves an intracellular parasite of epithelial cells of the urogenital tract?


A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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6
Q

Diphtheria:
Gram?
Shape?
Mechanism of action?

A

Gram positive rods (bacilli)
Inhibits 80s ribosome protein synthesis
Can affect heart and nervous system

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7
Q

Legionella:
Gram?
Shape?

A

Gram negative rods (bacilli)

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8
Q

Pneumococci:
Gram?
Shape?

A

Gram positive ovoid

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9
Q

Which group of viruses cause warts?

A

Papovaviruses

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10
Q

What is the DPT vaccine for?

A

D: diphtheria
P: pertussis (whooping cough)
T: tetanus

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11
Q

Streptococcus:
Gram?
Defining feature of cell envelope?

A

Positive

Cell wall associated carbohydrate layer (antigenic - produces antibodies useful for diagnosis)

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12
Q

What is the system for identifying different types of streptococci based on the antibody reaction to the cell wall associated carbohydrate layer?

A

Lancefield system (Rebecca Lancefield)

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13
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes:
Common diseases caused by S. pyrogenes?
What type of hemolytic reaction?
What group of strep?

A

Acute Pharyngitis, Strep Throat, scarlet fever,
Beta hemolytic
Group A strep

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14
Q

This HIV drug targets the HIV envelope glycoprotein.

A

GP 120

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15
Q

What type of infection gonorrhea?

A

Bacterial

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16
Q

What type of infection is trichomoniasis?

A

Protozoan

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17
Q

What does the VDRL test test for?

A

Syphilis

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18
Q

What is a typical symptom of primary syphilis?

Secondary syphilis?

A

Primary: chancre
Secondary: skin rash

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19
Q

What disease is the “Dane particle” associated with?

A

Hepatitis B

20
Q

The cocksackle and ECHO viruses are both what kind of virus?

A

Enterovirus

21
Q

Which chemotherapeutic agent is helpful in alleviating symptoms of genital herpes?


A

acyclovir (Zovirax)


22
Q

Which chemical agent is widely used to disinfect drinking water and is used on spills involving bodily fluids?


A

Halogens (such as chlorine)

23
Q

What is the drug zidovudine used to treat?

How does it work?

A

HIV

Inhibits reverse transcriptase, thereby inhibiting the synthesis of DNA.

24
Q

Control of Microorganisms
A germicidal lamp, commonly used in hospital rooms and the food preparation industry, is effective against microorganisms because it emits what type of radiation?


A

Non-ionizing ultraviolet light

25
Q

How are virus particles commonly quantitated in a bacteriophage suspension?


A

Determining the number of plaques formed.

26
Q

How does interferon work after a cell has been infected by a virus?

A

Interferon inhibits the replication of the virus.

27
Q

Which is the first product of synthesis during replication of a retrovirus?


A

ssDNA (single strand)

28
Q

What is the process in which bacteria both generate energy and utilize energy?


A

amphibolism

29
Q

What would most likely happen to an organism if it were exposed to a chemical or physical agent that causes a base deletion in the DNA?


A

A frameshift mutation would occur and the gene would no longer code for a functional protein.


30
Q

Which specific type of mutation results from a single base pair substitution within a bacterial reading frame causing the MRNA codon, UAC, to be changed to UAG?

A

nonsense

A nonsense mutation changes a normal codon to a stop codon. UAG stops the synthesis of a protein.


31
Q

What is the difference between an aerotolerant anaerobe and a facultative anaerobe?


A

A facultative anaerobe uses O2 if it is present and an aerotolerant anaerobe does not.


32
Q

Studies of which subject have been most important in providing relevant information about gene linkage and chromosome mapping?


A

phage transduction


33
Q

Which molecule contains anticodons?


A

tRNA

34
Q

In which energy-producing reaction is pyruvate the primary electron acceptor, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) the primary electron donor, and lactate an end product?


A

fermentation

35
Q

Which is added to a medium to culture bacteria within the Clostridium genus?


A

thioglycollate

Clostridium is an anaerobe and thioglycollate absorbs oxygen from the medium.


36
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity could occur in a patient with agammaglobulinemia?


A

type IV cell-mediated

In the absence of all immunoglobulins, a type IV or T cell-mediated reaction (such as contact dermatitis) can still occur.



37
Q

Which phagocytes would predominate in a local inflammatory response?


A

Neutrophils

Neutrophils are highly phagocytic.


38
Q

What is vertical transmission?

A

Vertical transmission is transfer of genes from an organism to its offspring.


39
Q

In an AIDS test, which substance is used on the ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) to coat the microtiter wells?


A

HIV antigens

40
Q

Which are the major antigen-presenting cells in the primary humoral and cell-mediated immune responses?


A

macrophages

41
Q

Which structures contain the nitrogenase produced by the symbiotic relationship between Rhizobium and legumes?


A

bacterioids

42
Q

Which organism is a free-living bacterium that fixes nitrogen?


A

Azotobacter

43
Q

Which microbial pathogen causes the majority of foodborne infections in the US?


A

Campylobacter pylori


44
Q

What is the role of plasmids in genetic engineering?


A

R factor plasmids are used in cloning to ensure that all cut pieces of DNA will have the same sticky ends.


45
Q

Specimens must be sectioned into extremely thin slices and coated with metals for which type of microscopy?


A

Transmission electron