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HD&T > midterm 3 > Flashcards

midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Epithelial/Endothelial malignant tumor

A

Carcinoma

- squamous cell carcinoma

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2
Q

Mesenchymal malignant tumor

A

Sarcoma

  • Osteosarcoma
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma
  • Leiomyosarcoma; smooth muscle
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3
Q

Lymphoid malignant tumor

A

Lymphoma

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4
Q

Melanotic malignant tumor

A

Melanoma

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5
Q

Hematopoietic malignant tumor

A

Leukemia

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6
Q

Benign epithelial glandular tumor

A

Adenoma

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7
Q

Benign epithelial papillary tumor

A

Papilloma

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8
Q

Benign smooth muscle tumor

A

Leiomyoma

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9
Q

What is mal-developed tissue native to site

A

Hemartoma

-nodular tongue

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10
Q

what is mal-developed tissue in other organs

A

Choristoma

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11
Q

What leads to chronic myelocytic leukemia

A

translocation of chromosome 22. 9:22.

Philadelphia chromosome

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12
Q

What gene regulates apoptosis and is the most common gene mutation

A

P53

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13
Q

Tumor related to HPV

A

Carcinoma of cervix and oropharyngeal

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14
Q

Tumor related to EBV

A

Mononucleosis

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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15
Q

Tumor related to Hep B and C

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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16
Q

Tumor related to HHV 8

A

Kaposi sarcoma (AIDS)

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17
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome

A

Metastasis of intestinal carcinoid
Flushing and diarrhea
Right heart fibrosis

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18
Q

Malignant tumor of endothelial tissue (vessels)

A

angiosarcoma

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19
Q

Reed Sternberg cells are associated with

A

Hodgkins lymphoma.

large, multinucleated B lymphocytes.

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20
Q

Facts of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

younger pts
good prognosis
Reed Stenberg cells (B-cell neoplasm)
EBV found in 80%

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21
Q

Facts of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

various levels of aggresiveness
poor prognosis
Burkitts’s lymphoma; very aggressive

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22
Q

What is incidence

A

newly diagnosed cases/time

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23
Q

What is mortality

A

death/time period

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24
Q

What is Prevalence

A

Number of new and pre-existing cases at one moment.

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25
Q

What is PSA

A

Prostate specific antigen

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26
Q

What is CBA

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen-colon carcinoma

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27
Q

What is CA-125

A

Serous ovarian carcinoma test

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28
Q

What is HCG

A

Choriocarcinoma test

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29
Q

What are the leading causes of cancer deaths in US in order

A

lung
Prostate
Breast

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30
Q

What is the most common cancer in Africa

A

Liver cell carcinoma due to link with viral Hep.

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31
Q

What cancer is linked to APC gene

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis/colon cancer

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32
Q

Breast and ovarian cancers linked to

A

BRCA 1 and 2

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33
Q

What is the most common tumor in children

A

Retinoblastoma

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34
Q

What does the WT-1 gene regulate

A

apoptosis such as in Wilms tumor

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35
Q

What gene repairs mismatched genes

A

HNPCC

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36
Q

What test measures if a chemical alters genetic changes in bacteria and would be a carcinogen

A

Ames test

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37
Q

What is the most common type of malignancy

A

Carcinoma

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38
Q

Adenocarcinoma facts

A

Forms glands
cuboidal or columnar cells
Ex: Colon, breast, prostate, lung

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39
Q

Examples of Mesenchymal (sarcomas) tumors

A 
Kaposi's 
Angiosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Liposarcoma
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40
Q

Examples of lymphomas

A

Hodgkins lymphoma
Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
Burkitt’s lymphoma

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41
Q

What are two genetic risks examples

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis/colon cancer; APC gene

Some breast and ovarian cancers; BRCA 1 and 2 genes

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42
Q

What are the Txs for cancer

A

Surgical removal
Radiation therapy
Chemotherapy

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43
Q

Cyclophosphamide is used to treat

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
Breast cancer
Leukemia

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44
Q

What are nitrosureas used for

A

Brain tumor
able to cross BB barrier.
combo tx for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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45
Q

What is the mcc of severe loss of sight in 60+ pts

A

Age-related macular degeneration.

46
Q

What is the tx for wet AMD

A

Bevacizumab

47
Q

What mutation occurs in up to 50% of tumors and can lead to resistance to rad therapy

A

P53 mutation

48
Q

What drug blocks ECGR and is the tx for non-smll cell lung and pancreatic cancer

A

Erlotibib

49
Q

What cancer exhibits primary resistance on initial exposure

A

Melanoma

50
Q

Resistance to alkylating agents develops as

A

increased capacity to repair damaged DNA

51
Q

What are the adverse effects of alkylating agents

A 
nausea, vomiting
Damage to rapidly growing tissues
Carcinogenic in nature; increased risk of secondary cancer
observed as early as 2-4 yrs after. 
Acute myelogenous leukemia.
52
Q

What is cisplatin

A

Tx of broad range of solid tumors

nephrotic

53
Q

MOA and SE of antimetabolites (Methyltrexate)

A

Inhibits tetrahydrofolate

Mucositis, diarrhea.

54
Q

What is Fluorouracil used for

A 
Colorectal
Anal
breast 
H and N
Hepatocellular cancers 
Decreases DNA synthesis and function.
55
Q

What are two anti tumor Abx

A

doxorubicin
Bleomycin
Tx: Lymphomas, breast and thyroid cr.

56
Q

What leukemia is most common in children

A

Acute Lymphoblast leukemia (ALL)

57
Q

What is the most common form of leukemia in adults

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

58
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma drugs

A

Anthracycline
Doxorubicin
bleomycin
Vinblastine

59
Q

What is multiple myeloma

A

plasma cell malignancy, primarily in bone marrow.
Bone pain, fractures, anemia.
tx; alkylating agents, prednisone

60
Q

Drug used for colorectal cr

A

5-fluorouracil

61
Q

what viruses are associated with infectious esophagitis

A

Herpes
Candida
CMV

62
Q

Facts of infectious esophagitis

A

Affects entire GI tract.

Multiple discrete, well circumscribed superficial ulcers.

63
Q

what are the aggravating factors for reflux esophagitis

A

obesity, pregnancy, drug use ( ↓ esophageal pressure, alc/to use, narcotics, nicotine patch)

64
Q

What are the complications of reflux esophagitis

A

Ulceration
stricture
Barrett esophagus

65
Q

Chronic gastritis facts

A

H. pylori gastritis-doudenal
Pyloric ulcers
May lead to cancer.
autoimmune gastritis

66
Q

Facts of AI atrophic gastritis

A 
Genetic factors
No ulcers 
Decreased gastric acid
Intestinal metaplasia
malabsorption of B12 (pernicious anemia)
67
Q

Why do you get polyps

A

response to gastric injury around ulcers

68
Q

Fact of gastric carcinoma

A

looks like intestinal tissue and diffuse

some have hereditary connection.

69
Q

Intestinal obstruction small bowel

A

Intestinal obstruction 80%

Neoplasm and infarction 20%

70
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease

A

Congenital defect in colonic innervation

Failure to pass meconium

71
Q

Facts of Celiac sprue

A

Immune mediated (glutten)
malnutrition: Iron, B12 malabsorption
atrophic glossitis
enamel defects, delayed eruption, aphthous ulcers, cheilosis.

72
Q

What is lymphocytic colitis

A

increased intraepithelial lymphocytes

73
Q

What microorganims are associated with self-limiting colitis

A

Salmonella
E. coli
Shigella
Clostridium

74
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis is associated with use of

A

broad spectrum Abx therapy

75
Q

What is the most common nosocomial infection in older adults

A

pseudomembranous colitis.

76
Q

cholecystitis facts

A

Acute often caused by gallstones and obstruction.

can become chronic.

77
Q

What is fatty liver caused by

A

ETHOH
Obesity
diabetes

78
Q

What is Hep caused by

A

virus
drug
AI

79
Q

What are the five types of liver disease

A 
Fatty liver
Hepatitis
Biliary disease
Metabolic disease
Vascular
80
Q

What is the number one cause of liver toxicity

A

Drugs

81
Q

what causes the worst liver destruction

A

fibrosis; leads to collagen scar and permanent injury

82
Q

Acute hep is caused by what viruses

A

A

E

83
Q

What Hep types have vaccines for

A

A
B
D

84
Q

What Heps can cause a chronic infection and have a percutaneous premucosal mode of transmission

A

B
C
D

85
Q

What hep virus is found in > 170 million carriers worldwide

A

Hep C

86
Q

What hep virus chronically infects 2 billion people

A

Hep B

87
Q

Facts of Hep B

A

15-25% will die from complications
can lead to cancer of liver (hepatocarcinoma)
important to get vaccinated.

88
Q

What is cirrhosis

A

regenerative hepatocyte nodules.

Fibrosis surrounding nodules.

89
Q

Where is AI hep usually found

A

Obese females predominantly

90
Q

metabolic diseases are often associated with

A

iron overload

91
Q

What is Wilson’s disease

A

copper metabolic defect goes to hep then cirrhosis.

92
Q

What is GERD

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease.

Chronic

93
Q

Where is water and alcohol absorbed

A

Stomach

94
Q

What is absorbed in duodenum

A 
Fe
Ca
Mg
Na
fats 
water
Protein
Vitamins
95
Q

What is absorbed in Jejunum

A

Carbohydrates

Proteins

96
Q

What is absorbed in the Ileum

A

Bile salts
B-12
Cl

97
Q

What are two laxatives

A

Bisacodyl; stimulant of smooth muscles

Ducosate; (Dulcolax) Water retention in stools, softens stools.

98
Q

Diarrhea meds

A

Loperamine
Bismuth Subsalicylate
Atropine

99
Q

IBS meds

A

Linaclotide (Linzess)

100
Q

Ulcerative colitis facts

A

Similar to crohn’s but limited to colon and more generalized.
No strictures.

101
Q

Where is the highest concentration of Hep in oral cavity

A

gingival sulcus

102
Q

What are hep manifestations

A 
Lichen planus
Periodontal disease
Candidiasis
Increased oral bleeding 
Increased incidence of type II diabetes
Sjogrens syndrome
103
Q

What are three H2 Inhibitors

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Famotidine (Pepcid)

104
Q

What are examples of PPI

A

Omeprazole (prilosec)
Omeprazole + sodium bicarbonate (Zegerid)
Lansorazole (Prevacid)
Esomeprazole (Nexium)

105
Q

What is Prevpac

A

lasoprazole
Amoxicillin
clarithromycin

106
Q

laxatives

A

Bisacodyl

Docusate

107
Q

Diarrhea control

A

Loperamide
Bismuth Subsalicylate
Atropine

108
Q

Drug for IBS constipation

A

Linaclotide (Linzess)

109
Q

Drugs for IBD (crohn’s)

A

Mesalamine
Corticosteroids
Metronidazole

110
Q

Tx for granulomatosis

A

infliximab (TNF α blocker)

111
Q

Most common drug to cause liver damage

A

Ethanol

HD&T (19 decks)

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