Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

An increased amount of heparin in the blood might
Select one:
a. slow down the clotting process.
b. enhance the clotting process.
c. stop the clotting process.
d. speed up the clotting process.
e. have no effect on the clotting process.

A

a. slow down the clotting process.

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2
Q

Why would a person have anti-Rh antibodies present in their blood?
Select one:
a. An Rh-positive woman is carrying an Rh-negative fetus.
b. A person cannot have anti-Rh antibodies in their blood.
c. They are Rh-positive and were exposed to Rh-negative blood.
d. An Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus.

A

d. An Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus.

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3
Q

A person with type B blood
Select one:
a. will have a transfusion reaction if given type B blood.
b. has anti-A antibodies .
c. has anti-B antibodies.
d. has antigen A.
e. can receive type A blood.

A

b. has anti-A antibodies .

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4
Q

Mike has blood type A. He needs blood; however, blood type A is not available. The next best choice would be blood type_________.
Select one:
a. O
b. AB
c. B

A

a. O

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5
Q

Which of the following accurately describes thromboplastin?
Select one:
a. A compound released by damaged tissue that initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway
b. A compound that keeps platelets from sticking to the endothelium
c. A compound released by damaged tissue that initiates the intrinsic clotting pathway
d. A compound released by healed tissues that initiates clot dissolution
e. A precursor to prothrombin

A

a. A compound released by damaged tissue that initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway

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6
Q

Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order in which they would be used for coagulation.
(1) Thrombin
(2) Fibrinogen
(3) Prothrombinase
(4) Activated factor XII
Select one:
a. 3, 1, 4, 2
b. 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 4, 3, 1, 2
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
e. 3, 4, 1, 2

A

c. 4, 3, 1, 2

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7
Q

When a person is transfused with the wrong blood type,
Select one:
a. hemorrhaging occurs.
b. the white cells clot.
c. they bleed to death.
d. the erythrocytes agglutinate.
e. fibrinogen is activated.

A

d. the erythrocytes agglutinate.

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8
Q

The plasma component that forms fibrin, the insoluble protein, in a blood clot is_________.
Select one:
a. globulin
b. fibrinogen
c. albumin
d. Na+
e. fibrinolysis

A

b. fibrinogen

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9
Q

Which of the following events occurs when erythrocytes are destroyed?
Select one:
a. Bile is manufactured by the gallbladder.
b. Heme is transported by transferrin to the liver.
c. Urine output increases.
d. The globin portion of the molecule is broken down into amino acids.
e. Iron is secreted into the bile.

A

d. The globin portion of the molecule is broken down into amino acids.

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10
Q

The oxygenated form of hemoglobin is called_________.
Select one:
a. loaded hemoglobin
b. deoxyhemoglobin
c. carboxyhemoglobin
d. oxyhemoglobin
e. carbaminohemoglobin

A

d. oxyhemoglobin

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11
Q

nother name for the visceral pericardium is the_________.
Select one:
a. epicardium
b. visocardium
c. myocardium
d. isocardium
e. endocardium

A

a. epicardium

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12
Q

Blood in the pulmonary veins returns to the
Select one:
a. coronary sinus.
b. left ventricle.
c. right atrium.
d. left atrium.
e. right ventricle.

A

d. left atrium.

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13
Q

The great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein empty into a venous cavity called the
Select one:
a. coronary artery.
b. pulmonary vein.
c. coronary sinus.
d. inferior vena cava.
e. superior vena cava.

A

c. coronary sinus.

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14
Q

After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the_________.
Select one:
a. pulmonary trunk
b. right ventricle
c. ascending aorta
d. left atrium
e. superior vena cava

A

e. superior vena cava

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15
Q

The P wave of an electrocardiogram indicates
Select one:
a. ventricular repolarization.
b. atrial depolarization.
c. threshold.
d. ventricular depolarization.
e. atrial repolarization.

A

b. atrial depolarization.

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16
Q

If the heart receives more sympathetic stimulation than parasympathetic stimulation, the heart will
Select one:
a. decrease both its rate and force of contraction.
b. increase its rate and force of contraction.
c. contract with greater force but at a slower rate.
d. decrease rate, but increase force of contraction.
e. contract with less force but at a faster rate.

A

b. increase its rate and force of contraction.

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17
Q

The procedure whereby a small balloon is placed into a partially occluded coronary artery and then inflated to increase blood flow through the artery is called a/an_________.
Select one:
a. angiogram
b. angioplasty
c. coronary bypass
d. urokinase injection
e. tissue plasminogen activation

A

b. angioplasty

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18
Q

What is the foramen ovale?
Select one:
a. An opening between the right and left ventricles in the embryo and fetus
b. An oval hole in the pericardium in the embryo and fetus
c. An opening between the right and left atria in the embryo and fetus
d. An opening between the pulmonary trunk and aorta in the embryo and fetus

A

c. An opening between the right and left atria in the embryo and fetus

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19
Q

Why is body temperature sometimes reduced during heart surgery?
Select one:
a. To increase heart rate
b. To slow respiration
c. To decrease heart rate
d. To increase the oxygen content of blood

A

c. To decrease heart rate

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20
Q

The action potentials are slowed at the AV node to allow the
Select one:
a. pacemaker to reset for the next beat.
b. atria to begin their contraction.
c. atria to complete their contraction.
d. ventricles to completely empty of blood.
e. ventricles to repolarize.

A

c. atria to complete their contraction.

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21
Q

Which of the following best explains the drop in blood pressure that occurs when one goes from lying down to standing up?
Select one:
a. An increase in preload causes a drop in stroke volume, cardiac output, and blood pressure.
b.
Venous compliance allows blood to pool in the legs, decreasing venous return. This causes a drop in cardiac output and blood pressure.
c. The heart rate decreases. This is due to the baroreceptor reflex reducing sympathetic output to the SA node.
d. An increase in afterload causes a drop in stroke volume, cardiac output, and blood pressure.

A

b.
Venous compliance allows blood to pool in the legs, decreasing venous return. This causes a drop in cardiac output and blood pressure.

22
Q

Which type of veins connect two primary capillary networks?
Select one:
a. Venules
b. Portal veins
c. Venous sinuses
d. Vaso vasorum

A

b. Portal veins

23
Q

The venous sinuses in the cranial cavity drain blood into the_________ vein.
Select one:
a. brachiocephalic
b. internal carotid
c. cephalic
d. internal jugular

A

d. internal jugular

24
Q

Art, 75 years old, has advanced arteriosclerosis and is suffering from a number of manifestations associated with arteriosclerosis. Over the past several years he has developed hypertension and he is beginning to show signs of renal failure. Which of the following are consistent with his condition?
Select one:
a. Increased renin secretion from the kidneys
b. Increased resistance to blood flow
c. Increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex
d. All of the choices are correct.
e. Increased angiotensinogen formation

A

d. All of the choices are correct.

25
Q

Which of the following is LESS likely to result in edema?
Select one:
a. Increase in capillary permeability
b. Increased mean arterial pressure
c. Reduced plasma colloid osmotic pressure
d. Loss of protein molecules in urine through the kidneys
e. Blockage of veins

A

b. Increased mean arterial pressure

26
Q

Veins
Select one:
a. have thick, many layered walls.
b. are described as strong, rigid vessels that always carry oxygenated blood.
c. carry blood away from the heart.
d. carry blood under very high pressure.
e. may contain valves and are lined with endothelium.

A

e. may contain valves and are lined with endothelium.

27
Q

Arteriosclerosis results in decreased compliance, which in turn causes the pulse pressure to_________.
Select one:
a. decrease
b. increase, then decrease
c. decrease, then increase
d. remain the same
e. increase

A

e. increase

28
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors
Select one:
a. are not sensitive to image or image levels.
b. monitor blood pressure.
c. are not sensitive to changes in pH of the blood.
d. are sensitive to small changes in image levels in the blood.
e. are located in the aortic and carotid bodies.

A

e. are located in the aortic and carotid bodies.

29
Q

Which of the following blood vessels supplies blood to the diaphragm?
Select one:
a. Intercostal artery
b. Axillary artery
c. Inferior mesenteric artery
d. Superior phrenic artery
e. Gastric artery

A

d. Superior phrenic artery

30
Q

Which of the following are components of the hepatic portal system?
Select one:
a. Azygos vein
b. Inferior mesenteric vein
c. Both “Gastric vein” and “Inferior mesenteric vein” are correct.
d. Gastric vein
e. Inferior vena cava

A

c. Both “Gastric vein” and “Inferior mesenteric vein” are correct.

31
Q

Germinal centers are the sites of
Select one:
a. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes.
b. fluid production.
c. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes.
d. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues.
e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

A

e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

32
Q

The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by
Select one:
a. returning interstitial fluid to the blood.
b. adding lymph to GI tract secretions.
c. actively absorbing fluid from the blood.
d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted.
e. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver.

A

a. returning interstitial fluid to the blood.

33
Q

Which of the following would be classified as an innate physical barrier?
Select one:
a. Activation of complement
b. Inflammation
c. Release of histamine
d. Phagocytosis of invading organisms
e. Washing action of tears and saliva

A

e. Washing action of tears and saliva

34
Q

Structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to_________.
Select one:
a. veins
b. arteries
c. venules
d. capillaries
e. arterioles

A

a. veins

35
Q

An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called_________.
Select one:
a. hypersensitivity
b. immunization
c. an innate immune response
d. excess immunity
e. tolerance

A

a. hypersensitivity

36
Q

Inflammation of the inguinal lymph nodes is an indication of possible infection in the_________.
Select one:
a. upper limb
b. reproductive organs
c. abdomen
d. lower limb

A

d. lower limb

37
Q

Which of the following cytokines is mismatched?
Select one:
a. Interleukin 4 – plays a role in allergic reactions
b. Lymphotoxin – costimulator of T cells
c. TNF – activates macrophages and promotes fever
d. Alpha interferon – prevents viral replication
e. Perforin – makes a hole in target cell membranes

A

b. Lymphotoxin – costimulator of T cells

38
Q

The type of cell responsible for the secondary response is a_________.
Select one:
a. memory cell
b. mast cell
c. macrophage
d. monocyte
e. red blood cell

A

a. memory cell

39
Q

_________ determines which B-cell is cloned in an antibody-mediated response.
Select one:
a. A macrophage
b. A neutrophil
c. The antigen
d. The antibody
e. Complement

A

c. The antigen

40
Q

Activation of the complement cascade via the alternative pathway involves the spontaneous activation of the complement protein_________.
Select one:
a. C4
b. C3
c. C1
d. C2
e. C5

A

b. C3

41
Q

As the result of an asthmatic attack,
Select one:
a. ventilation exceeds the ability of blood to pick up oxygen.
b. pulmonary blood flow is reduced while ventilation remains normal.
c. the surface area available for gas exchange increases.
d. ventilation is inadequate to oxygenate blood.
e. bronchioles dilate.

A

d. ventilation is inadequate to oxygenate blood.

42
Q

Which of the paired cartilages of the larynx articulate with the cricoid cartilage?
Select one:
a. Cuneiform
b. Epiglottis
c. Corniculate
d. Thyroid
e. Arytenoid

A

e. Arytenoid

43
Q

Most Co2 is transported in the blood
Select one:
a. by the leukocytes.
b. dissolved in the plasma.
c. in the form of carbonic acid.
d. bound to hemoglobin.
e. in the form of bicarbonate ions.

A

e. in the form of bicarbonate ions.

44
Q

Blood O2 levels
Select one:
a. are more important than image levels in the regulation of respiration.
b. need to change only slightly to cause a change in respiration rate.
c. never change enough to influence respiration.
d. in venous blood and arterial blood are about the same.
e. within the normal PO2 range have little effect on regulation of respiration.

A

e. within the normal PO2 range have little effect on regulation of respiration.

45
Q

Pulmonary (external) respiration refers to
Select one:
a. gas exchange in the atmosphere.
b. gas exchange between the blood and body tissues.
c. cellular respiration.
d. atmospheric air coming into the lungs.
e. gas exchange between the lungs and the blood.

A

e. gas exchange between the lungs and the blood.

46
Q

The ventral respiratory group
Select one:
a. is active only in exhalation.
b. is part of the pontine respiratory group.
c. stimulates the intercostal and abdominal muscles.
d. is located in the pons.
e. stimulates the diaphragm.

A

c. stimulates the intercostal and abdominal muscles.

47
Q

During swallowing, the opening into the larynx is covered by the_________.
Select one:
a. cricoid cartilage
b. the “Adam’s apple”
c. epiglottis
d. arytenoid cartilage
e. thyroid cartilage

A

c. epiglottis

48
Q

Which of the following are mechanisms to prevent food from entering the larynx? (Check all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Closure of the glottis
b. Movement of the tongue over the inlet to the larynx
c. Tipping of epiglottis over glottis
d. Contraction of the thyroid cartilage, pinching closed the larynx

A

a. Closure of the glottis
c. Tipping of epiglottis over glottis

49
Q

The highest level of exercise that can be performed without causing a significant change in blood pH is called the_________.
Select one:
a. anaerobic threshold
b. Hering-Breuer reflex
c. aerobic threshold
d. lactate tolerance level

A

a. anaerobic threshold

50
Q

As air moves down through the tracheobronchial tree, the FIRST segment that will contain alveoli will be_________.
Select one:
a. alveolar duct
b. alveolar sac
c. respiratory bronchioles
d. terminal bronchioles
e. bronchioles

A

c. respiratory bronchioles