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Anatomy 200 > Midterm #1 > Flashcards

Midterm #1 Flashcards

1
Q

4 basic tissues

A
  • epithelia
  • connective tissue
  • muscle
  • nerve
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2
Q

extracellular matrix secreted by the epithelial cells

A

basal lamina

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3
Q

basal lamina layer closest to epithelial layer

A

lamina lucida

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4
Q

basal lamina layer closest to connective tissue (coarse protein fibres giving layer its strength)

A

lamina densa

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5
Q

Epithelia tissue: single layer of flat, thin cells, lines mesothelium (body cavities) and endothelium

A

simple squamous epithelium

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6
Q

simple cuboidal epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • single layer; cell height equals width
  • functions: limited protection; secretion/ absorption
  • found in glands/ ducts
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7
Q

simple columnar epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • single layer; cells taller than they are wide
  • functions: provides protection**, secretion, absorption
  • stomach, intestines, fallopian tubes, excretory ducts (gall bladder)
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8
Q

stratified squamous epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • outermost layer = squamous cells (stacked)
  • functions: physical protection against mechanical stresses (anus, esophagus, vagina)/ chemical attack (mouth)
  • forms outer layer of skin
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9
Q

protein filament inside cells to resist water and toughen abrasion

A

keratin

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10
Q

stratified cuboidal epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • 2 to 3 layers of cells
  • functions: protection, secretion, absorption
  • relatively rare but common lining for sweat + mammary glands
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11
Q

stratified columnar epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • multiple layers
  • function: PROTECTION
  • relatively rare; found in large excretory ducts and portions of pharynx, urethra, anus
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12
Q

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • nuclei are at multiple levels
  • all cells touch basal lamina but not all may reach luminal surface
  • very tight junctions
  • functions: protection, secretion
  • found in respiratory systems, male reproductive tract
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13
Q

transitional epithelium

aesthetic [shape of cell], function, location

A
  • multiple layers; each cell is their own shape –> outermost cells large + dome-shaped
  • functions: stretch [extension]/ change shape significantly without coming apart; then recoils [“transitional’]
  • found ONLY in urinary tract
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14
Q

Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the ______.

A

blood

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15
Q

Exocrine glands release secretions through ______ onto ________ surfaces.

A

ducts; epithelial

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16
Q

Formation of glands

think: tissue types

A

Growth of epithelial cells into underlying connective tissue

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17
Q

3 mechanisms of secretion

A
  • merocrine
  • apocrine
  • holocrine
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18
Q

merocrine (process)

A

normal exoctosis

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19
Q

apocrine (process)

A

apical surface pinched off, residual cytoplasm breaks down –> all granules released as big “package”

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20
Q

holocrine (process)

A

primary cell divides, produces secondary daughter cells; mature cell dies, becoming secretory product –> entire cell released

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21
Q

Connective tissue has relatively few cells and an abundance of ___________ _______.

A

extracellular matrix

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22
Q

3 types of fibres found in connective tissue extracellular matrix

A
  • collagen
  • reticular
  • elastic
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23
Q

Classification of connective tissue based on 3 factors:

A
  • density of fibres
  • types of fibres
  • preponderance (quantity/ importance) of specific cell type
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24
Q

dense regular connective tissue

function, direction of fibres

A
  • fibres aligned in ONE direction

- forms tendons, ligaments

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25
Q

4 types of membranes

A
  • serous
  • mucous
  • cutaneous
  • synovial
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26
Q

3 types of muscle types

A
  • cardiac
  • smooth
  • skeletal
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27
Q

Skeletal muscle (cell shape, nuclei type)

A
  • long, cylindrical

- multi-nucleated

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28
Q 
Smooth muscle 
(cell shape, nuclei type, type of contraction, location found)
A
  • spindle-shaped
  • single nucleus
  • slow but SUSTAINED contraction
  • forms walls of blood vessels + hollow organs
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29
Q

Cardiac muscle (cell shape, nuclei type, type of contraction)

A
  • short and branched cells
  • uni-nucleated
  • specialized for continuous, rhythmic contraction
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30
Q

Nervous tissue (function; dendrite to axon ratio)

A
  • transmit electrical signals via ionic conduction
  • may have 2 - very many dendrites
  • each cell only has ONE axon
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31
Q

3 types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow

A
  • RBC
  • WBC
  • platelets
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32
Q

Bone is composed of:

A
  • 70% calcium phosphate crystals (inorganic)

- 30% collagen fibres (organic)

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33
Q

Calcium phosphate crystals

A
  • inorganic
  • very strong, inflexible –> gives bones STRENGTH
  • ability to resist compressive stress
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34
Q

collagen fibres (bone)

A
  • organic
  • tough + flexible
  • ability to resist stretching, bending, twisting stresses
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35
Q

Bone _______ under the influence of forces.

A

remodels (change shape/ size)

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36
Q

What components are found inside the medullary cavity of a bone?

A
  • adipose tissue (fat cells)

- red marrow (mature + immature RBC and WBC + platelets)

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37
Q

This surface exists on the outer surface of a bone and is made of fibrous tissue. It can peel off in thin layers and envelops a bone everywhere except at the surface of joints.

A

Periosteum

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38
Q

This surface lines the medullary cavity and is usually one cell thick

A

Endosteum

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39
Q

4 types of bone cells

A
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclasts
  • osteoprogenitor cells
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40
Q

Ossification that occurs for limbs or weight-bearing bones

A

endochondral ossification

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41
Q

Ossification that occurs for flat bones (2 diff names)

A

intramembranous (dermal) ossification

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42
Q

Organic components of bone matrix, produced by osteoblasts and osteocytes

A

osteoid

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43
Q

Cartilage cell name (referred to in endochondral ossification)

A

chondrocyte

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44
Q

5 types of skeletal anatomy elements (bone types?) are:

A
  • long bone
  • flat bone
  • pneumatized bone
  • irregular bone
  • short bone
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45
Q

osteoporosis

A

The loss of bone material ([in]organic) –> unable to withstand as much stress as a normal bone.

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46
Q

3 types of joints

A
  • fibrous
  • cartilaginous
  • synovial
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47
Q

What organ does the sphenoid bone specifically protect?

A

Pituitary gland (controls growth, development, functioning of other endocrine glands)

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48
Q

Name the 5 vertebral regions (top to bottom)

A
  • cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
  • sacral
  • coccygeal
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49
Q

Is an intervertebral joint a primary or secondary cartilaginous joint?

A

secondary

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50
Q 
Zygapophyseal joint 
(where is this found, what type of joint is it, what movement does it allow)
A
  • joint between two adjacent articular processes (in vertebrae)
  • synovial joint
  • moveable in diff planes
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51
Q

Transverse foramen (function)

A

transmits the vertebral artery (going up to the brain)

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52
Q

The nucleus pulposus (gelatinous nucleus at core of intervertebral disc joint) is good at dissipating what kind of stress?

A

compressive stress

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53
Q

What is the most mobile part of the vertebral column?

A

Joints at C1 (atlas) and C2 (axis)

  • atlanto-occipital joint (up and down flexion)
  • atlanto-axial joint (side to side)
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54
Q

In which part of the vertebral column is the costovertebral joint found?

A

thoracic region

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55
Q

The front of your ribs are connected to the sternum via _______ cartilage (allows elevation of ribs during respiration).

A

costal

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56
Q 
Interosseous membrane 
(location, function)
A
  • connects radius and ulna // tibia and fibula

- keeps bones tightly connected with one another so they won’t spread

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57
Q

A glenohumeral joint is an example of a __________ joint.

A

ball and socket joint (allows movement in multiple planes)

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58
Q

The joint between the trochlea and trochlea notch (humer-ulna) is a _______ joint. What movement does this facilitate?

A
  • hinge

- flexion/ extension of forearm

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59
Q

The joint between the capitulum and radial head (humero-radial) is a ________ joint. What movement does this facilitate?

A
  • condylar
  • pronation/ supination
  • also axial rotation of radius
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60
Q

The joint between the radius and scaphoid is a _______ joint. What movement does this facilitate?

A
  • condylar
  • flexion/ extension of wrist
  • ad/abduction of hand
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61
Q

The joint between the trapezium and 1st metacarpal bone is a ________ joint. Where is this found?

A
  • saddle-shaped

- thumb! –> allows for opposition of thumb

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62
Q

Female pelvic bones are wider in diameter at the pelvic _______ and _______ than male bones.

A

inlet and outlet

  • female (>100 degrees)
  • male (<90)
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63
Q

What is the function of the acetabulum?

A

The socket where the hip joint forms (ball and socket)

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64
Q

What is the name of the midline where the 2 pubic joints fuse together? What type of joint is this?

A
  • pubic symphysis

- secondary cartilaginous joint (immovable)

65
Q

The capsule of the hip joint is reinforced anteriorly by the __________ ligament (important for upright posture).

A

iliofemoral

66
Q

The knee joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. This is the most complicated _______ (diff - more general term) joint of the body.

A
  • hinge

- synovial

67
Q

The joint between the tibia and talus (ankle) is a _________ joint. What movement does it allow (specific to ankle)?

A
  • hinge

- plantarflexion/ dorsiflexion (toes pointing up + down)

68
Q

The joint between the talus and navicular (foot) is a _______ joint. What movement does it allow (of the foot)?

A
  • condylar

- inversion/ eversion of foot (R/L movement)

69
Q

Smooth muscle (makes up internal organs such as the gut, uterus, etc) is controlled by the _____________ nervous system.

A

autonomous (involuntary)

70
Q

4 basic properties of muscle

A
  • excitability (respond to stimulus)
  • contractibility (ability to shorten and pull)
  • extensibility (ability to contract over diff lengths)
  • elasticity (regain original length)
71
Q

Skeletal muscles are __________ structures (under voluntary control).

A

somatic

72
Q

Tissue can be _______ (voluntary control) or _________ (have zero control).

A
  • somatic

- visceral

73
Q

Skeletal muscles are innervated by ______ nerves or ________ nerves.

A
  • cranial

- spinal

74
Q

Skeletal muscles are contractile organs that attach ________ or ________ onto bones.

A
  • directly

- indirectly

75
Q

The contraction of skeletal muscles produces ________ of the body.
(muscle contraction = produces force = ___________)

A

movement

76
Q

Skeletal muscles produces movement at various joints of the skeleton, via _______ or muscle fibres attaching onto _______.

A
  • tendons

- bones

77
Q

Skeletal muscles maintain ________ and body position. Even at rest, these muscles contract to _________ joints of the body.

A
  • posture

- stabilize

78
Q

Skeletal muscles support _______ tissues (i.e. abdominal wall and pelvic floor muscles support _______).

A
  • soft

- viscera

79
Q

Skeletal muscles called ________ (muscle around aperture contracting to close hole) regulate _________ (opening) (i.e. regulate ingestion, defecation, urination, etc).

A
  • sphincters

- orifices

80
Q

Skeletal muscles maintain body ___________ (contraction of the muscle generates _______; i.e. when you’re exercising, you sweat).

A
  • temperature

- heat

81
Q

Muscle (organ) > muscle _________ > muscle fibre

A

fascicle

82
Q 
Muscle (epimysium)
Muscle fascicle (\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_)
Muscle fibre (endomysium)
A

perimysium

83
Q

Muscle fibre is filled with __________ (muscles responsible for skeletal muscle fibre contraction).

A

myofibril

84
Q

A myofibril is composed of 10,000 smaller units known as a __________.

A

sarcomere

85
Q

The most basic contractile unit of muscle is a ________.

A

sarcomere

86
Q

Sarcomeres are arranged in an interlocking manner called ___________.

A

interdigitation

87
Q

Thick filaments that lie in the centre of the sarcomere are called ________.

A

myosin

88
Q

Thin filaments that lie at either end of the sarcomere are called _________.

A

actin

89
Q

Upon depolarization, ______ ions are released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, creating cross-bridging between ______ and ______ filaments. Additionally, myosin heads will pivot towards the __-line.

A
  • Ca2+
  • actin/ myosin
  • M-line
90
Q

During contraction, the width of the __-band and __-band decrease while the width of the __-band remains constant.

A
  • H-band
  • I-band
  • A-band (constant)
91
Q

Each muscle cell (fibre) is innervated by a _____ _____ (nerve cell).

A

motor neuron

92
Q

When the neuron in a muscle cell fires, it signals the muscle to ______.

A

contract (shortening of the muscle cell)

93
Q

Muscle contraction is an ____ or ____ phenomenon.

A
  • all or none

- -> the muscle cell either contracts fully, or it does not contract at all.

94
Q

All the muscle cells controlled by a single motor neuron constitute a ______ unit (nerve cell + muscle cell = _____ unit)

A

motor

95
Q

1 motor neuron can innervate _____ (give range) muscle fibres.

A

1 - 300 –> varies depending on muscle of the body

96
Q

The amount of muscle tension produced depends upon the number of motor units that are _______ by the neuron.

A

stimulated

i.e. 1 neuron firing into 300 muscle cells = produces much more force

97
Q

The advantage of a small motor unit (1 motor neuron into 1 motor cell) is that it has _____ motor skills

A

fine

i.e. extraocular muscles in the eyeball - fine, deliberate movements

98
Q

What are the 2 types of skeletal muscle fibres?

A
  • slow (red)

- fast (white)

99
Q

Why are slow muscle fibres red?

A

Numerous (high density) mitochondria and myoglobin, more extensive network of capillaries

100
Q

Are slow fibres easily fatigued or fatigue resistant?

A

Resistant to fatigue – > but less powerful contractions

101
Q

In slow fibres, ATP is produced by ________ metabolism. Meanwhile, in fast fibres, ATP is produced by _______ glycolysis.

A
  • aerobic

- anaerobic

102
Q

Are fast fibres easily fatigued or fatigue resistant?

A

Fatigue rapidly but have powerful contractions

103
Q

Muscle fascicle organization types (4)

A
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • circular
  • pennate
104
Q

What is the most common type of muscle fascicle organization?

A

parallel

105
Q

In parallel muscle organization, all fibres are oriented in _______ direction. During contraction, the muscle gets shorter and the ______ gets wider.

A
  • one (the same)
  • belly

(i.e. rectus abdominis [abs], biceps brachii [arm])

106
Q

________ muscles do not exert as much force because not all fascicles pull in the same direction.

A

Convergent

i.e. trapezius [shoulder], pectoralis major

107
Q

_________ muscle fibres are arranged concentrically around an opening or recess, forming sphincters. The contraction of the muscle reduces the _______ of the opening.

A
  • circular
  • diameter

(i.e. orbicularis oris [mouth])

108
Q

_______ muscle fibres can be arranged in one/ two/ a multitude of directions.

A

Pennate

think: like a feather

109
Q

Pennate muscle fascicles form an _____ angle relative to its tendon.

A

oblique

110
Q

Pennate muscles contain ______ muscle fibres than parallel muscles of the same size.

A

more

generates more force

111
Q

___pennate = muscle fibres on one side of the tendon

i.e. extensor digitorum [forearm - extends fingers]

A

Uni

112
Q

___pennate = muscle fibres on both sides of the tendon

i.e. rectus femoris [thigh]

A

Bi

113
Q

___pennate = tendon branches within the muscle

i.e. deltoid [shoulder]

A

Multi

114
Q

Skeletal muscles are named according to (5 factors)

A
  • shape
  • where they are (in the body)
  • attachment sites
  • relationship to other muscles (profundus = deep)
  • action/ function (what they do - i.e. flexor = flexion movement)
115
Q

Skeletal muscles pulls a bone towards another –> a movement produced at a _____.

A

joint

116
Q

Skeletal muscles can _______ a joint, so other muscles can act and produce movement.

–> muscles used in conjunction with other muscles

A

stabilize

i.e. wrist extensors stabilize the wrist joint when finger flexors contract to firmly grasp an object

117
Q

Every muscle beings at an ______ (attachment to stationary bone), ends at an ______ (attachment to moveable bone) and contracts to produce a specific ______.

A
  • origin
  • insertion
  • action
118
Q

A muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement (i.e. flexion at the elbow)

A

agonist (aka prime mover)

119
Q

Muscles whose actions oppose that of the agonist (i.e. agonist produces flexion, this muscle will produce extension - tension of this muscle will be adjusted to control the speed of the movement and ensure its smoothness)

A

antagonist

(i.e. biceps brachii [agonist] contracts to to produce flexion of elbow while the tricep brachii [antagonist] extends to stabilize the elbow)

120
Q

When this muscle contracts, it assists the prime mover (agonist) in performing its action. This muscle may provide additional pull near the insertion (most useful at start of pull, where power of agonist is relatively low) or stabilize the point of origin.

A

Synergist

121
Q

3 classes of levers within the body

A
  • first class
  • second class
  • third class
122
Q 
1st class lever: 
Describe the locations of the three factors of a lever (fulcrum, weight, force).  Give an example.
A

Fulcrum (Fc) is located BETWEEN muscle force (F) and the weight (W).

(i.e. occipital condyle joint w/ vertebral column - tilting movement of head)

123
Q

What are the pros/ cons of a 1st class lever?

A

Pros: increases range + speed of movement
Cons: requires larger force

124
Q

2nd class lever:
Describe the locations of the three factors (F, Fc, W).
Give an example.

A

Weight (W) is BETWEEN muscle force (F) and fulcrum (Fc).

i.e. fulcrum - balls of feet, weight - ankle, force - heels upwards

125
Q

What are the pros/ cons of a 2nd class lever?

A

Pros: requires less force
Cons: less distance + speed

  • direction of movement remains unchanged
126
Q 
3rd class lever: 
Describe the locations of the three factors (F, Fc, W). Give an example.
A

F is applied BETWEEN Fc and W. Most common lever in body

i.e. bicep curls - Fc = elbow, F = biceps [above elbow], W = dumbell in hand

127
Q

What are the pros/ cons of a 3rd class lever?

A

Pros: increases speed and distance
Cons: requires more force

128
Q

The 3 muscles that elevate the mandible for mastication are:

A
  • temporalis
  • masseter
  • medial pterygoid
129
Q

The muscle that depresses the mandible/ allows it to move side to side is the ________ __________.

A

lateral pterygoid

130
Q

The centre of rotation is the ______ point within anything that moves. Give an example.

A
  • immobile

- i.e. centre of rotation of the mandible is NOT at the condyle. It is in fact, lower, by the ramus.

131
Q

Damage to the facial nerve (CN VII) causes the eye and lip to sag on one side, in addition to drooling and the buccinator muscle being unable to pink cheeks. This is known as _____ _____.

A

Bell’s palsy

132
Q

The muscle that tenses and facilitates suction within the cheeks is called the _________.

A

buccinator

133
Q

The ________ muscle tenses the skin of the neck.

A

platysma

134
Q

These 3 muscles facilitates constriction of the pharynx (push air/ fluid/ food into their respective pipes [larynx, esophagus]).

A
  • superior constrictor
  • middle constrictor
  • inferior constrictor
135
Q

These 3 neck muscles are injured when you suffer from a whiplash injury (overstretch the muscle).

A
  • scalene muscles (neck flexor)
  • longus capitis (neck flexor, rotator)
  • longus colli (neck flexor, rotator)
136
Q

The longissimus, spinalis, and iliocostalis are extensor muscles of the back (vital to maintaining an upright posture). What is the term used for all three muscles as a group?

A

Erector spinae

137
Q

These muscles interconnect with, make delicate adjustments in the positions of individual vertebrae and stabilize the vertebrae. If injured, these can be an aggressive source of back pain.

A

Transversospinal group

138
Q

How many different layers are there of intercostal muscles?

A

3 (most superficial are elevators of ribs during respiration [inhalation phase])

139
Q

During inhalation, the contraction of intercostal muscles produces ________ of the ribs, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity.

A

elevation

ribs move up on the sides and in the front

140
Q

How many layers of the abdominal muscles are there?

A

3 – > external/ internal obliques, 1 transverse (deepest)

141
Q

Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities?

A

diaphragm

142
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by the _______ nerve.

A

phrenic nerve

C3 - C5 levels

143
Q

During inhalation, the crus will pull (contraction) on the ________ tendon on the diaphragm, bringing it down to increase the volume for respiration.

A

central

144
Q

All perineal muscles are innervated by the _______ nerve.

A

pudendal nerve

145
Q

All muscles of limbs are innervated by the _______ nerves. These intertwine to form a _______.

A
  • spinal

- plexus

146
Q

The upper limbs are innervated by branches of the _________ (C5 to T1) plexus, EXCEPT trapezius.

A

brachial

147
Q

The lower limbs are innervated by branches of the ______-______ plexus (L2 - S3).

A

lombo-sacral

148
Q

Name the 4 major muscle groups crossing the upper limb joints.

A
  • shoulder (pectoral girdle)
  • arm
  • forearm
  • hand
149
Q

Upper limb joints are designed for _______, rather than stability. Reaching, throwing, grasping, and manipulating are all imp functional roles of the upper limb.

A

mobility

150
Q

This muscle attaches to the back of the head and along the spinous processes of ALL cervical and thoracic regions. It can facilitate multiple actions depending on its fibre orientation (elevate, retract, depression of scapula).

A

TRAPEZIUS

151
Q

The levator scapulae ________ (action) the scapula.

Hint: assists the upper fibres of the trapezius

A

elevates

152
Q

When rhomboids contract, the shoulder blades move toward the midline, causing the scapula to _______ (action).

A

retract

153
Q

The serratus anterior attaches from the ribs and onto the anterior vertebral border of the scapula. This major muscle is used for ____________ (action) of the scapula.

A

protraction

154
Q

What is the term given for two muscles acting in synergy - contracting at the same time to assist one another to create a combined ACTION (no muscles can do on their own)?

A

force couple

155
Q

What is the acronym for the rotator cuff muscles?

A

S upraspinatus
I nfraspinatus
T eres minor/ major
S ubscapularis

156
Q

Which joint is super easy to dislocate within the human body? Which muscles prevent this from occurring?

A

Glenohumeral joint (shoulder) - tendons of SITS muscles reinforce the joint

157
Q

What syndrome causes the 9 flexor muscle tendons in your wrist to inflame, compressing the median nerve (sensory and motor nerve)?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

158
Q

The 4 major muscle groups crossing the lower limb joints are:

A
  • hip (pelvic girdle)
  • thigh
  • leg
  • foot
159
Q

Lower limb joints are designed for ________ . Locomotion, posture and balance are imp functional roles of the lower limb (for propulsion).

A

stability

Anatomy 200 (11 decks)

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