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Microbiology > Ch. 7-8 > Flashcards

Ch. 7-8 Flashcards

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0
Q

To reduce the number of viable living organisms

A

Disinfection

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1
Q

To kill all life on an object

A

Sterilization

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2
Q

What are standard autoclave settings?

A

121 degrees Celsius
15lbs pressure
15 minutes time

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3
Q

Sometimes an enzyme or vaccine must be sterilized, but autoclaving or chemiclaving would damage the product. What method is used in these circumstances?

A

Ultrafiltration

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4
Q

What is generally consider to be a harsher chemical, antiseptic or disinfectant?

A

Disinfectant

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5
Q

What would you call a chemical that inhibits bacterial growth, but does not kill it?

A

Bacteriostatic agent

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6
Q

What is a more effective disinfectant, pure alcohol or 70% alcohol and 30% water?

A

70/30

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7
Q

What is the “gold standard” of disinfectants and to what all other disinfectants effectiveness is compared?

What is this phenol comparison called?

A

Phenol

Phenol coefficient

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8
Q

A disinfectant is found to be equally effective as phenol, what is its phenol coefficient?

A disinfectant that is only 10% as effective as phenol?

A

1

0.1

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9
Q

This 2 disinfectants denatures proteins and dissolves the lipids in membranes.

A

Alcohol

Phenol

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10
Q

This disinfectant oxidizes proteins and DNA

A

Ethylene oxide

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11
Q

These 2 disinfectants oxidize proteins

A

Hydrogen peroxide

Iodine

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12
Q

This disinfectant dissolves membrane lipids

A

Cationic detergent

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13
Q

This disinfectant destroys DNA

A

Radiation

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14
Q

This disinfectant denatures protein and DNA

A

Steam/heat boiling

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15
Q

This disinfectant converts organic matter into carbon dioxide and water molecules

A

Incineration

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16
Q

What is the required temp/time for LTH (low temp holding) pasteurization)

A

63C for 30 minutes

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17
Q

What is the temp and time requirements for flash pasteurization?

A

71.5C for 15 seconds

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18
Q

What are the temp/time settings for ultrapasteurization?

A

135C for 2 seconds

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19
Q

What is a disease acquired in a health care setting?

A

Nosocomial disease

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20
Q

What is a physician caused or induced disease?

A

Iatrogenic disease

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21
Q

What are bacteria that are resistant to acid?

A

Aciduric bacteria

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22
Q

What is the most common gaseous sterilizing agent?

A

Ethylene oxide

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23
Q

How does penicillin work against bacteria, yet not hurt the human host?

A

By attacking the cell wall. (Human cells have a cytoplasmic membrane, but no cell wall).

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24
Q

This product is a broad-range derivative of penicillin that has been modified to penetrate the outer layer of gram negative bacteria and kill them.

A

Ampicillin

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25
Q

What type of antibiotic is suited to affect a wide rage of genera and species of microorganisms?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotic.

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26
Q

What is the only antibiotic known to kill nongrowing cells? What part of the cell does it attack?

A

Polymyxin.

Cytoplasmic membrane

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27
Q

What is the target of the antibiotic aminoglycoside? What is a possible complication?

A

Protein synthesis

Deafness

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28
Q

What is the target of the antibiotic tetracycline? What is a possible side effect?

A

Protein synthesis

Graying of developing teeth

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29
Q

What is the target of the antibiotic chloramphenicol? What is a possible side effect?

A

Protein synthesis

Immune system depression

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30
Q

What is the target of the antibiotic rifampin? What is a possible side effect?

A

RNA synthesis

Hepatitis

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31
Q

This type of drug is classified as an “anti-metabolite” and inhibits the synthesis of folic acid. It is primarily antibacterial, but also has anti-fungal and anti-parasitical properties.

A

Sulfa drugs

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32
Q

In the lab, when assessing a culture for antibiotic resistance/susceptibility, what is the area on the Petri dish where the bacteria are dead?

A

The zone of inhibition

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33
Q

What lab test measures for antibiotic potency or effectiveness, based on the measurement of zone of inhibition?

A

The Kirby-Bauer test

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34
Q

When testing antibiotic effectiveness in the lab utilizing the “tube dilution method”, what do you call the most dilute concentration that inhibits bacterial growth?

A

MIC - minimum inhibitory concentration

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35
Q

Name 4 other target sites for antibiotics besides the cell wall.

A
  1. The function of 70s ribosomes
  2. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis
  3. Inhibition of bacterial DNA synthesis
  4. Disruption of the cell membrane
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36
Q

What is B-lactamase (beta-lactamase)?

A

An enzyme produced by some bacteria that degrades penicillin, thereby offering some resistance to penicillin.

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37
Q

What is the mechanism of bacteria that are resistant to tetracycline?

A

Tetracycline resistant bacteria obtain a gene that literally pumps the tetracycline from inside the cell, to outside the cell.

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38
Q

How can fungi become resistant to drugs that bind to Ergosterol?

A

By making less Ergosterol.

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39
Q

Why do tetracyclines have limited use?

A

Because bacteria have become resistant to them.

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40
Q

What is an organism that can successfully invade and infect healthy hosts?

A

Primary Pathogen

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41
Q

What is e term that refers to the number of organisms required to establish an infection in an otherwise healthy adult?

A

Infectious dose

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42
Q

What is the term that refers to any feature or product of a microorganism that directly contributes to the ability to cause disease?

A

Virulence factors

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43
Q

When toxins are spread via the bloodstream the infection is called a __________.

A

Toxemia

44
Q

What kind of toxin is only released when the cell is damaged or lysed?

A

Endotoxin

45
Q

What are 2 additional terms for asymptomatic infections but mean the same thing?

A

Sub-clinical infections

Inapparent infections

46
Q

What is a walled off, discrete infection into which the cells of the immune system cannot gain entry.

A

Abscess

47
Q

Some diseases completely heal but have specific follow problems after. These are called ___________.

A

Sequelae

48
Q

A person who carries a dormant virus or bacteria but can spread the disease anyway, even though he is asymptomatic is a _________ _________.

A

Chronic carrier

49
Q

Terminology:
low white blood cells =
High white blood cells =

A

Leukopenia

Leukocytosis

50
Q

What kind of toxin is LPS (Lipopolysaccharide)?

A

LPS is an Endotoxin found in the gram-negative bacterial lipid A.

51
Q

What virulent effect does LPS have on its host?

A

The host recognizes LPS and tries to kill it by temperature regulation (fever). If the temp gets too high, brain damage, cardiovascular shock, and hemmorhage can occur.

52
Q

This type of toxin causes blood cells to lyse, making the contents available as microbial nutrition sources.

A

Hemolysins

53
Q

Name some common microbes (or their diseases) that become latent.

A 
Tuberculosis
HIV
Epstein Barr
Hep B
Herpes Simplex
54
Q

An inanimate object from which a microbe may be contracted.

A

Fomite

55
Q

What are the 2 general types of immunity?

A

Innate

Acquired

56
Q

Small proteins released by infected macrophages, fibroblasts, and T-cells, to alert neighboring neighboring cells.

A

Interferons

57
Q

An important part of the immune system, this is a special set of proteins that circulates through the body and binds to bacteria, acting in a sequential order.

A

Complement

Complement Cascade

58
Q

The phagocytes process of exiting the blood stream and squeezing between vascular endothelial cells.

A

Diapedesis

59
Q

Factors that recruit or attract phagocytic cells to the site of infection.

A

Chemotactic factors

60
Q

What complement does the “alternative pathway” begin with?

A

C3

61
Q

In the classical pathway of the complement cascade, what is the order of the 1st 5 complements?

A

C1, C4, C2, C3, C5

62
Q

Which complements are called the “membrane attack complex” or “MAC” and form a pore through the bacterial membrane resulting in leakage, lysing, and death of the microbe?

A

C6, C7, C8, C9

63
Q

What does PMN stand for? (In regards to the innate immune system?)

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

64
Q

What is another name for PMN (polymorphonuclear leukocytes)?

A

Neutrophils

65
Q

Neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) make up approx ______ % of all white blood cells.

A

55%

66
Q

Macrophages comprise approximately _______ % of all white blood cells.

Macrophages are called ___________ when in the blood.

A

8%

Monocytes

67
Q

Small chemicals that are secreted by one cell as a form of communication or signaling to other cells.

A

Cytokines

68
Q

Complement C3b has another name that literally means “to prepare to eat”. What is this other name?

A

Opsonin

69
Q

What type of pH environment is inhibitory to phagocytes?

What is another environment that is inhibitory to phagocytes?

A

Low pH is inhibitory to phagocytes.

Poorly oxygenated tissues, such as burns victims or diabetics, are also inhibitory to phagocytes.

70
Q

Name the 2 principal non-phagocytic cells of innate immunity.

A

Basophils, eosinophils

71
Q

This type of cell has identical function to basophils, but is found in tissue.

A

Mast cells

72
Q

What do basophils, eosinophils, and mast cells all release?

A

Histamine

73
Q

What is the function of C3a and C5a

A

Both are chemotactic factors that recruit phagocytic cells to the site of infection.

74
Q

What type of cell releases toxins to fight organisms too large for phagocytes to ingest, such as worms?

A

Eosinophils

75
Q

Antigens may have multiple sites (i.e. a single amino acid) that are recognizable by our immune system. What are these individual sites called?

A

Epitopes

76
Q

________ are protein molecules of the immune system that bind to antigens.

A

Antibodies (Ab)

77
Q

What are the 3 hallmarks of acquired immunity?

A

Inducibility
Specificity
Memory

78
Q

This type of cell is a subset of leukocytes and is responsible for acquired immunity by recognizing “non-self” antigens.

A

Lymphocytes

79
Q

Where do lymphocytes originate?

A

Bone marrow

80
Q

What is the difference between T-lymphocytes and B-Lymphocytes?

A

The location of their maturation - Thymus vs. Bone Marrow

81
Q

During development of B-Lymphocytes and T-Lymphocytes in the bone marrow, those that recognize self-antigens (not a good thing) are deleted prior to migration from the bone marrow. What is this process called?

A

Clonal deletion.

82
Q

__________ is a type of cytokine produced by leukocytes.

A

Interleukins

83
Q

What is the basic shape or structure of antibodies?

A

Y-shaped

84
Q

What are the 5 structural classes of antibodies (immunoglobulins)?

A 
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
IgM
85
Q

What is the most abundant antibody found in the blood, has the longest half-life, and crosses the placenta from mother to baby.

A

IgG

86
Q

Which antibody is primarily found bound to basophils and mast cells?

A

IgE

87
Q

What is the 1st class of antibody to appear when a non-self antigen stimulates an immune response?

A

IgM

88
Q

True or false:

Antibodies kill pathogens/antigens.

A

False.

Antibodies prepare pathogens for phagocytic ingestion.

89
Q

Antibodies are Y-shaped. Which part of the Y is the “fc” region. What is another name for it?

A

The “fc” region is the downward part of the Y and is also referred to as the “fixed” region. The fc region is the part of the antibody a phagocyte would bind to after one of the variable regions had already bound to an antigen. Alternatively, rather than a phagocyte binding, it can also be a binding site for the complement cascade to begin.

90
Q

Allergic reactions and anaphylaxis are mediated by which immunoglobulin (antibody)?

A

IgE

91
Q

When blood is centrifuged, there are antibodies that stay in the fluid (plasma), and some that stay in the cellular part.
When antibodies stay in the fluid, this immunity is called _______ _______.
Immunity mediated by the white blood cells is referred to as _________.

A

Plasma - humoral immunity

White blood cells - cell mediated immunity

92
Q

What are the surface proteins (receptors) that the body recognizes as “self” and can therefore differentiate between self and foreign cells.

A

MHC’s or “Major Histocompatibility Complex”

93
Q

Give an example of DTH (Delayed type hypersensitivity).

Is this a humoral or cell-mediated response?

A

DTH is a cell mediated response.

Dermatitis from poison oak or ivy is an example.

94
Q

Briefly describe the 4 types of hypersensitivity.

A

Type 1 - IgE mediated (anaphylaxis, asthma, hay fever). Due to excessive histamine

Type 2 - IgG or IgM antibodies bind to antigens on the body’s own cells. (blood transfusions, hemolytic disease of newborn HDN).

Type 3 - (immune complex disorder) Antibody/antigen complexes are small and bind to host tissue (especially kidney glomeruli). phagocytic cells cannot ingest, but sometimes release their toxic contents in the area, causing damage to host tissues.

Type 4 - cell mediated response, delayed hypersensitivity, no antibodies are involved.

95
Q

Name the following immunodeficiency disease:

Patient makes no Antibody or B cells. Treatment is to periodically inject pooled human antibodies.

A

Bruton’s disease

96
Q

Name the following immunodeficiency disease:

The Thymus fails to develop, so functional T-cells do not form.

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

97
Q

Name the following immunodeficiency disease:

Stem cells in the bone marrow are defective so that neither B or T cells are produced.

A

Severe Combined Immunodefeciency

98
Q

Name the following immunodeficiency disease:

HIV virus kills T-helper cells.

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

99
Q

Name the following autoimmune disease:

The patients IgM recognize their own IgG and produce immune complexes that are deposited in joints and kidneys where damaging inflammation occurs.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

100
Q

Name the following autoimmune disease:

Antibodies destroy Nucleic acid from the patients cells.

A

Lupus

101
Q

Name the following autoimmune disease:

T-cells destroy the myelin sheath that covers neurons, which results in paralysis.

A

MS (multiple sclerosis)

102
Q

Name the following autoimmune disease:

Antibodies react with nerve cell receptors to interrupt neuronal signaling.

A

Myasthenia Gravis

103
Q

How much time is required to produce antibodies?

A

7-10 days

104
Q

What does the T-h cell cause to happen to many immune cells?

A

Causes proliferation of many immune cells.

105
Q

What are the 3 cell types required for an acquired immune response?

A

APC (antigen presenting cell)
T-h (T helper cell)
B or T cell that is stimulated to proliferate

106
Q

What 2 cytokines are required for an acquired immune response and what cells secrete them?

A

Interleukin 1 secreted by APC’s

Interleukin 2 secreted by T-h

107
Q

What is the purpose of a plasma cell?

A

To produce antibodies that recognize and bind to specific antigens.

Microbiology (9 decks)

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