Misc Flashcards

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1
Q

acute dystonia is caused by… MOA… tx…

A
  • typical antipsychotics
  • dopamine blockade leads to extrapyramidal symptoms due to unopposed cholinergic
  • anticholinergic like benztropine
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2
Q

two drugs that act on leukotrienes in asthma

A
  • montelukast… receptor antagonist

- zileuton… inhibitor of 5-lipoxegenase (inhibits production)

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3
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

-adverse reaction associated with typical antipsychotics

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4
Q

mebendazole is used for…

A

-pinworms

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5
Q

college kid with fuzzy infiltrates on X-ray, tx with ceftriaxone, no improvement, switch to… because he has

A
  • macrolide

- atypical pnuemonia due to mycoplasma

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6
Q

flu-like prodrome, ALT>AST, can reach over 10,000, jaundice, icterus etc…. unusual transmission/

A
  • HepA

- fecal/oral

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7
Q

poliovirus mode of transmission

A

-fecal/oral

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8
Q

mallory bodies look like … on path

A

-twisted rope

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9
Q

healthy, normal weight person with OSA? think about…

A
  • acromegaly, increased GH after fusion of growth plates

- macroglossia is commonly seen

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10
Q

cardiolipan… is normal in which tissue, is used for dx in which disease?

A
  • inner mitochondrial membrane

- syphilis

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11
Q

abnormally high arch– pes cavus, is seen in… which is due to… (genetics)

A
  • friedrich’s ataxia

- unstable repeats, expansion, dysfunctional protein synthesis (frataxin)

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12
Q

procarbazine is a ….(class) which makes you worry about…

A
  • MAOI

- HTN crisis

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13
Q

positively charged amino acids (3)

A

-arginine, lysine, histidine

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14
Q

scalded skin syndrome affects what part of skin cells

A

-desmosomes (or macula adherens)

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15
Q

initial screen for HIV is through… which is confirmed by…

A
  • ELIZA (antigen-antibody)

- western blot

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16
Q

urea cycle begins in… the rest of the steps take place in..

A
  • mitochondrial matrix

- cytoplasm

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17
Q

bonds between… and a… (DNA) are more difficult to break (require more heat to denature) because they have 3 hydrogen bonds

A

-G and C

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18
Q

Hyper IgM is due to deficiency of

A

-CD40 on CD4 cells, can’t covert IgM to new Ig types

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19
Q

give… with imipenem, because …

A
  • cilastatin

- it inhibits renal metabolism and nephrotox by dehydropeptidase-I

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20
Q

toxoplasmosis is found in…

A

-raw meat and cat feces

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21
Q

northern blot detects … using … probe

A
  • RNA

- DNA

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22
Q

southern blot detects … using … probe

A
  • DNA

- DNA

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23
Q

SCID, due to defect in…

A

-adenosine deaminase

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24
Q

HIV prophylaxis for childbirth is… bad SE is …

A
  • zidovudine

- megaloblastic anemia

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25
Q

cyanide MOA…

A

-prevents the final stage of oxidative phosphyrlation (oxygen as the ultimate electron acceptor), preventing energy production

26
Q

a/B tubulin vs gamma-tubulin

A
  • a/B make microtubule spindle fibers

- gamma makes centrioles

27
Q

slapped cheeks rash…

A
  • parvovirus, B19
  • fifth disease
  • self-limited
28
Q

milky blood draw….

A

-lipoprotein lipase deficiency

29
Q

essentail AA’s lacking in plant based diet (2)… (kwashiorkor)

A
  • tryptophan

- lysine

30
Q

interferon gamma is released by… and acts to ….

A
  • T-helper 1 cells

- activate macrophages

31
Q

wiskott-aldrich (3 features) also genetics

A
  • exzema, thrombocytopenia and increased infections

- recessive defect in WASP gene

32
Q

passive immunization… (To Be Healed Rapidly)

A

-Tetanus, Botulinum, Hepatitis B, Rabies

33
Q

anaphylaxis is triggered by what cellular mechanisms… (complement and effector cells)

A
  • C3a and C5a bind IgE on mast cells and basophils

- Histamine release

34
Q

what is a hapten? give a (commonly tested) example.

A
  • a molecule that on its own is not immunogenic, but when bound to protein will cause immune response
  • penicillin bound to RBC’s causing drug-induced autoimmune hemolytic anemia
35
Q

to treat MS, you can use a recombinant cytokine….

A

-B-interferon

36
Q

HLA-DR2 is associated with…(3)

A
  • MS
  • goodpastures
  • SLE
37
Q

HLA-DR4 is associated with… (2)

A
  • T1DM

- RA

38
Q

name the glucose transporter for:

pancreatic b islet cells, hepatocytes, myocytes, adipocytes, enterocytes, RBCs

A
  • pancreatic beta cells: GLUT2
  • hepatocytes: GLUT2
  • myocytes: GLUT4
  • adipocytes: GLUT4
  • enterocytes: SGLT
  • RBCs: GLUT1
39
Q

pertussis is cultured on… (2) (one of which is referred to as a type of tuber)

A
  • bordet-gengou (potato agar)

- regan-lowe

40
Q

what cell secretes IL-12? what does IL-12 do?

A
  • macrophages

- converts naive T-cells into Th1 cells

41
Q

brutons agammaglobulinemia… defect in… resulting in…

T cells?

A
  • tyrosine kinase needed for maturation of B-lymphocytes
  • low levels of all b-cell types
  • T-cells are normal
  • Tx: IVIG
42
Q

HIV med assoc w/bone marrow suppression and megaloblastic anemia

A

-zidovudine

43
Q

vaccine to avoid with sz disorder?

A

-DPT

44
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder? what lab values are important? (2)

A
  • Von Willebrands

- PTT and bleeding time

45
Q

Neurofibromatoma type I vs type II`

A
  • type I: cafe au lait, spine abnormalities, cutaneous nodules (von Recklinghausen), chromosome 17, AD
  • type II: aucoustic schwanommas, ependymomas, miningiomas, juveniele cataracts, chromosome 22, AD
46
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD), surface receptor is missing?

A

-CD 18

47
Q

cherry red and eye exam… think about (2)

A
  • neimann pick

- tay sachs

48
Q

1st and 2nd line for status epilepticus… (bonus points for MOA)

A
  • benzo… increased frequency of Cl channel opening

- barbituate… increased duration of opening

49
Q

hernia… MD’s don’t Lie! also, reducibility?

A
  • medial direct (easily reducible)

- lateral indirect (difficult to reduce, more common congenitally)

50
Q

anti-IgG is also known as…

A

-rheumatoid factor

51
Q

Gq coupled protein receptors are found with…..

A

-histamine1, muscarinic 1 and 3, alpha 1

52
Q

homogenistic acid deficiency… clinical presentation

A
  • black urine
  • hyperpigmented cartilage
  • joint pain
  • nephrolithiasis
53
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A
  • steroid synthesis
  • membrane synthesis and repair
  • detoxification
54
Q

drugs that follow zero-order elimination (decrease linearly with time) (3)

A
  • PEA

- phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin (high dose)

55
Q

PKU results in build up of…. and deficiency of…

A
  • phenylalanine

- tyrosine

56
Q

lesch neyan can cause what blood abnormality

A

-b12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia

57
Q

amantidine is used in two conditions, name them, and the MOA in each

A
  • flu… binds to M2 protein, inhibiting pump, preventing viral uncaoting
  • parkinsons… stimulates release of endogenous DA
58
Q

infections with both staph and strep, and some albinism…

A

-chédiak-higashi

59
Q

maple syrup urine dz has…. urinary glucose levels

A
  • low

- hypoglycemic

60
Q

basophilic stippling, associated with…

A

-lead poisoning