MIDTERM - worksheet +hints Flashcards

1
Q

most common type of arthritis

A

osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

seronegative spondyloarthritis are a group of disorders characterized by what 3 things?

A
  1. lack of serum markers
  2. HLA-B27
  3. inflammation of synovial joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which types of arthritis is asymmetrical?

A

psoriatic arthritis, pseudogout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clinical features of osteoarthritis

A

-joint pain with crepitus
-slow progression
-morning stiffness
-Herbden’s nodes (DIP joints in women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the different between gout & pseudogout?

A

gout: MTP of big toe, monosodium urate crystals, uric acid, tophus

pseudogout: monoarticular, knee, calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate, bacteria/ virus/ fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

invasion of single joint space (monoarticular) with pathogenic microorganism like bacteria, virus, fungi - most common cause is staphylococcus

A

infectious/ septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ arthritis is symmetrical, polyarticular & usually involves small joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which type of arthritis causes joint stiffness, swelling & pain, triggered by a bacterial infection?

A

reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which type of arthritis affects skin & joints?

A

psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

chronic inflammation of tendons/ ligaments at insertion site which causes joint erosion, fibrosis & ossification of joint capsule

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

central spinal canal is constricted/ narrowed by a thickened ligament & occurs in which two regions?

A

spinal stenosis

lumbar & cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____ is a defect in pars interarticularis of vertebral arch and ____ is a forward displacement of a vertebra

A

spondylolysis

sondylolisthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

main cause of tendonitis

A

chronic overuse & repetitive movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clinic features of Horner’s syndrome

A

subtle symptoms, decreased pupil size, drooping eyelid & decreased sweating on one side of face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which pathology is treated with fasciotomy surgery?

A

compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 types of spina bifida

A

spina bifida occulta: hidden, mildest, most common, one or more of SPs fail to unite leaving open gap posteriorly

myelomeningocele: most severe, SP’s fail to form at multiple locations (usually L-spine) & spinal canal is open exposing meninges, spinal cord & nerves, life threatening, may cause paralysis

meningocele: very rare, just meninges herniate, no cord involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

crush injury to a mm with bleeding into mm & subcutaneous tissue

A

contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

solid swelling of clotted blood that collects in tissue, outside of a blood vessel

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in ____ main effect is overproduction & accumulation of COLLAGEN, leads to fibrosis/ scaring & inflammation causing skin & superficial fascia to thicken & harden

A

scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disease that affects skin, bones, nervous system & brain, kindeys, lungs - butterfly rash = most common symptom

A

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

polyarteritis nodosa is strongly associated with a ____ infection

A

hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

genetic disroder that affects proteins that contribute to elasticity & strength of CT

A

Marfan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is fibromyalgia diagnosed?

A

total of 18 tender points in the body, diagnosis is made if 11 are tender to digital palpation

(elevated substance P levels)

24
Q

what are the 2 types of seizures?

A

partial (60% of cases): seizure activity limited to single area of brain, & person does not lose consciousness - often exhibits lack of awareness, not knowing where he or she is or how much time has passed

generalized (30% of cases): seizure activity involves a diffuse area of brain or whole brain

25
most common types of generalized seizures
absence (petit-mal): brief loss of awareness,10sec tonic-clonic (grand-mal): contract-relax pattern,10-30min unclassified seizures (10% of cases)
26
Status Epilepticus seizure
occurs when seizures are recurrent without a full return to consciousness from the preceding seizure or may also be a single seizure lasting more than 5 minutes
27
most common areas for a spinal cord injury
C1-C7 T12-L2
28
difference between an upper motor lesion & a lower motor lesion
upper: lesion in CNS occurring above anterior horn of spinal cord or in motor nuclei of a cranial nerve lower: lesion occurring below anterior horn of spinal cord or in motor nuclei of a cranial nerve
29
inflammation caused by damage/ irritation of a nerve producing stabbing, burning, severe P
neuritis/ neuralgia
30
difference between meningitis & encephalitis
M: inflammation of fluid surrounding meninges & meninges themselves, affects brain/ spinal cord E: inflammation of brain with swelling & necrosis, develops after systemic viral disease, when involves meninges = meningoencephalitis
31
in which pathology does the virus enter via fecal-oral route/ respiratory route & infect cells of nervous system, specifically motor neurons in anterior horn destroying cells
poliomyelitis
32
with ____ abnormal protein clumbs called 'plaques' & irregular knots called 'neurofibrillary tangles' form in nerve cells in the brain
Alzheimer's
33
chorea is a clinical finding in which neurological pathology?
Huntington's disease
34
rare degenerative, genetic disorder that causes degeneration of nerve cells, neurons in basal ganglia & cerebral cortex begin to atrophy & ventricles become dilated, gene can be passed down
Huntington's disease
35
classic triad of symptoms for Parkinson's
tremors, rigidity & slowness of voluntary movements (bradykinesia)
36
progressive demylination of neurons in the brain & spinal cord including cranial nerves (optic)
multiple sclerosis (MS)
37
types of MS
-relapsing-remitting: most cases (90%), lasting weeks-months with states of remission -primary progressive: steady progression, no remission -secondary progressive: was relapsing-remitting, now into new stage of continuous deterioration -progressive-relapsing: rare, similar to primary with relapses bringing on worsened symptoms
38
which neurological pathology progresses rapidly, leading to respiratory failure (breathing mm fail) & death, usually within 2-5yrs?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
39
transient ischemic attack (TIA) - what blocks blood vessels?
thrombi (stationary blood clot) & emboli (floating blood clot)
40
in a ____ stroke, the blood vessel wall ruptures & bleeds into brain, killing brain tissue on contact
hemorrhagic *ischemic: most common, narrowed blood vessels become blocked & cause clots to lodge and occlude vessels
41
what motor disorder caused by brain damage in the fetus, hypoxia & ischemia damage motor control centre in brain
cerebral palsy
42
inflammation & swelling of cranial nerve VII/ facial nerve causing weakness & paralysis of facial mm unilaterally
Bell's palsy
43
myesthenia gravis is impaired impulse transmission of motor neurons caused by antibodies that attack & destroy ____ receptors at the NMJ
acetycholine
44
excruciating episodic pain on face in regions where trigeminal nerve (cranial V) supplies sensation, pain is so bad it may cause suicide, known as “suicide disease”
trigeminal neuralgia
45
related to imbalances in brain chemicals of the trigeminovascular system triggering release of neuropeptides & serotonin which helps regulate pain via the trigeminal nerve, a major pain pathway - blood vessels become dilated & inflamed, resulting in a headache
migraine / vascular headache
46
thoracic outlet is a compression of nerves in the ____
brachial plexus
47
anatomic defects like a cervical rib (extra rib at C7) or a tight band of fibrous tissue connecting the spine to the first rib
etiology: TOS
48
what is muscular/ disuse atrophy
decrease in mm cell diameter & decrease in size of mm
49
chronic pain syndrome with localized trigger points & fascial constrictions in a mm producing pain & causing myofascial pain
myofascial pain syndrome
50
which pathology involves inflammation in the skin & mm?
dermatomyositis
51
progressive loss of dopamine producing neurons in basal ganglia, substantia nigra leading to cell death & loss of function (less and less dopamine)
Parkinson's disease
52
what functions to: modulate reward, risk taking, impulsivity, mood, attention & arousal behaviours in brain, if unbalanced those behaviours are modified
neurotransmitter
53
bone tissue develops inside mm tissue in an abnormal reaction to a bruise/ hematoma formation
myositis ossificans
54
what is Gower's sign & what pathology is it seen in?
muscular dystrophy (duchenne) child uses arms to push off to rise from sitting to standing
55
median nerve pathologies
-pronator teres syndrome -anterior interosseous syndrome
56
radial nerve pathologies
-posterior interosseous syndrome -crutch palsy -saturday night palsy -cheiralgia paresthetica
57
ulnar nerve pathologies
-gamekeepers thumb -cubital tunnel syndrome -ulnar tunnel syndrome