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PATHOLOGY II > FINAL EXAM - hints > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM - hints Flashcards

1
Q

seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a group of disorders characterized by what 3 things?

A
  1. lack of serum markers
  2. HLA-B27 (human leukocyte antigen)
  3. inflammation of synovial joints
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2
Q

commonly found at DIP joints in women, hard bony swellings over joint caused by osteophytes in articular cartilage - diagnosis made using clinical information & X rays

A

Heberden’s nodes

(osteoarthritis)

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3
Q

____ arthritis is symmetrical, polyarticular, & usually involves small joints

A

rheumatoid

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4
Q

imbalance between bone deposition & bone decomposition, bone tissue becomes “porous”, diagnosed by bone densitometry/DXA scan

A

osteoporosis

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5
Q

chronic inflammation of tendons/ ligaments at their insertion sites which causes joint erosion, fibrosis & then ossification of joint capsule

A

ankylosing spondylitis

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6
Q

neural tube formation early in life, creating a bony gap in spine

cause: unknown, but folic acid deficiency & genetics play a role

A

spina bifida

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7
Q

3 types of spina bifida

A
  1. occulta: hidden, mildest, most common, one or more of SPs fail to unite leaving open gap posteriorly
  2. myelomeningocele: most severe, SP’s fail to form at multiple locations (usually L-spine) & spinal canal is open exposing meninges, spinal cord, nerves & other tissues, life threatening, may cause paralysis
  3. meningocele: very rare, just meninges herniate, no cord involvement
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8
Q

difference between sprain & strain

A

sprain: overstretch/ tear of ligament

strain: tear of mm or tendon, commonly affecting LB, NK, hamstrings

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9
Q

minor stretch & tear, no joint instability on passive testing, minimal P & swelling, able to complete ADLs with minor discomfort, can weight bear, bruising absent/ slight

A

grade 1 sprain

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10
Q

partial tear of ligament, increased P, bruising & swelling, loss of function due to P, P on weight bearing, snapping sound & giving way of joint at time of injury, passive testing shows a hypermobile, but still stable joint

A

grade 2 sprain

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11
Q

complete tear, surgery required, immobilization in cast, severe injury, resulting in synovial inflammation & accumulation of synovial fluid called joint effusion - Hemarthrosis if bleeding into joint - Xray to rule out avulsion fracture (when bone fragment pulls away from bone by a ligament)

A

grade 3 sprain

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12
Q

few mm fibers damaged, mild P at time of injury, mild swelling, if any, minimal loss of strength, P when tissue is stressed, ADLs can be completed, heals within 3 weeks

A

grade 1 strain

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13
Q

more extensive damage to fibers or tendon, but mm not completely ruptured, snapping sound may or may not be present, can sometimes feel gap at injury site, edema, P (moderate) tenderness at site, difficulty with ADLs, loss of strength, heals 3 – 6 weeks

A

grade 2 strain

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14
Q

severe injury with complete mm rupture, snapping sound accompanies injury, severe P, edema, bruising & ADLs cannot be continued

may be joint effusion (synovial fluid accumulation) or hemarthrosis (bleeding into joint)

A

grade 3 strain

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15
Q

parallel to long axis of bone

A

linear

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16
Q

right angle to bone’s long axis

A

transverse

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17
Q

twisting of bone, causing a fracture

A

spiral

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18
Q

two or more fragments of bone from fracture

A

comminuted

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19
Q

bone/bone fragments are crushed into each other

A

impacted

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20
Q

bone is compressed as in vertebral body

A

compression

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21
Q

usually of the skull (fracture)

A

depression

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22
Q

benign bone tumors (“oma”)

A

Osteoma
Osteochondroma
Endochondroma
Osteoid osteoma
Giant cell tumour
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Fibrous dysplasia

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23
Q

malignant bone tumors (“sarcoma”)

A

Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Malignant fibrous histocytoma
Ewings’ sarcoma
Multiple myeloma

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24
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa is strongly associated with a ____ infection

A

hepatitis B

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25
Q

highly contagious, from contaminated food or water (with feces) or from close contact with someone who is infected, no permanent damage, recover completely

A

hepatitis A

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26
Q

spreads via blood & other body fluids (sexually transmitted & with needle drugs or to baby during vaginal birth)

A

hepatitis B

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27
Q

spreads via blood & other body fluids (uncommon with sex, with needle drugs) may cause liver damage, new oral medications

A

hepatitis C

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28
Q

spreads via blood & other body fluids

A

hepatitis D

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29
Q

from contaminated food or water

A

hepatitis E

30
Q

insignificant damage to liver

A

hepatitis G

31
Q

clinic features of Marfan syndrome

A

tall stature, thin long extremities, protruding breastbone, crowded teeth, heart murmurs, extreme nearsightedness, curved spine & flat feet

symptoms may be mild or severe, if affecting aorta may be life threatening & may require surgery

32
Q

tightening of CT in body like mm, tendons, ligaments, skin

A

contracture

33
Q

2 different types of contractures

A

Dupuytren’s contracture: slow gradual, fibrosis of palmar fascia, creates shortening & thickening of 3, 4, 5 digits

Volkmann’s contracture: permanent shortening of forearm mm including hand, fingers & wrist (may also occur in foot) results in claw-like deformity due to ischemia

34
Q

what is fibromyalgia & how is it diagnosed?

A

chronic P syndrome characterized by a heightened P response with diffuse soft tissue pain that feels muscular in nature with multiple tender points

diagnosed: 11/18 tender points, lasts longer than 3 months

35
Q

____ is a motor disorder that is caused by brain damage in the fetus or during birth/ early childhood in the developing brain

A

cerebral palsy

36
Q

4 types of cerebral palsy

A

spastic
dyskinetic or athetotic
ataxic
mixed

37
Q

2 types of seizures

A
  1. partial
  2. generalized: absence seizures (petit-mal), tonic-clonic seizures (grand-mal), unclassified
38
Q

difference between quadriplegia & paraplegia

A

quadriplegia: C-spine injury, paralysis of trunk & all extremities, including pelvic organs

paraplegia: lower T/L-spine injury, paralysis of lower trunk & legs, including pelvic organs

39
Q

difference between UMNL & LMNL

A

upper: lesion in CNS occurring ABOVE anterior horn of spinal cord or in motor nuclei of cranial nerve

lower: lesion occurring BELOW anterior horn of spinal cord or in motor nuclei of cranial nerve

40
Q

most common areas for a spinal cord injury

A

C1-C7

T12-L2

41
Q

2 most common causes of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s, vascular dementia

42
Q

difference between Alzheimer’s & vascular dementia

A

Alzheimer’s: damage to brain tissue

vascular dementia: damage to blood vessels

43
Q

with ____ abnormal protein clumps called plaques & irregular knots called neurofibrillary tangles form in nerve cells in the brain

A

Alzheimer’s

44
Q

classic tried of symptoms for Parkinson’s

A

tremors
rigidity
slowness of voluntary movements (bradykinesia)

45
Q

most common stroke, narrowed blood vessels become blocked & cause clots to lodge and occlude vessels

A

ischemic stroke

46
Q

blood vessel wall ruptures & bleeds into brain, killing brain tissue on contact

A

hemorrhagic stroke

47
Q

decrease in mm cell diameter, decrease in size of mm

A

muscle atrophy or muscle wasting

48
Q

group of rare genetic mm diseases, characterized by atrophy of skeletal muscles

A

muscular dystrophy

common in elderly (about 5% loss per decade after 60) = sarcopenia

49
Q

most common and most severe form of muscular dystrophy

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

50
Q

child uses his arms to push off to rise from sitting to standing

A

Gower’s sign

= muscular dystrophy (duchenne)

51
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease is most often caused by which STD?

A

chlamydia & gonorrhea

52
Q

benign tumors in uterus that are composed of smooth mm & fibrous tissue

A

uterine fibroids

53
Q

classic triad of symptoms for eclampsia & preeclampsia

A
  1. hypertension
  2. sudden weight gain with edema (primarily in hands, feet, & face)
  3. protein in urine (proteinuria)
54
Q

most common cancer is women

A

breast cancer

upper outside quadrant (50%)

55
Q

breast cancer - lumps may be palpated that are ___ cm, mammograms measure a lump less than 0.5 cm

A

2

56
Q

Tx for cryptorchidism (undescended testicle)

A

usually descends on its own in first year, if not, increased risk of testicular cancer, surgical repositioning of testes in scrotum before age 2 is advisable

57
Q

common cause of peptic ulcers

A

helicobacter pylori, NSAIDs

58
Q

excessive serous fluid collects in space between layers of tunica vaginalis of scrotum - collection of fluid around testicle

A

hydrocele

59
Q

cyst containing fluid & sperm that develops between testis & epididymis outside tunica vaginalis - collection of fluid around epididymis

A

spermatocele

60
Q

celiac is a hypersensitivity or immune reaction to…

A

gluten

61
Q

____ is inflammation affecting any part of the small/ large intestine

A

Crohn’s

62
Q

presence of diverticula or herniations in the colon wall

A

diverticulosis

progresses into diverticulitis

63
Q

what causes hepatitis A & E?

A

contaminated food/ water

64
Q

most common GI cancer

A

liver cancer

65
Q

cause of acquired cystic disease

A

long term dialysis

66
Q

cause of renal failure

A

diabetes & hypertension

67
Q

by recent, untreated streptococcus infection, upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) in throat called “strep throat”

A

glomerulonephritis

68
Q

diabetes damages blood vessels to nephrons that make them thicken & scarred, kidneys are unable to filter & leak proteins in urine

A

diabetic nephropathy

69
Q

cause of UTI

A

escherichia coli bacterial infection = most common, 2nd: schistosomiasis, microorganisms ascend through urethra, other microorganisms may enter via bloodstream

70
Q

caused by a bacterial infection also called a UTI

A

cystitis (bladder infection)

71
Q

crystals & salts in urine may solidify & crystallize, produce stones

stones located in kidney, renal pelvis (most) & ureters

A

urolithiasis/ kidney stones/ renal calculi

PATHOLOGY II (11 decks)

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