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Physiology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of protein function?

A
  1. catalysis
  2. Reaction coupling
  3. Transport
  4. Structure
  5. Signaling
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2
Q

What is the ability to increase the rate of a chemical reaction without altering the equilibrium of the reaction?

A

catalysis

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3
Q

What is two reactions joined together with the transfer of energy?

A

Reaction coupling

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4
Q

What are the common mechanisms that result in allosteric shape change?

A
  1. ligand binding
  2. phosphorylation
  3. voltage-dependent proteins
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5
Q

The binding of one ligand changes the binding site shape of another ligand

A

Ligand binding

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6
Q

Adding a phosphate group to certain amino acids on the protein

A

phosphorylation

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7
Q

The electrical field surrounding some proteins can change the conformation of some proteins

A

voltage-dependent proteins

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8
Q

Molecules that can readily pass through membrane

A

small, uncharged molecules and lipid-soluble molecules

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9
Q

Molecules that cannot readily pass through membrane

A

ions, large polar molecules

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10
Q

Factors that determine the driving force of molecules across cell membranes

A
  1. chemical concentration
  2. electrical gradient
  3. pressure
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11
Q

Determined by the differences in the number of molecules in and out of cells

A

chemical concentration

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12
Q

Difference in electrical charges across the cell membrane

A

electrical gradient

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13
Q

spontaneous net movement of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane into a region of higher solute concentration

A

osmosis

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14
Q

Osmotic pressure resulting from dissolved blood proteins

A

colloidal pressure or oncotic pressure

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15
Q

Couples movement down an electrochemical gradient to the uphill movement of another molecule against a electrochemical gradient

A

secondary active transport

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16
Q

Methods of facilitated diffusion

A
  1. ungated channel proteins
  2. carrier proteins
  3. Ligand-gated channel
  4. voltage-gated channel
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17
Q

Any abnormality in a tissue/organ

A

lesion

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18
Q

The reaction of living tissue to local injury

A

inflammation

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19
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  1. heat
  2. redness
  3. swelling
  4. pain
  5. loss of function
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20
Q

What normal tissues look like under a microscope

A

histology

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21
Q

What abnormal tissues look like under a microscope

A

histopathology

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22
Q

Spherical mass of cells

A

morula

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23
Q

the cells that end up on the outside and give rise to the epithelial layer

A

trophoblast

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24
Q

cells on the inside

A

inner cell mass

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25
Q

The layer of trophoblasts and the outer cells of the inner cell mass fuse to become the embryonic disc

A

epiblasts

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26
Q

inner cells of the inner cell mass

A

hypoblasts

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27
Q

What becomes ectoderm and mesoderm

A

cells from the embryonic disc

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28
Q

What becomes endoderm

A

hypoblasts

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29
Q

Stage where the three primary germ layers are formed

A

gastrulation

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30
Q

What does ectoderm become?

A

skin and associated glands, neuroectoderm

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31
Q

What does mesoderm become?

A

supportive tissues, circulatory system, urogenital

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32
Q

What does endoderm become?

A

lining of GI system, lining of respiratory system, lining of urinary bladder, liver, pancreas

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33
Q

Mass/swelling/nodule

A

tumor

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34
Q

New growth. Mutated cells allow for uncontrolled cell growth

A

neoplasia

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35
Q

benign tumors of epithelial cells

A

adenomas

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36
Q

benign tumor of mesenchymal cells

A

fibroma

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37
Q

Malignant tumor from epithelial cells

A

carcinoma

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38
Q

malignant tumor from mesenchymal cells

A

sarcoma

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39
Q

Midline indentation on the surface of the embryonic disc

A

primitive streak

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40
Q

Extends along the midline of the length of the embryo. Becomes IV discs

A

notochord

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41
Q

Ectoderm above the notochord. Invaginates to form the neural groove

A

Neuroectoderm

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42
Q

Failure of complete closure of the neural tube

A

spina bifida

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43
Q

Neuroectodermal cells that migrate laterally

A

neural crest cells

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44
Q

What do neural crest cells become?

A

melanocytes, Schwann cells, adrenal medulla cells, some nerve cells, autonomic ganglion

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45
Q

Failure of migration of neural crest cells

A

lethal white foal syndrome

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46
Q

Directly surrounds the embryo. Mechanical protection. Is lined by ectoderm and is continuous with the skin of the baby

A

amnion

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47
Q

outermost membrane the interdigitates with the lining of the uterus for the exchange of nutrients and waste

A

chorion

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48
Q

Cranial outpouching of fetal gut

A

yolk sac

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49
Q

Caudal outpouching of fetal gut

A

allantois

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50
Q

Common passageway for the intestinal and urinary tracts

A

cloaca

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51
Q

Urachus does not pinch off and close at birth. Urine leaks out, causes UTI

A

patent urachus

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52
Q

How does digestive system form?

A

begins as a tube of endoderm that runs the length of the embryo

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53
Q

When abdominal wall doesn’t close

A

umbilical hernia

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54
Q

Umbilical hernia complications

A

intestines get stuck through hole, lose their blood supply, intestinal bacteria enter bloodstream

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55
Q

Failure of the anal membrane to break down

A

atresia ani

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56
Q

How do liver and pancreas develop?

A

outgrowth of the proximal duodenum

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57
Q

Key functional element of an organ

A

parenchyma

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58
Q

Supportive framework

A

stroma

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59
Q

How do lungs develop?

A

outgrowth of the embryonic gut tube

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60
Q

How does urinary system develop

A
  1. ureteric buds arise from the urachus to become ureters

2. Ureteric buds induce formation of the metanephros from the adjacent mesoderm

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61
Q

Formation of cardiovascular system

A
  1. mesoderm aggregates into blood islands
  2. cells on the periphery flatten out to become squamous cells
  3. cells in the center become blood precursors
  4. This creates a series of paired tubes
  5. Fuse with each other
  6. Folding to make heart
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62
Q

Failure of complete division of the ventricles

A

ventricular septal defect

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63
Q

How fetal blood bypasses the liver and enters the caudal vena cava

A

ductus venosus

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64
Q

What the ductus venosus becomes

A

ligamentum venosum

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65
Q

How fetal blood from the caudal vena cava enters the right atrium and bypasses the lungs

A

foramen ovale

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66
Q

What does the foramen ovale become?

A

fossa ovalis

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67
Q

How fetal blood bypasses the lungs by going into the aorta

A

ductus arteriosis

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68
Q

What does the ductus arteriosis become?

A

ligamentum arteriosum

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69
Q

What part of mesoderm adjacent to the neurotube becomes skeletal muscle?

A

myotome

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70
Q

What part of mesoderm adjacent to the neurotube becomes dermis?

A

dermatome

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71
Q

What part of mesoderm adjacent to the neurotube becomes cartilage and bone?

A

sclerotome

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72
Q

What is the central NS derived from?

A

neuroectoderm

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73
Q

What is the peripheral NS derived from?

A

neural crest cells

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74
Q

Parts of a neuron

A
  1. dendrites
  2. nucleus
  3. axon
  4. cell body
  5. axon terminals
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75
Q

Receive signals from other tissues or nerves and relay them to the nucleus for processing

A

dendrites

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76
Q

signals head away from the nucleus on their way to other nerves or effector tissues

A

axons

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77
Q

Signal is passed to another neuron at synapse

A

axon terminal

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78
Q

Cells that surround and support neurons

A

neuroglia

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79
Q

Most numerous neuroglial cells in gray matter

A

atrocytes

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80
Q

parts of brain with a high density of neuronal cell bodies

A

gray matter

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81
Q

Where there are clusters of axons

A

white matter

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82
Q

Mesenchymal cells that have an immune function and are considered part of the macrophage-monocyte defense system

A

microglia

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83
Q

Cuboidal cells that line the ventricles of the brain and spinal canal

A

ependymal cells

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84
Q

most numerous neuroglial cell in white matter. Surround axons and form myelin

A

oligodendrocytes

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85
Q

Oligodendrocyte in peripheral NS

A

Schwann cell

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86
Q

Gaps between Schwann Cells

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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87
Q

Makes CSF

A

choroid plexus

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88
Q

Failure of reabsorption of CSF

A

hydrocephalus

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89
Q

Connective tissue layers that surround the central NS

A

Meninges

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90
Q

functions of meninges

A
  1. Provide support for the blood vessels that feed the brain and spinal cord
  2. keep the CSF close to the brain and spinal cord
  3. tether the brain and spinal cord to the overlying bone
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91
Q

Layers of meninges

A
  1. pia mater
  2. arachnoid mater
  3. dura mater
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92
Q

Thinnest layer of meninges

A

pia mater

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93
Q

Thickest layer of meninges, fused to the inside of the skull

A

dura mater

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94
Q

Cranial 2/3 of brain

A

cerebrum

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95
Q

where is gray and white matter in cerebrum

A

white matter inside, gray matter outside

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96
Q

Caudal 1/3 of the brain, tree of life

A

cerebellum

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97
Q

Layers of cerebellum

A
  1. molecular layer
  2. Purkinje cell layer
  3. Granular cell layer
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98
Q

Gray and white matter in spinal cord

A

gray matter inside, white matter outside

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99
Q

Collection of neurons on the PNS

A

ganglia

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100
Q

Collections of axons in the PNS

A

nerves

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101
Q

Collections of axons in the CNS

A

tracts

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102
Q

Sensory division of the Peripheral NS

A

afferent

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103
Q

motor division of PNS

A

efferent

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104
Q

From skin, retina, and membranous labyrinth

A

somatic afferent system

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105
Q

Somatic Afferent System

A

from skin, retina, and membranous labyrinth

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106
Q

from thoracic and abdominal organs, olfactory epithelium, and taste buds

A

visceral afferent system

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107
Q

Visceral Afferent System

A

from thoracic and abdominal organs, olfactory epithelium, and taste buds

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108
Q

to skeletal muscle, responsible for voluntary control

A

somatic efferent system

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109
Q

Somatic Efferent System

A

to skeletal muscle, responsible for voluntary control

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110
Q

to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

A

visceral efferent system

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111
Q

Visceral Efferent System

A

to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

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112
Q

Information flow in a neuron

A
  1. dendrites
  2. soma
  3. axon
  4. pre-synaptic terminal
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113
Q

Contents of the soma

A

nucleus, ribosomes, rER, golgi

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114
Q

Charge inside a neuron

A

negative

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115
Q

How is charge inside a neuron maintained

A

by Na K pump

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116
Q

More positive than resting membrane potential, inward flow of positive charge

A

Depolarized

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117
Q

More negative than resting membrane potential, outward flow of positive charge

A

Hyperpolarized

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118
Q

Post-synaptic potential that is more positive, closer to reaching action potential

A

excitatory post-synaptic potential. Influx of Na

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119
Q

Post-synaptic potential that is more negative, less likely for an action potential

A

inhibitory post-synaptic potential. Cl influx of K efflux

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120
Q

Summation from multiple dendrites

A

spatial summation

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121
Q

summation from same dendrite

A

temporal summation

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122
Q

Why do we need summation

A

because a single discharge of presynaptic terminal onto dendrite does not initiate action potential

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123
Q

Characteristics of an action potential

A
  1. fixed in amplitude
  2. uniform shape
  3. begins at an axon’s initial segment
  4. not graded
  5. rapidly spreads down axon
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124
Q

Stages of an action potential

A
  1. resting stage
  2. depolarization stage
  3. repolarization stage
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125
Q

Stage of an action potential where cell is polarized (negative inside cell)

A

resting stage

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126
Q

Stage of an action potential where depolarization above threshold triggers all or nothing response. Opening of voltage gated Na channels

A

depolarization stage

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127
Q

Stage of an action potential where Na channels close and voltage-gated K channels open. Rapid diffusion of K out of cell

A

repolarization stage

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128
Q

Depolarization Stage

A

depolarization above threshold triggers all or nothing response. Opening of voltage gated Na channels

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129
Q

Repolarization Stage

A

Na channels close and voltage-gated K channels open. Rapid diffusion of K out of cell

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130
Q

Characteristics of axonal conduction

A

axons carry electrical signals rapidly, efficiently, and reliably

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131
Q

How to increase conduction speed

A

larger diameter, myelination

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132
Q

Types of synapses

A

electrical and chemical

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133
Q

Type of synapse in the CNS and NMJ

A

chemical synapse

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134
Q

Type of synapse that is at smooth and cardiac muscle with gap junctions that allow free movement of ions

A

electrical synapse

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135
Q

Process of Transmission

A
  1. NT packaged into synaptic vesicles
  2. AP arrives at pre-synaptic terminal
  3. opening of voltage gated Ca channels
  4. Fusion of vesicles with membrane and release of NT
  5. NT diffuses across synapse and binds receptor
  6. Activation of postsynaptic cell
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136
Q

Neurotransmitter release

A
  1. presynaptic membrane contains voltage gated Ca channels
  2. AP at presynaptic terminal causes Ca channels to open
  3. Ca facilitates fusion of synaptic vesicles with membrane
  4. NT binds to receptor on postsynaptic cell
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137
Q

Consequences of NT binding

A

excitation or inhibition

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138
Q

Excitation

A

opening of Na channels. Decreased diffusion of Cl into cell or K out of cell. Changes in internal metabolism

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139
Q

Inhibition

A

opening of Cl channels. Increased diffusion of K out of cell. Enzymes that inhibit cellular metabolism

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140
Q

What is the excitatory neurotransmitter at the NMJ?

A

acetylcholine

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141
Q

Structure of Post synaptic membrane at NMJ

A

junctional folds or subneural clefts. Increase surface area

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142
Q

Breakdown of acetylcholine

A
  1. in the synapse acetylcholine is rapidly broken down by acetylcholinesterase
  2. Choline is transported back into the axon terminal and used to make more acertylcholine
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143
Q

Consequence at Nerve-Nerve Junction

A
  1. may be excitatory or inhibitory
  2. uses a variety of neurotransmitters
  3. can be bi-directional transmission
  4. Variety of receptor types
  5. AP often have to summate for post-synaptic AP
  6. Relies on Ca influx for neurotransmitter release
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144
Q

Consequences at NMJ

A
  1. NMJ produces excitation
  2. uses acetylcholine
  3. one-way transmission
  4. Nicotinic receptor
  5. AP leads to muscle contraction
  6. Relies on Ca influx for neurotransmitter release
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145
Q

What is the only similarity between nerve-nerve and NMJ?

A

relies on Ca influx for neurotransmitter release

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146
Q

Ultrafiltration of blood plasma modified by active transport

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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147
Q

Rate of production of CSF

A

constant

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148
Q

Direction of CSF Flow

A

cranial-caudal

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149
Q

Circulation of CSF

A
  1. lateral ventricles
  2. 3rd ventricle
  3. cerebral aqeuduct
  4. 4th ventricle
  5. subarachnoid space via lateral apertures
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150
Q

What determines the rate of CSF flow

A

the pulsation of blood in the choroid plexus

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151
Q

Where is CSF absorbed?

A

arachnoid villi

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152
Q

Fingerlike inward projections of arachnoid membrane

A

arachnoid villi

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153
Q

Functions of CSF

A
  1. physical protection
  2. chemical buffer
  3. pressure regulation
  4. source of nourishment/waste removal
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154
Q

Selective barrier between systemic circulation and the central nervous system

A

blood brain barrier

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155
Q

Components of the BBB

A
  1. nonfenestrated tight junctions of endothelial cells of the capillary wall
  2. Endothelial cells surrounded by thick basement membrane
  3. Layer of foot processes from astrocytes on the surface of the basement membrane
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156
Q

Highly permeable to BBB

A

water, CO2, O2, and most lipid soluble substances

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157
Q

Slightly permeable to BBB

A

electrolytes

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158
Q

Impermeable to BBB

A

plasma proteins, most non-lipid soluble, large organic molecules

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159
Q

Areas that lack a BBB

A

circumventricular organs- hypothalamus, area postrema, pineal gland

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160
Q

Coordinate autonomic nervous system with pituitary, sleep, and emotional activity

A

hypothalamus

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161
Q

in medulla oblongata, control vomiting

A

area postrema

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162
Q

Function not completely understood, regulates some hormones

A

pineal gland

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163
Q

Connective tissue is derived from which embryonic layer?

A

mesoderm

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164
Q

Functions of connective tissue

A
  1. structural support
  2. metabolic support
  3. thermoregulation
  4. immune defense
  5. tissue repair
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165
Q

Main types of connective tissue

A
  1. connective tissue proper
  2. embryonic connective tissue
  3. special types
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166
Q

Most common cell type in connective tissue. Spindle shaped with elongate nuclei and scant cytoplasm

A

fibroblast

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167
Q

Activated and modified fibroblasts that have contractile activity

A

myofibroblast

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168
Q

Cell types in connective tissue

A
  1. fibroblasts
  2. myofibroblasts
  3. adipocytes
  4. immune cells
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169
Q

Most common fiber in connective tissue, stains pink with routine stains

A

collagen

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170
Q

Function of collagen

A

provide tensile strength

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171
Q

Provides for stretch and recoil. Looks like collagen with routine stains

A

elastin

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172
Q

Link proteins in the cell membranes to the extracellular matrix

A

structural glycoproteins

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173
Q

Important structural glycoprotein

A

fibronectin

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174
Q

Semi-fluid gel that contains glycosaminoglycans

A

ground substance

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175
Q

Predominant glycosaminoglycan in ground substance

A

hyaluronic acid

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176
Q

Attract water to keep the fluidity of the ground substance

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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177
Q

Glycosaminoglycans associated with proteins

A

proteoglycans

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178
Q

Types of Connective Tissue Proper

A
  1. regular
  2. irregular
  3. reticular
  4. elastic
  5. adipose
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179
Q

Type of connective tissue where forces are in one direction. Closely packed, parallel bundles of collagen

A

Regular connective tissue proper

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180
Q

Where is regular connective tissue proper found?

A

tendons and ligaments

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181
Q

Type of connective tissue where forces are applied in multiple directions and collagen fibers course in all directions

A

Irregular connective tissue proper

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182
Q

Types of irregular connective tissue proper

A

loose and dense

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183
Q

More ground substance than fibers

A

loose irregular connective tissue proper

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184
Q

Where is loose irregular connective tissue proper found?

A

surrounding vessels and nerves, forms the mesentery

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185
Q

More fibers than ground substance

A

dense irregular connective tissue proper

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186
Q

Where is dense irregular connective tissue proper found?

A

deep layers of the skin, submucosa of intestines, organ capsules

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187
Q

Type of connective tissue where main fiber type is reticulin. Looks pink with routine stains. Form a branched network that support the cells in parenchymal organs

A

reticular connective tissue proper

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188
Q

Where is reticular connective tissue found?

A

spleen, lymph node, liver, kidney, bone marrow

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189
Q

predominate fiber type is elastin. Elastin is technically not a type of collagen. Can’t see elastin well with routine stains. Provides flexibility to tissues.

A

Elastic connective tissue

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190
Q

Where is elastic connective tissue found?

A

blood vessels, external ear, vocal chords, trachea, lung, skin

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191
Q

white fat

A

White Adipose Tissue

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192
Q

Functions of White Adipose Tissue

A
  1. energy storage
  2. shock absorption
  3. insulation/thermoregulation
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193
Q

Where is white adipose tissue found?

A
  1. within and around muscle
  2. subcutaneous
  3. falciform ligament
  4. mesentery
  5. around the kidneys
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194
Q

signet-ring shaped. Large central lipid droplet which compresses and peripheralizes the nucleus.

A

shape of white adipose cells

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195
Q

Function in thermoregulation (mitochondria produce heat instead of ATP). Cells contain multiple small lipid droplets and lots of mitochondria. The nuclei are plump and round. Lipid droplets will vary in size, even within a cell and within a group of brown fat cells. Found in neonates, rodents, and hibernating animals.

A

brown adipose tissue

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196
Q

Muscle functions

A
  1. voluntary control (locomotion, controlling bodily functions)
  2. involuntary control (heart beating, dilation or constriction of arteries, peristalsis in digestive tract, parturition)
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197
Q

Cell membrane of myofibers

A

sarcolemma

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198
Q

cytoplasm of myofibers

A

sarcoplasm

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199
Q

contains myofilaments which are anchored to the cell membrane. Actin (thin), myosin (thick), which are connected together and movement of them against each other pulls the cell membrane to move the cell.

A

sarcoplasm

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200
Q

Shape of Nucleus of myofibers

A

oval

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201
Q

Muscle is derived from which embryonic layer?

A

mesoderm

202
Q

Types of muscle

A

smooth, skeletal, cardiac

203
Q

Where is smooth muscle found?

A

digestive tract, blood vessels, urinary bladder, bronchi and bronchioles, iris, piloerecti muscles

204
Q

Increase in the size of cells

A

hypertrophy

205
Q

Decrease in the size of cells

A

Atrophy

206
Q

Reflex Arc Components

A
  1. sensory receptor
  2. sensory neuron
  3. synapse
  4. motor neuron
  5. target organ
207
Q

connection between incoming sensory neuron and 2nd neuron

A

syanpse

208
Q

translates stimulus into action potential. Ex: muscle stretch, pain, light

A

sensory receptor

209
Q

carries action potential from receptor to CNS

A

sensory neuron

210
Q

carries action potential from CNS to effector organ

A

motor neuron

211
Q

goes into nervous system and comes out at same level. Only involving small segment of CNS

A

segmental reflex

212
Q

Goes in one area, travel far back in nervous system, and then back out

A

intersegmental reflex

213
Q

sense of where your body is in space

A

Proprioception

214
Q

partial loss of voluntary motor function. The P has loss of strength but still some voluntary movement

A

Paresis

215
Q

P is weak but still able to walk

A

ambulatory paresis

216
Q

P has feeble voluntary movement but is not strong enough to walk on their own

A

Nonambulatory paresis

217
Q

wants to contract muscle, sends AP to lower motor neuron what to do

A

upper motor neuron

218
Q

Where is the LMN Located?

A

gray matter of spinal cord for limbs

219
Q

Resistance to muscle stretch

A

muscle tone

220
Q

Total loss of voluntary movment

A

paralysis

221
Q

Will a paralyzed patient still have spinal cord reflexes?

A

yes because spinal cord reflexes are not voluntary

222
Q

one limb is involved

A

mono

223
Q

both pelvic limbs

A

para

224
Q

all four limbs are affected

A

tetra

225
Q

Segments of the spinal cord

A 
8 cervical
13 thoracic
7 lumbar
3 sacral
5 caudal
226
Q

Cervical spinal cord

A

C1-C8

227
Q

Thoracic Spinal cord

A

T1-T13

228
Q

Lumbar spinal cord

A

L1-L7

229
Q

Regions of the spinal cord that innervate all the muscles of the limbs and therefore contain many more LMN cell bodies and are larger in diameter

A

Intumescences

230
Q

Where are the LMN for thoracic limbs?

A

C6-T2

231
Q

Where are the LMN for the pelvic limbs

A

L4-S3

232
Q

Where are the cell bodies for the UMN?

A

the brain

233
Q

Where are the axons for the UMN for the thoracic and pelvic limbs?

A

C1-C5

234
Q

Where are the axons for the UMN for pelvic limbs?

A

T3-L3

235
Q

Signs of a LMN Lesion

A
  1. paresis or paralysis
  2. weak to absent reflexes
  3. weak to absent muscle tone
  4. rapid, severe muscle atrophy
236
Q

Signs of an UMN lesion

A
  1. paresis or paralysis
  2. normal to exaggerated reflexes
  3. normal to increased muscle tone
  4. only mild muscle atrophy
237
Q

withdrawal reflex in one limb causes the other limb to extend while recumbent

A

crossed extensor reflex

238
Q

alternating extension and flexion of the stifle in response to a single tap of the patellar tendon

A

clonus of patellar reflex

239
Q

increased muscle tone. Characterized by increased tone in the extensor muscles such that the patient does not flex the limb normally during the protraction phase of the gait (when the limb is moving forward), resulting in a stiff stilted gait

A

Spasticity

240
Q

What does a focal spinal cord lesion cause?

A
  1. lower motor neuron deficits at the level of the lesion
  2. Upper motor neuron deficits caudal to the lesion
  3. sensory deficits at the level of and caudal to the lesion
241
Q

Forebrain/brainstem lesion

A

tetraparesis/tetraplegia with normal to increased reflexes and muscle tone in all limbs

242
Q

C1-C5 Lesion

A

tetraparesis/tetraplegia with normal to increased reflexes and muscle tone in all limbs

243
Q

C5-T2 Lesion

A

tetraparesis/tetraplegia with weak to abesnt reflexes and decreased muscle tone in the thoracic limbs and normal to increased reflexes and muscle tone in the pelvic limbs

244
Q

T3-L3 Lesion

A

Paraperesis/paraplegia with normal to increased reflexes and muscle tone in the pelvic limbs

245
Q

L4-S3 Lesion

A

paraparesis/paraplegia with decreased to absent reflexes and muscle tone in pelvic limbs

246
Q

Diffuse LMN Lesion

A

tetraparesis/tetraplegia with weak to absent reflexes and muscle tone in all limbs

247
Q

Reflexes generate alternating stepping movements in legs. In severe UMN lesion, you have a reflex stepping movement where pelvic limbs are spastic

A

Spinal Walking

248
Q

Upper Motor Neuron Systems

A
  1. corticospinal
  2. Rubrospinal
  3. vestibulospinal
  4. reticulospinal
249
Q

diffuse groups of neuronal cell bodies in the brainstem

A

Reticular Formation

250
Q

. From reticular formation to spinal cord. synapse on lower motor neurons in spinal cord. Maintain posture and muscle tone

A

Reticulospinal neuron system

251
Q

middle portion of brainstem. Facilitates flexion

A

pons

252
Q

Back portion of brainstem, facilitate extension

A

medulla

253
Q

Lesion in brain causes functional disruption in front of brain stem. Neurons in pons cannot facilitate flexion.

A

Decerebrate Posture

254
Q

from vestibular neurons to spinal cord. Vestibular nuclei are in the brainstem. LMN in spinal cord responsible for antigravity muscles

A

Vestibulospinal Neuron System

255
Q

From red nucleus in midbrain (front portion of brainstem). Input on more distal limb muscles for control of finer movement. Most important in nonprimates

A

Rubrospinal neuron systemq

256
Q

Which system is most important to nonprimates

A

rubrospinal

257
Q

from cerebral cortex to spinal cord. Motor cortex in cerebrum. Descending tract decussates. Spinal LMN involved in voluntary movement. Most important in primates. Lesion in this pathway causes total paralysis in primates. Only weakness in non-primates

A

Corticospinal

258
Q

Which system is most important in primates

A

Corticospinal

259
Q

What is the other name for the corticospinal tract

A

pyramidal tract

260
Q

corticospinal and corticobulbar

A

pyramidal tracts

261
Q

Reticulospinal, vestibulospinal, and rubrospinal

A

extrapyramidal tracts

262
Q

Functions of the Vestibular System

A
  1. Maintain upright posture

2. coordinate head movement with eye movement

263
Q

Parts of the inner ear

A

cochlea (hearing), utricle and saccule (linear acceleration/gravity), 3 semicircular canals (rotary acceleration)

264
Q

Hair Cells

A

movement of cilia converted into action potentials. Tonically active: bend one way increases activity, bend the other way decreases activity

265
Q

Semicircular canals

A

superior semicircular canal, lateral semicircular canal, and posterior semicircular canal. They are oriented in different planes- one vertical, one horizontal, and one back and forth

266
Q

detect tilt, gravity. And detect linear acceleration

A

Utricle and saccule

267
Q

Head Tilt

A

towards the lesion of a peripheral vestibular lesion

268
Q

Rotation Induced Eye Movement

A

eyes move in an equal and opposite direction (slow phase). Forebrain induces corrective movement toward direction (fast phase)

269
Q

Lesion Eye Movement

A

eyes move toward lesion (slow phase). Corrective phase away from lesion (fast phase)

270
Q

horizontal nystagmus, fast phase to the right. Left peripheral vestibular lesion

A

Spontaneous Nystagmus

271
Q

equal speed in each direction. Congenital abnormality in the visual pathways. Not a vestibular lesion

A

Pendular Nystagmus

272
Q

Cerebellar lesion head tilt

A

away from lesion

273
Q

What can vestibular lesions cause?

A

head tilt, leaning and falling (vestibular ataxia), abnormal eye movements

274
Q

What is another name for the autonomic nervous system?

A

visceral efferent system

275
Q

What are the two branches of the autonomic nervous system?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

276
Q

Autonomic Nervous System Characteristics

A

independent. Composed of efferent fibers forming a reflex pathway responding to visceral afferents.

277
Q

What are the actions of the ANS controlled by?

A

hypothalamus and reticular formation

278
Q

conserves and restores energy (rest and digest)

A

parasympathetic NS

279
Q

prepared the body for emergency situations (fight or flight)

A

sympathetic NS

280
Q

SNS and PNS activity

A

parasympathetic is continuously active

Sympathetic has low resting tone but is capable of bouts of great activity

281
Q

Anatomy of the ANS

A

is a 2 neuron system.
1. 1st neuron in cell body
2 . 2nd neuron on ganglion in the peripheral NS

282
Q

Where do preganglionic ANS nerve fibers leave the CNS?

A 
parasympathetic= craniosacral nervous system
Sympathetic= thoracolumbar nervous system
283
Q

Anatomy of the Preganglionic Cell Bodies

A

all pre-ganglionic cell bodies are in the lateral horn of T1-L3. Short axons run to sympathetic trunk ganglia. Form the sympathetic trunk

284
Q

some individual ganglion have fused together. Head supplied by spinal nerves from C8-T5. Part of the vagosympathetic trunk

A

Sympathetic trunk

285
Q

Targets of sympathetic nervous system

A
  1. dilate pupil
  2. constrict blood vessels in skin and gut
  3. bronchodilation
  4. increase heart rate and force of contraction
  5. piloerection
  6. decrease peristaltic activity and secretion in gut
  7. stimulation of secretion from sweat glands
  8. stimulate release of norepinephrine and epinephrine from adrenal medulla
  9. close the internal urethral sphincter
286
Q

Target Organs of Parasympathetic Fibers

A

pupil size via CN III (oculomotor nerve)
salivary glands via CN VII (facial n.) and IX (glossopharyngeal n.)
Lacrimal glands via CN VII (facial nerve)

287
Q

vagus nerve. Projects to parasympathetic ganglia in or close to thoracic and abdominal organs- in cardiac muscles to regulate heart rte, gastrointestinal tract to regulate motility and secretions, and lungs to regulate secretion

A

Cranial Nerve X

288
Q

Where do sacral preganglionic neurons exit the CNS?

A

via spinal nerves (S1-S3) and form the pelvic nerces to end in the pelvic viscera (rectum, bladder, genitalia)

289
Q

Target Organs of the Parasympathetic Fibers

A
  1. constriction of pupil
  2. accomodation of the lens
  3. bronchoconstriction
  4. decrease heart rate
  5. increase peristaltic activity and secretion in gut
  6. release of saliva
  7. contracts the bladder
  8. stimulates erection
290
Q

molecule released by a neuron at the level of the synapse following an action potential. Acts as a chemical messenger, binds to post-synaptic receptors, generates a change in function of the target cell

A

Neurotransmitter

291
Q

innervated by sympathetic fibers. Preganglionic neuron secreted acetylcholine. Postganglionic chromaffin cells acting like 2nd neurons secrete epinephrine (and a small amount of norepinephrine). The epinephrine is released in the blood circulation allowing diffuse systemic effects following sympathetic stimulation

A

adrenal medulla

292
Q

receptors to pressure, stretch, and chemical changes

A

General visceral afferent system

293
Q

receptors to taste and olfaction

A

specific visceral afferent system

294
Q

What only receives sympathetic innervation?

A

vessles

295
Q

Functions of the Sympathetic Nervous System

A
  1. response to an emergency situation
  2. response to physical or emotional stress
  3. secretion of epinephrine by adrenal glands prolongs the effect
  4. digestion and urination are inhibited
  5. helps with thermoregulation and allows pupils to dilate in low ambient light in less stressful situations
296
Q

Functions of the Parasympathetic Nervous System

A
  1. digestion and food absorption
  2. pupillary constriction
  3. decreases heart rate
  4. urination
  5. defecation
  6. lacrimation
297
Q

How to Increase Blood Pressure

A
  1. less stretching of the baroreceptors
  2. sympathetic stimulation
  3. peripheral vasoconstriction and increase vascular resistance
  4. increase blood pressure
298
Q

How to Decrease Blood Pressure

A
  1. increased blood pressure
  2. increased stretching of the baroreceptors
  3. inhibition of sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction
  4. decreases vascular resistance
  5. decreases blood pressure
299
Q

How does the Sympathetic NS increase Heart Rate?

A

by increasing SA node discharges, conduction of impulses, and contraction of the ventricles and atria

300
Q

What are the effects of an increase in BP and HR?

A

increased blood flow and oxygen supply to skeletal muscles

301
Q

Where is the sinoatrial node?

A

right atrium

302
Q

Where are the stretch receptors?

A

wall of the internal carotid artery and aorta

303
Q

How does the Parasympathetic NS decrease heart rate?

A

by decreasing SA node discharges

304
Q

What is pupillary constriction mediated by?

A

parasympathetic activation (pupillary light reflex pathway)

305
Q

What is pupillary dilation mediated by?

A

sympathetic activation (Horner’s Pathway)

306
Q

Pupil Constriction

A
  1. light into eyes
  2. goes through optic nerve to optic chiasm.
  3. crossover to pretectal nucleus
  4. to CN III
  5. Leaves prasympathetic nucleus to oculomotor nerve to constrict eyes
307
Q

Pupil Dilation

A
  1. Comes from hypothalamus
  2. follows tectotegmental spinal pathway to preganglionic sympathetic neurons (T1-T3)
  3. Through cervical spinal cord
  4. sympathetic nerve goes to smooth muscles of periorbital area, eyelids
308
Q

Micturition

A

ability to urinate

309
Q

Sympathetic Bladder Innervation

A

Hypogastric nerve

310
Q

Location of Hypogastric Nerve

A

L1-L4 in dog, L2-L5 in cat

311
Q

Receptors of Hypogastric Nerve

A
  1. beta receptor- stimulation relaxes detrusor muscle to store urine
  2. alpha receptor-stimulation constricts internal urethral sphincter (smooth muscle)
  3. sensory branches to perceive pain
312
Q

Parasympathetic Bladder Innervation

A

pelvic nerve

313
Q

Location of Pelvic Nerve

A

S1-S3

314
Q

Somatic Innervation of the Bladder

A

pudendal nerve

315
Q

Location of Pudendal Nerve

A

S1-S3

316
Q

Receptor to Pudendal Nerve

A

acetylcholine receptor. Simulation constricts external urethral sphincter. Sensory and motor to external urethral sphincter (skeletal muscle)

317
Q

Brainstem control of micturition

A

Pontine Micturition Center

318
Q

Where is the pontine micturition center?

A

reticular formation

319
Q

What are the functions of the pontine micturition center?

A
  1. storage and evacuation
  2. receives information from spinal cord regarding bladder
  3. sends information to the bladder via spinal cord (reticulospinal tracts)
320
Q

Conscious control of micturition

A

cerebrum

321
Q

Inhibitory influence on micturition

A

cerebellum

322
Q

Spinal cord control of micturition

A

reticulospinal tracts. Terminate in ventral horn gray matter. LMN to bladder

323
Q

To store urine

A
  1. facilitation of pudendal nerve to contract the external sphincter muscle
  2. facilitation of hypogastric nerve to alpha receptors to contract internal sphincter muscle and beta receptors to relax detrusor muscle further
  3. Inhibition of pelvic nerve to detrusor muscle to allow relaxation
324
Q

Process of Micturition

A
  1. inhibition of hypogastric nerve (beta receptors on detrusor, alpha receptors on internal sphincter m.)
  2. inhibition of pudendal nerve to relax external sphincter
  3. facilitation of pelvic nerve to contract detrusor
325
Q

Sympathetic Innervation of Defecation

A

input from hypogastric nerve and L1-L4/L5 spinal cord segments. Innervated descending colon, rectum, and internal anal sphincter- excitatory to internal anal sphincter but inhibitory to descending colon and rectum

326
Q

Parasympathetic Innervation of Defecation

A

input from pelvic nerve, S1-S3 spinal cord segments. Innervates descending colon and rectum

327
Q

Somatic Innervation of Defecation

A

Input from pudendal nerve and S1-S3 spinal cord segments. Innervates striated muscle of the external anal spincter

328
Q

Fecal Continence

A
  1. As colon fills, pressure stimulates sensory branch of pelvic nerve and that sensory information is sent to spinal cord, and subsequently to the brainstem (pontomedullary centers) and cerebral cortex
  2. Facilitation of the pudendal nerve causing contraction of the external anal sphincter
  3. Facilitation of the hypogastric nerve causing contraction of the internal anal sphincter
  4. inhibition of the pelvic nerve, causing relaxation of the colon and rectum
329
Q

Defecation Process

A
  1. Full colon results in stretch of colon and rectum, which causes ascending sensory information to travel via pelvic nerve to spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebrum
  2. signal to activate defecation is sent to brainstem, descends spinal cord via reticulospinal tracts
  3. inhibition of the hypogastric nerve causing relaxation of colon and internal anal sphincter
  4. inhibition of pudendal nerve causing relaxation o the external anal sphincter
  5. facilitation of pelvic nerve, causing contraction of the colon and rectum
330
Q

Loss of sympathetic supply to the eye

A

Horner’s Syndrome

331
Q

Classical Signs of Horner’s Syndrome

A
  1. miosis
  2. ptosis
  3. enophthalmos
  4. 3rd eyelid protrusion/rpolapse
  5. +/- associated with loss of vascular tone on affected side vasodilation (warm skin, sweating)
332
Q

Causes of Horner’s Syndrom

A

any lesion along the path of the sympathetic innervation to the eye; can also be idiopathic

333
Q

causes irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

A

organophosphate toxicity

334
Q

causes reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

A

carbamate toxicity

335
Q

Clinical signs of carbamate and organophosphate toxicity

A
  1. excessive parasympathetic stimulation (muscarinic crisis)
  2. bradycardia
  3. salivation
  4. lacrimation, miosis
  5. increase bronchial secretion
  6. urine dribbling
336
Q

small pupil

A

miosis

337
Q

Drooping of eyelid

A

ptosis

338
Q

Sunken eye

A

enopthalmos

339
Q

muscle twitching, tremors

A

nicotinic crisis

340
Q

anxiety, restlessness, seizures

A

central stimulation

341
Q

Function of the Cerebellum

A
  1. Does not initiate movement
  2. Coordinates movement, especially in relation to distance
  3. important in vestibular function
342
Q

Layers of the Cerebellum

A

molecular, purkinje, granular

343
Q

Pathways of Input

A
  1. Mossy fibers to granular layer

2. climbing fibers to molecular layer

344
Q

Pathways of Output

A

inhibitory, GABA

345
Q

Regions of the cerebellum

A
  1. spinocerebellum in middle
  2. Cerebrocerebellum on outside
  3. Vestibulocerebellum underneath
346
Q

proper execution of coordinated movement

A

Spinocerebellum

347
Q

planning coordinated, properly timed movement sequences

A

cerebrocerebellum

348
Q

Coordinated balance and eye movement

A

vestibulocerebellum

349
Q

Cerebellar Dysfunction

A
  1. Generalized ataxia
  2. Dysmetria, especially hypermetria
  3. intention tremor
  4. Vestibular Dysfunction
350
Q

abnormal movements related to distance

A

dysmetria

351
Q

movements bigger than they have to be

A

hypermetria

352
Q

tremor when they intend to carry out purposeful movement. Only seen with cerebellar lesion

A

intention tremor

353
Q

rhythmic oscillation of body part caused by alternating contractions of antagonistic muscles

A

tremor

354
Q

cerebellum doesn’t form normally in fetus. Born with cerebellum that is too small. Can be caused by panleukopenia in cats, parvo in dogs, viruses in cattle, or genetic disease in Arabian horses

A

Cerebellar hypoplasia

355
Q

composed of epithelium and internal elastic lamina. Endothelium is simple squamous composed in contact with blood.

A

Tunica intima

356
Q

mostly smooth muscle, thickness varies with type of vessel. May have elastic fibers, may have external elastic lamina.

A

tunica media

357
Q

outer layer. Connective tissue (collagen) that is blue on trichrome stain. Blends with and anchors to surrounding tissue.

A

tunica adventitia

358
Q

Components of the Tunica Adventitia

A

vasa vasorum, nervi vasorum, adipose tissue

359
Q

small vessels that supply large vessels

A

vasa vasorum

360
Q

nerve supply to large blood vessels.

A

nervi vasorum

361
Q

high pressure vessels that take blood away from the heart

A

arteries

362
Q

Types of Arteries

A

elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and arterioles

363
Q

aorta and largest branches. Tunica media contains lots of elastic fibers that are squiggly bright pink fibers. Cells between elastic fibers are smooth muscle

A

elastic arteries

364
Q

medium-sized arteries. Tunica media is muscular. Very common

A

muscular arteries

365
Q

less than 3 layers of smooth muscle cells. Small diameter. Innervated by sympathetic nervous system. Regulate blood flow into capillaries via capillary sphincter

A

arterioles

366
Q

consist of endothelium and basement membrane only. No muscle. almost every cell in the body has a capillary nearby. Erythrocytes are often single file

A

capillaries

367
Q

What happens at capillaries?

A

oxygen, nutrients, and carbon dioxide diffuse.

368
Q

What is the most numerous type of vessel?

A

capillary

369
Q

Types of Capillary

A

continuous, fenestrated, and discontinuous.

370
Q

How to identify type of capillary

A

by location

371
Q

complete basement membrane. Complete endothelial cells joined by tight junctions. Allows gas transport.

A

Continuous capillary

372
Q

Where are continuous capillaries found?

A

muscle, brain, lung

373
Q

complete basement membrane. Holes in endothelial cells allow for substantial transport of fluid, ions, hormones, and nutrients.

A

Fenestrated capillary

374
Q

Where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

instestine, glomeruli, endocrine glands

375
Q

incomplete basement membrane and endothelial cells. Large molecules and cells can pass through gaps

A

Discontinuous capillary

376
Q

Where are discontinuous capillaries found?

A

Liver (sinusoids), spleen (sinuses), lymph nodes (sinuses), bone marrow, placenta

377
Q

low pressure vessels that take blood towards the heart

A

Veins

378
Q

Types of Veins

A

venules, medium-sized veins, large veins

379
Q

thin walled, lack a tunica media.

A

venules

380
Q

How to differentiate a venule from a capillary

A

by diameter

381
Q

thin muscular tunica media. Valves for one-way flow. More irregularly shaped than artery.

A

medium-sized veins

382
Q

thin muscular tunica media. Valves to prevent blood from flowing back into capillaries.

A

large veins

383
Q

What is the venous partner to the arteriole?

A

venule

384
Q

What is the venous partner to the muscular artery?

A

medium-sized vein

385
Q

small mineralizations of the intima of the submucosal intestinal vessels in horses. Significance is unknown

A

intimal bodies

386
Q

What is the endocardium made of?

A

simple squamous epithelium

387
Q

malignant tumor of endothelial cells that tends to occur in the right atrium of dogs

A

hemangiosarcoma

388
Q

cardiac muscles- striated with central nuclei and branching myocytes. Purkinje fibers

A

myocardium

389
Q

heart bone in cattle

A

os cordis

390
Q

Has adipose tissue, coronary arteries, and is covered in mesothelium

A

epicardium

391
Q

How are flat mesothelial cells distinguished from endothelial cells?

A

by location

392
Q

thin collagen layer with mesothelium on both sides. may contain adipose tissue

A

pericardial sac

393
Q

Layers of the pericadrium

A

parietal and visceral layers

394
Q

contain lymph fluid and lymphocytes

A

lymphatic vessels

395
Q

thin-walled and have valves. Look similar to veins

A

lymphatic vessels

396
Q

Lymphatic Capillaries Direction of Flow

A

Fluid flows toward heart only

397
Q

Components of Lymphatic Capillaries

A

discontinuous endothelial cells and basement membrane

398
Q

Main function of lymphatic capillaries

A

constantly pick up fluid, protein, and cells from interstitium and return it to the circulatory system

399
Q

What uses lymphatic vessels to metastasize?

A

carcinomas

400
Q

Largest lymphatic vessel

A

thoracic duct (left lymphatic duct)

401
Q

component of cartilage. Live in lacunae. Secrete matrix.

A

chondrocytes

402
Q

Types of Cartilage Growth

A
  1. appositional

2. interstitial

403
Q

expansion from periphery. Continues throughout life. From perichondrium. Source of stem cells

A

appositional growth

404
Q

outer layer of cartilage responsible for appositional growth.

A

Perichondrium

405
Q

Does articular cartilage have a perichondrium?

A

no, so it cannot continue growing

406
Q

expansion from within. Matrix and cell numbers increase. result in isogenous group. Most important in young animals

A

Intersitial Growth

407
Q

multiple cells in a cluster, characteristic of interstitial growth

A

Isogenous Group

408
Q

Types of Cartilage

A
  1. Hyaline
  2. Elastic
  3. Fibrocartilage
409
Q

glassy. Found in fetal skeleton and articular surfaces of bone

A

Hyaline cartilage

410
Q

Locations of Hyaline Cartilage

A

respiratory tree- nose, larynx, trachea

411
Q

has elastic fibers between chondrocytes.

A

elastic cartilage

412
Q

How to visualize elastic fibers in elastic cartilage?

A

cannot see on routine stain, need elastin stain

413
Q

Locations of Elastic cartilage

A

pinnae, external ear canal

414
Q

cartilage mixed with dense collagen. Chondrocytes are in rows

A

Fibrocartilage

415
Q

Locations of Fibrocartilage

A

menisci, intervertebral discs, tendon and ligament attachments to bone

416
Q

Components of bone

A

cells and matrix

417
Q

Types of bone cells

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

418
Q

produce bone. Polygonal cells in rows along bone surface. Secrete and mineralize osteoid

A

Osteoblasts

419
Q

unmineralized bone

A

osteoid

420
Q

remove bone. Multinucleated giant cells of bone marrow origin. Bone removal occurs along brush or ruffled border.

A

Osteoclasts

421
Q

depression in bone formed by osteoclast

A

Howship’s Lacunae

422
Q

Types of Matrix

A

mineral and collagen

423
Q

the majority of the bone is mineral. Mineral gives bone its rigidity

A

mineral matrix

424
Q

polarized light required to see collagen. Gives bone its tensile strength.

A

collagen matrix

425
Q

Microscopic Organization of Bone Collagen

A

woven bone and lamellar bone

426
Q

immature bone. Formed during growth and repair. haphazardly arranged collagen fibers

A

woven bone

427
Q

mature bone. Parallel collagen fibers.

A

lamellar bone

428
Q

cylinders of concentric lamellae. Haversian canals at center of osteon. Blood vessels and nerves within canal. Stronger than woven bone

A

osteon

429
Q

Configuration of Bone

A

compact and cancellous

430
Q

solid bone with minimal marrow. Can be woven or lamellar. Cortex of adult bone is compact lamellar

A

compact bone

431
Q

Trabeculae arranged in a 3 dimensional lattice. More bone marrow spaces than compact bone. Can be woven or lamellar. Present inside bone medullary cavity

A

cancellous bone

432
Q

end of bone, covered with articular cartilage

A

epiphysis

433
Q

clear line. Growth plate made of cartilage only present in growing animals

A

physis

434
Q

cone-shaped transition between diaphysis and epiphysis

A

metaphysis

435
Q

cylindrical shaft of bone that contains nutrient foramen

A

diaphysis

436
Q

opening for blood vessel to come in in bone

A

nutrient foramne

437
Q

contains hematopoietic cells. Becomes increasingly fatty with age

A

marrow

438
Q

fibrous outer bony envelope. contains osteoprogenitor cells. Involved in repair and remodeling

A

Periosteum

439
Q

Where does osteosarcoma occur

A

in metaphysis

440
Q

inner bony envelope

A

endosteum

441
Q

Types of Ossification

A
  1. endochondral ossification

2. intramembranous ossification

442
Q

replacement of hyaline cartilage template by bone. Bone formation within cartilage

A

Endochondral Ossification

443
Q

Layers of Physis inEndochondral Ossification

A
  1. Resting chondrocytes
  2. Proliferating chondrocytes that look like stack of coins
  3. Hypertrophied chondrocytes. Cells are swollen. Weakest zone
444
Q

mineralized to form woven bone which covers remaining cartilage cores

A

osteoid

445
Q

Fractures in physis. Affect bone growth in young animals

A

Salter-Harris Fractures

446
Q

replacement of mesenchymal template by bone. Bone forms from condensed mesenchymal cells. Cartilage is not involved

A

Intramembranous Ossification

447
Q

What determines bone density?

A

weight bearing

448
Q

Types of Joints

A
  1. fibrous
  2. cartilaginous
  3. synovial
449
Q

bones connected by dense collagen

A

Fibrous joints

450
Q

bones connected by fibrocartilage

A

Cartilaginous Joints

451
Q

ends of bones covered by hyaline cartilage. Bones connected by ligaments (attached to bone by fibrocartilage) and fibrous joint capsule.

A

Synovial Joints

452
Q

Lines the inside of joint and inside of tendon sheaths.

A

Synovial Membrane

453
Q

produce synovial fluid

A

synoviocytes

454
Q

lubricates joint

A

synovial fluid

455
Q

Another name for muscle cells

A

muscle fibers

456
Q

outer membrane of the muscle fiber. Equivalent to the plasma membrane of a regular cell

A

sarcolemma

457
Q

contractile units that make up the myofibrils. Have discs at each end called Z disks

A

sarcomere

458
Q

protein that binds tropomyosin and actin. Has an affinity for calcium ions

A

troponin

459
Q

thin protein filaments that attach to the z discs and extend toward the center. Intertwines with tropomyosin. Troponin bound intermittently

A

actin

460
Q

thick filaments suspended among the actin. Resembles a golf club with globular heads that can bind ATP and actin

A

myosin

461
Q

surrounds the myofibrils in a reticulated network. Stores calcium during contraction

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

462
Q

invaginations of the sarcolemma that transverse the network of myofibrils similar to poking straws into a bowl of spaghetti noodles. Filled with extracellular fluid and aid with action potential depolarization

A

T Tubules

463
Q

Sarcomere Organization

A
  1. Z-line
  2. I-band
  3. A-band
  4. H-zone
  5. M-line
464
Q

forms periphery of sarcomere where thin actin filaments attach.

A

Z line

465
Q

light area, only actin

A

I band

466
Q

dark area with actin and myosin overlapping

A

A band

467
Q

center light zone, only myosin

A

H zone

468
Q

middle of myosin

A

M line

469
Q

Action Potential

A
  1. acetylcholine is released at the NMJ
  2. activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on sarcolemma
  3. Voltage gated Na ion channels open
  4. action potential spreads
  5. calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  6. contraction initiated
470
Q

Other name for milk fever

A

parturient paresis

471
Q

state of semi-paralysis seen in dairy cows after calving. Fewer calcium ions are available at the NMJ and less acetylcholine is released from the axon end. Less acetylcholine means less depolarization of the sarcolemma

A

milk fever

472
Q

Excitation-Contraction Coupling

A
  1. increased calcium in sarcoplasm
  2. additional calcium binds troponin
  3. tropomysin moves deeper in groove- exposes myosin binding site on actin
473
Q

shortening of muscle fibers without an action potential. Actin and myosin remain contracted because there is not enough ATP to release the myosin head

A

rigor mortis

474
Q

hypocalcemia following whelping. Dogs differ from cows at the NMJ in that calcium deficiency causes voltage-gated Ca and Na to become more permeable to sodium. The influx of sodium make the membrane less polarized (less negative) and this means less stimulus is needed for depolarization. The nerve fibers become more excitable and discharge repetitively. This results in tetanic muscle contractions.

A

Puerperal tetany

475
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fiber Types

A
  1. Type I slow twitch
  2. Type II fast twitch
  3. intermediate fibers with characteristics of I and II
476
Q

slow twitch. Darker color due to myoglobin. Rich blood supply. More mitochondria. More aerobic

A

Type I muscle fiber

477
Q

Fast twitch. Larger fibers with expansive sarcoplasmic reticulum. Fewer mitochondria, less extensive blood supply, fatigue quickly.

A

Type II muscle fibers

478
Q

intermediate between fast and slow twitch

A

Type IIA

479
Q

traditional fast twitch fibers

A

Type IIB

480
Q

one alpha motor neuron and all the striated muscle fibers it innervates. The muscle fibers are the same type and will contract at the same time.

A

motor unit

481
Q

increase the number of motor units firing at the same time

A

spatial summation

482
Q

increase the frequency of motor unit activation

A

temporal summation

483
Q

striated involuntary muscle cells. Have a single nucleus per cell and are connected to each other by junctions called intercalated discs

A

myocardial cells

484
Q

How many nuclei does a skeletal muscle cell have?

A

multiple

485
Q

Where are the nuclei in a skeletal muscle cell

A

at periphery

486
Q

How many nuclei are in a cardiac muscle cell?

A

1

487
Q

Where are the nuclei in cardiac muscle cells?

A

central

488
Q

no visible striations, no T tubules, less developed sarcoplasmic reticulum. Can receive input from more than one neuron, autonomic

A

smooth muscle cells

489
Q

contract independently. Each fiber innervated separately. Allows for fine movement. Found in the iris

A

Multiunit Smooth Muscle Cell

490
Q

communicate and contract in a coordinated manner. Important for intestinal, uterine, and urethral contractions

A

Single-Unit Smooth Muscle Cell

491
Q

Smooth Muscle Stimuli

A

mechanical pressure, blood pH, oxygen status, and extracellular ion concentration

492
Q

found along the nerve fiber of smooth muscle. Releases acetylcholine (parasympathetic) or norepinephrine (sympathetic) diffusely along a muscle fiber sheet

A

variscocities

493
Q

Smooth Muscle Contraction

A
  1. Intracellular concentrations of calcium increase when calcium enters the cell and is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  2. Calcium binds to calmodulin
  3. Activates myosin light chain kinase
  4. MLCK phosphorylates light chains in myosin heads and increases myosin ATPase activity
494
Q

What shape are smooth muscle cells

A

spindle-shaped with single nuclei packed closely

495
Q

Which muscles have striations?

A

skeletal and cardiac

496
Q

Contraction Mechanism of Skeletal Muscle

A

Ca binding to troponin C exposes myosin binding site on actin

497
Q

Contraction Mechanism of Cardiac Muscle

A

similar to skeletal muscle

498
Q

Contraction Mechanism of Smooth Muscle

A

Ca binds calmodulin, triggers MLCK mediated phosphorylation of myosin and actin binding

499
Q

measure the strength of muscle contraction. Used to determine if paresis or paralysis is from issues with the CNS, NMJ, motor neuron, or skeletal muscle

A

electryomyogram

500
Q

when myosin is bound to actin

A

cross-bridging

Physiology (16 decks)

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