Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the tx for lead poisoning

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the sx for lead poisoning

A

headaches
Neurocognitive deficits
Kidney damage
Burtonian lines (gingiva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hg is used primarily in what form

A

MethylHg

Reacts with Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the sx of Hg poisoning

A

gingivostomatitis
Neuronlogical
Psychiatric: Memory loss, depression, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the tx for Hg poisoning

A

Cimercaprol: chronic us can cause renal toxicity

Succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is arsenic absorbed

A

Respiratory
GI
Poor absorption through skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the sx of arsenic poisoning

A
fatigue
anemia
renal failure
Hyperpigmentation
Hemolytic on RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the tx for acute arsenic intoxication

A

Decontamination
Unithiol (IV)
Dimercaprol (IM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the tx for chronic arsenic intoxication

A

Folate dietary supplements

NO CHELATORS; irreversible damage has already occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the tx for acute arsine intoxication

A

hemodialysis and transfusions
agressive hydration
NO CHELATORS; no benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do chelators work

A

they render heavy metal ions unavailable for covalent interactions.
the longer the t1/2 of the heavy metal, the less effective is the chelator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is dimercaprol used

A

for arsenic and Hg combined
It pulls Pb from bone and it goes to brain causing toxicity. contraindicated for lead poisoning alone.
Narrow therapeutic index.
Mostly has been replaced by succimer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is Succimer used for

A

Tx of
Pb, As and Hg poisoning.
water soluble; oral uses only, urinary excretion.
t1/2= 2-4 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is EDTA used for

A

Tx of Pb poisoning
chelates extracellular Pb only
IV,
100 by kidneys. Not for anuric pts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Unithiol used for

A
Tx of Hg, As and Pb poisoning. 
Water soluble
Oral or IV 
t1/2=20hrs 
NOT FDA APPROVED FOR ANY HEAVY METAL POISONINGS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does cyanide work

A

It is NOT a heavy metal

Prevents cells of the body from getting oxygen and ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the antidote for cyanide

A

Hydroxycobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pure Food and Drug Act

A

Addiction to opium and cocaine.
requires labeling and name ingredients.
patent medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Modified Food, Drug and Cosmetic act

A

Requires safety; caused by diethleneglycol tragedy

Drugs must be safe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Durham Humphrey Amendment

A

Many new drugs needed to be regulated.

Rx vs OTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

A

phocomelia caused by thalidomide (morning sickness)

Required testing for safety and efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act

A
Due to little regulation 
regulates herbal products like food 
-Serving size 
-Structure function claims 
NOT INTENDED TO DIAGNOSE, TREAT, CURE, PREVENT ANY DISEASE.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rx drugs

A

Addictive potential

Toxic, serious indications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What agency controls animal testing

A

IACUC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is phase I

A

Small group of healthy subjects

Safety, dose, administration and kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Phase II

A

small group of subjects with conditions to be treated to test safety and efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is phase III

A

extended clinical phase

large group of subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is phase IV

A

Markenting.

See how product does in production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IRB

A

Institutional Review Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

NDA

A

New drug application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IND

A

Investigational New Drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Orphan drug act

A

For rare diseases to encourage drug development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

OTC decongestants

A

Vasoconstrictors, sympathomimetics
Oxymetazoline
Phenylephrine
Pseudophedrine (restricted sales)
-systemic: Increase BP and HR, longer acting
-Topical: short acting but more effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Antihistamines

A

Not effective for colds.

  • dyphenhydramine (drowsiness)
  • Cholpheniramine (Chlor-trimeton)
  • Loratidine (claritin) (Less Drowsiness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Antitussives

A

Codeine
Depenhydramine (Antihistamine)
Dextromethorphan (Robitussin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Expectorants

A

Guaifenesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Demulcents

A

Coat the throat to reduce irritation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Antivirals

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
Zanamivir (Relenza)
Docosanol (Abreba)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the cons of acetaminophen

A

Not an anti-inflammatory

Liver toxic

40
Q

What are the cons of Ibuprofen

A

GI irritation

Anti-clotting

41
Q

What is Xanthine

A

caffeine

Adenosine antagonist

42
Q

What are the side effects of nicotine replacement

A

Dizziness
Headache
Nausea

43
Q

Two drugs, antihistamine and OTC sleep aid

A

Diphenhydramine

Doxylamine

44
Q

Antifungal, thrush, vaginal infections

A

Miconazole

45
Q

Antibiotic, first aid

A

Neosporin

polysporin

46
Q

What drug is used for pain relief, targets TRPV channels

Decreases substance P

A

Capsacin

47
Q

Anti-cholinergic drug, tx for motion sickness sx

A

Scopolamine

48
Q

What are the side effects of Scopolamine

A
Drowsiness
Disorientation
Dry mouth 
Blurred vision
dilated pupils 
constipation
49
Q

anticholinegic drug for tx of motion sickness with less side effects

A

Dimenhydrinate

50
Q

side effects of Dimenhydrinate

A

Dry mouth
constipation
blurred vision
reduced urination.

51
Q

Vasodialator use for hair growth

A

Minoxidil

Causes rapid HR

52
Q

Tx of hemorrhoids

A

Phelylephrine (vasoconstrictor)

53
Q

What is the active ingredient in marijuana

A

anandamine (neurotransmitter
THC
Schedule I

54
Q

name of FDA approved marijuana agonist

A

Marinol (dronabinol)

tx; nausea, appetite, glaucoma, chronic pain

55
Q

Analog promoted as anti seizure not as addicting as THC

A

CBD; cannabidiol

56
Q

What agency regulates herbal products

A

DSHEA

Once marketed FDA regulates its safety.

57
Q

herbal for depression

A

St. John’s Wort

58
Q

Herbal for colds

A

Echinacea

59
Q

Herbal for skin care

A

Aloe vera

60
Q

Herbal to lower cholesterol

A

Garlic

61
Q

Herbal to improve memory

A

Ginko

62
Q

Herbal to boost immune system, lower blood sugar

A

Ginseng

63
Q

Who is the head of the ONDCP

A

Drug Czar

oversees DEA, NIDA and NIAAA (NIH)

64
Q

What is Sch I

A

No current acceptable medical use in US.
lacks accepted safety for use under medical supervision.
HIGH potential for abuse.
Ex: Heroin, LSD, Cannabis, meth

65
Q

What is Sch II

A

High potential for abuse.
May lead to severe psychological or physical dependence
Ex; Hydromorphone, methadone, meperidine, fentanyl, Hydrocodone.

66
Q

What is Sch III

A

have potential for abuse, may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.
Ex; Codeine, buprenorphine, Ketamine.

67
Q

What is Sch IV

A

Low potential for abuse.

Ex; Alprazolam, Diazepan, Triazolam (tramadol)

68
Q

What is Sch V

A

Low potential for abuse

Ex; bought preparations, Robitussin

69
Q

Metabotropic receptor

A

Not directly linked to Ion channel.
Second messenger; G protein
Long term effects; seconds to minutes.

70
Q

Ionotropic receptor

A

Same as ligand gated
Immediate and brief action.
Ex. AMPA, NACH, GABA

71
Q

GABA is

A

inhibitory

72
Q

Glutamate

A

excitatory

directly stimulates N-methyl d aspartate receptors

73
Q

What does tryptophan hydroxylase do

A

coverts tryptophan to 5HTP

74
Q

What does tyrosine hydroxylase do

A

converts tyrosine to DOPA

75
Q

What is responsible for the degradation of 5-hydroxytryptamine

A

monoamine oxidase (MOA)

76
Q

What would cause a rapid, direct decrease in NE synthesis

and can cause severe orthostatic hypotension

A

DBH; dopamine ß hydroxylase inhibitor.

77
Q

What is phentolamine

A

α inhibitor

78
Q

Decongestants fall under what category

A

α1 agonist

79
Q

Three examples of partial seizures

A

Simple partial
complex partial
Onset of secondarily generalized

80
Q

Ethosuximide is only good for

A

Absence seizures

81
Q

Huntingtons disease

A

Excessive excitation of NMDA receptors by excessive dopamine on striatal cell bodies.

82
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

greater than 70% destruction of nigrostriatal dopamine neurons

83
Q

Depression

A

Imbalance of CNS noradrenergic or serotonergic systems

84
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

localized deterioration of myelin in the CNS

85
Q

Schizophrenia

A

excessive D2 activity in frontal cortex

86
Q

Alzheimer’s

A

Most common 3-4 million
Excessive abnormal APP (Amyloid Precursor Protein)
Beta amyloid plaques
Neurofibrillary tangles; tau protein

87
Q

What drug is particularly effective for bone related pain

A

Diflunisal (Dolobid)

88
Q

What analgesic is ude to treat opioid dependance

A

Methadone

89
Q

Meds for anxiety

A

Benzos

Barbiturates: bupropion

90
Q

What does serotonin decarboxylase do

A

Converts 5HTP to 5HT

91
Q

MAO degrades

A

Dopamine
Serotonin
NE

92
Q

Pesticides are? and should be treated with

A

AChE inhibitors so there is a lot of ACh floating around.

Tx. Muscarinic antagonist

93
Q

Postganglionic sympathetics can release

A

DA (Renal vascular smooth muscle)
EPI
NE

94
Q

What naturally occurring opioid primarily activates kappa opioid receptors

A

dynorphins 17 aa

95
Q

What naturally occurring opioid primarily activate miu and Delta opioid receptors

A

b-endorphins 91 AA

96
Q

if it is an endorphin it will have one or both of these

A

methyanine

Leucine

97
Q

encephalin

A

miu and delta

5 aa