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Microbiology > Micro. Phase 2 > Flashcards

Micro. Phase 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

For which experiment in the field of virology is Wendell Stanley known?


A

the crystallization of the tobacco mosaic virus


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2
Q

What is a T-even phage?

A

The T-phages are a group of 7 bacteriophages that infect e-Coli.
The T-even phages are the even numbered ones: T2,T4 etc.

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3
Q

Which wavelength from within the electromagnetic spectrum contains ultraviolet rays that are used in lamps to sterilize surfaces?


A

260 μm

UV spectrum = 100-400

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

What other antibiotic has the same MOA?

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis.

Cephalothin

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5
Q

What is the MOA of erythromycin and neomycin?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

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6
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis.

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7
Q

What is the MOA of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis.

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8
Q

What is another name for protein synthesis?

A

Translation

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9
Q

At what temp are vegetative bacteria cells killed?

At what temp are viable bacterial endospores killed?

A

Vegetative: 70C

Endospores: 100C

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10
Q

Which substances kill microorganisms by replacing the hydrogen of the carboxyl, sulfhydryl, or amino groups?


A

aldehydes

Aldehydes form covalent bonds with protein functional groups.


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11
Q

Which agent inhibits the replication of bacterial DNA by inducing the formation of thymine dimers?


A

UV light

Ultraviolet nonionizing radiation damages DNA by forming thymine dimer when adjacent thymine bases form bonds together.


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12
Q

When treating a wound, which compound would be most effective to prevent infection?
a. 30% alcohol

  1. chlorine
  2. Tincture of iodine
  3. Formaldehyde
A

Tincture of iodine

Iodine tincture is one of the most effective antiseptics against all bacteria, many endospores, and many viruses.


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13
Q

What is the causative agent of gum lesions caused by bacterial periodontal disease?

A

Porphyromonas

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14
Q

An individual with food intoxication exhibits double vision, difficulty in swallowing, dizziness, and muscle paralysis. Which organism caused this condition?

A

Clostridium

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15
Q

What type of bacteria causes Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Toxic shock syndrome results from staphylococcal infection.


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16
Q

In microscopy, which is an advantage of using violet-blue light (420 nm) rather than red light (680 nm)?


A

Violet light improves resolution.
- the shorter the wave length, the better the resolution.

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17
Q

Which strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae synthesize diphtheria toxin?


A

strains lysogenic for corynephage

The diphtheria toxin is produced when the bacteria are infected by lysogenic phage carrying the tox gene.



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18
Q

What is the infectious agent of CSD (cat scratch disease)?

A

Bartonella henselae

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19
Q

What is the MOA of rifamycin?

A

Inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis.

20
Q

During the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process, the incubation mixture is made to cycle between low and high temperatures many times. What is the purpose of the high temperature?


A

to denature template DNA

Heating converts the double-stranded DNA to single-stranded DNA. Cooling allows the primers to attach to the single strands.


21
Q

Which ingredient makes mannitol salt agar a selective medium?


A

Sodium Chloride

Sodium chloride is a salt that inhibits non-Staph. aureus growth.


22
Q

Folic acid functions as a coenzyme for which process?


A

Synthesis of purines

23
Q

How do temperatures above the maximum growth temperature for a bacterial species generally inhibit growth?


A

by denaturing enzymes


Excessive heat denatures protein. Enzymes are proteins.


24
Q

When a competitive inhibitor binds to a particular enzyme, how can the reaction rate be increased?


A

by increasing substrate concentration

Increasing substrate concentration increases the reaction rate, because the enzyme has more noninhibited substrate active sites to react with


25
Q

Which organic compound is found only in cell walls of bacteria?
1. Cellulose

  1. Chitin
  2. N-acetylmuramic acid
  3. Phospholipids
A

N-acetylmuramic acid


26
Q

How do the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophages differ?


A

In the lytic cycle, phage virions are released when the cell lyses. In the lysogenic cycle, the phage DNA is incorporated into the host DNA as prophage.


27
Q

For a suspension of 1000 infectious phage particles per mL, it is known that at each cycle of invasion, 80% of the particles for this strain of phage will be lytic and 20% will be lysogenic. If 0.1 mL of virus suspension is plated onto a susceptible host, what would the expected plaque-forming units (pfu) count be after a 24-hour incubation?


A

80 pfu, because 20% of the first invasion cycle will not form plaques

If there are 1000 particles per mL, then 0.1 mL = 100 particles. If 80% of these particles are lytic, then 80 plaques will form. Lytic phages result from phage destroying the host bacteria in the culture medium.


28
Q

The last step of gram staining is with safranin. What color will gram negative bacteria appear?

A

Red or pink

29
Q

Plasmids most often encode for enzymes involved in ___________?

A

antibiotic resistance

30
Q

What is denitrification?

A

Denitrification converts nitrates to nitrogen gas, depriving crops of nitrogen.

31
Q

What is ammonification?

A

Ammonification enables plant and bacterial amino acid synthesis.


32
Q

What is nitrogen fixation?

A

Nitrogen fixation converts nitrogen gas to ammonia to start the nitrogen cycle.


33
Q

describe oil-degrading bacteria, such as those used to clean up oil spills?


A

heterotrophs that oxidize the oil as a source of carbon and energy


34
Q

Give an example of a bacterially synthesized secondary metabolite?


A

Penicillin

35
Q

In which environment is denitrification most likely to occur?


A

In areas of low oxygen levels such as fertilized, waterlogged garden soil


36
Q

What increases the rate of bioremediation of an oil spill?


A

Bioremediation in oil spills is enhanced by providing oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphate to the bioremediation microbes.


37
Q

What does “atopic” mean?

Give an example of an atopic immune disease.

A

Atopic = chronic & local

Example: hay fever, asthma, eczema

38
Q

What is the prodromal period of a disease?

A

Prodromal is the period after incubation when, in some diseases, mild symptoms become manifest.


39
Q

How are diseases such as AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria characterized?


A

infectious, opportunistic, epidemic


40
Q

What is the Wasserman complement fixation test


A

Used to test for syphillis

41
Q

Which criterion indicates a concern for hemolytic disease in a newborn?


A

the father and fetus are Rh+ and the mother is Rh-

If the fetal Rh positive blood enters the Rh negative maternal circulation, the mother will mount an immune response against the foreign Rh positive antigens of the fetal blood.


42
Q

Which antibody isotype containing a secretory component can be transported across membranes?


A

IgA

IgA contains a secretory component bound to the monomers by a J chain, and can cross membranes

43
Q

A gram-positive bacterium is exposed to the enzyme lysozyme. What will be the result of this exposure?

A

The lysozyme will degrade the mucopeptide layer of the cell wall, causing the cell to lyse.

44
Q

What do persons with type O blood have?


A

both anti-A and anti-B antibodies circulating in their plasma
Type O blood lacks A antigens and B antigens. Thus it has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.


45
Q

Euglena is classified as having which nutrition process?

A

Photoautotrophic

Microbiology (9 decks)

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