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Step 1 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are pili made of?

A

gylcoprotein

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2
Q

what are spores made of?

A

keratin-like coat, peptidoglycan, dipicolinic acid

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3
Q

what do capsules protect against?

A

phagocytosis

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4
Q

what helps bacteria adhere to surfaces?

what is is made from?

A

glycocalyx

loose polysaccheride layer

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5
Q

where are endotoxins found? and give two examples

A

outer leaflet of outer membrane

LPS, LOS

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6
Q

what is in the inner leaflet of the outer membrane?

A

phospholipids

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7
Q

what is in the periplasm?

A

peptidoglycan (in g-ve)

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8
Q

lipoteichoic acid: found, does

A

g+ve, induces TNF and IL-1

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9
Q

which bacteria have no cell wall?

A

mycoplasma, ureaplasma

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10
Q

Pathogens which don’t stain well

A

Treponema, leptospira, mycobacteria, mycoplasma, legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, ehrlichia, anaplasma
Really Can’t TELL My Bacteria Apart

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11
Q

what is low in chlamydia’s peptidoglycn?

A

muramic acid

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12
Q

responsive to Giemsa stain

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsia, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium

Certain Bugs Really Try My Patience

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13
Q

What does Periodic acid- Schiff staining stain?

A

glycogen

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14
Q

What does Ziehl-Neelsen stain

+ve result

A

mycolic acid in cell wall

nocardia, protozoa, cryptosporidium

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15
Q

India ink +ve

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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16
Q

Silver stain +ve

A

fungi, legionella, H.pylori

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17
Q

FTA-ABS

A

syphilis

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18
Q

Thayer-Martin agar for

what does it contain?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea, Neisseria meningitidis

Vancomycin, Trimethoprim, Colistin, Nystatin (Very Typically Cultures Neisseria)

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19
Q

MacConkey agar

A

pH indicator used for E.coli (Acid)
Enterobacter, klebsiella, serratia
macConKEES

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20
Q

Chocolate agar for, needs

A

H.influenzae

NAD and hematin

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21
Q

Bordet-Gengou agar for

contains

A

B pertussis

blood, charcoal, potato, antibiotic

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22
Q

Tellurite agar, Löffler medium

A

C. diptheriae (black colony)

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23
Q

Löwenstein-Jensen agar

A

M. tuberculosis

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24
Q

Eaton agar for, requires

A

M pneumoniae

Cholesterol

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25
Q

Eosin-methylene blue agar for, +ve =

A

E.coli, green metalic sheen

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26
Q

charcoal yeast agar for, buffers

A

Legionella

cysteine, iron

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27
Q

Sabouraud agar

A

Fungi

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28
Q

What abx are ineffective against anaerobes?

A

aminoglycosides

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29
Q

Obligate Intracellular bacteria

A

Rickettsia, chlamydia, coxiella

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30
Q

Faculative intracellular bacteria

A

Salmonella, neisseria (neutrophils), brucella, mycobacterium, listeria, francisella, legionella, yersinia pestis
My Faculative Bugs Need Your SeLLs

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31
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A

Please SHINE my SKiS

Strep. pneumoniae, h.flu, N.meningitidis, E.coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella pneumoniae, group b Strep

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32
Q

Urease positive organisms

A

Pee CHUNKSS

Proteus, cryptococcus, H pylori, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S epidermis, S saprophyticus

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33
Q

catalase

A

degrades H2O2 –> H2O + O2

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34
Q

catalase +ve organisms

A

Nocardia, pseudomonas, listeria, aspergillus, candida, e.coli, staph, serratia, B cepacia, H pylori
Nice PLACES See Horrible Bubbles

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35
Q

yellow sulfur granules

A

actinomyces israeli

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36
Q

blue green pigment

A

p. aeruginosa

pyocyanin

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37
Q

red pigment

A

serratia marcescens

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38
Q

biofilm bacteria

A

s.Epidermis, Viridians streptococci, p.Aeruginosa, H.flu (uncapsulated)
HAVE a biofilm

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39
Q

Protein A

A

binds Fc of IgG
prevents opsonisation and phagocytosis
s.Aureas

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40
Q

IgA protease

A

S pneumoniae, H flu (B), Neisseria

Respiratory*

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41
Q

M protein

A

prevents phagocytosis
group A strep
acute rhumatic fever

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42
Q

type III secretion system is, expressed by

A

delivery of toxin from bacteria to eukaryocyte

pseudomonas, salmonella, shigella, e.coli

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43
Q

ability to take up naked DNA known as, exhibited by

A

transformation

S pneumoniae, H flu, Neisseria

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44
Q

Hfr

A

plasmid being incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA

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45
Q

transposition

A

bit that can jump DNA from plasmid to chromosome

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46
Q

spore forming bacteria

A

bacillus anthraxus, cerus, clostrdium

121 degreesC for 15 minutes

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47
Q

biochemistry of exotoxins

A

polypeptides

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48
Q

which types of toxins are worse?

A

exotoxins

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49
Q

what do endotoxins cause and how?

A

Fever, shock, DIC

induce TNF, IL-1, IL-6

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50
Q

typical bacteria producing endotoxins

A

g-ve rods

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51
Q

bacteria producing exotoxins

A

tetanus, botulism, diptheria

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52
Q

diptheria toxin

A

inactive EF-2

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53
Q

exotoxin A causes, produced by

A

inactive EF-2, superantigen

pseudomonas aeuriginosa, strep pyogenes

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54
Q

shiga toxin

A

inactivates 60S

removes adenine from rRNA

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55
Q

shiga-like toxin caused by

A

enterohemorrhagic e.coli

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56
Q

difference between shiga and shiga like toxin

A

shiga-like does not invade host cells

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57
Q

heat-labile toxin caused by, action

A

enterototoxigenic e.coli
overactives cAMP in gut
watery diarrhoea

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58
Q

heat-stable toxin caused by, action

A

enterotoxigenic e.coli

overactivates cGMP in gut

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59
Q

edema toxin caused by, does

A

anthrax

cAMP increase

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60
Q

cholera toxin

A

overactivates cAMP in gut

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61
Q

pertussis toxin

A

disables Gi and increases cAMP

stops phagocytosis

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62
Q

tetanospasmin

A

cleave SNARE, prevents inhibitory GABA release

spastic paralysis

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63
Q

botulinum toxin

A

cleave SNARE, prevents ACh stimulatory release

flaccid paralysis

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64
Q

alpha toxin from, does

A

clostridium prefringens

phospholipase degrading tissue - gas gangrene

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65
Q

double zone of hemolysis

A

gas gangrene - clostridium prefringens

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66
Q

streptolysin O from, does

A

s. pyogenes

degrades cell membranes

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67
Q

TSST-1 from does

A

S.aureas

superantigen - release of IL-1, IL-2, INF-y, TNF-a

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68
Q

what does endotoxin do?

A

mpg activation, complement activation, tissue factor activation (coagulation cascade)

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69
Q

novobiocin

A

saprophyticus is resistant

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70
Q

nacitracin

A

group B strep are resistant

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71
Q

partial reduction of Hb on agar without clearing

A

a-hemolytic

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72
Q

prolonged nasal packing, AST, ALT, bilirubin raised, fever

A

TSS - s.aureas

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73
Q

ate 2-6 hours ago, diarrhoea, emesis

A

s.aureas food poisoning

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74
Q

lancet shaped diplococci

A

strep pneumoniae

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75
Q

most common cause of meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis

A

strep pneumoniae

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76
Q

rusty sputum

A

strep pneumoniae

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77
Q

sepsis + sickle cell splenectomy

A

strep pneumoniae

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78
Q

second most common female UTI organism

A

staph saphrophticus

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79
Q

viridians strep cause

A

dental caries (mutans, mitis), subacute IE (sanguinis)

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80
Q

pyrrolidonyl arylamidase positive

A

strep pyogenes

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81
Q

recent strep pyogenes infection

A

ASO titre

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82
Q

baby infections

A

group B strep

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83
Q

CAMP factor

A

group B strep

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84
Q

hippurate +ve PYR-ve

A

group B strep

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85
Q

strep gallolyticus

A

s bovis type I

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86
Q

d-glutamate

A

anthraxus

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87
Q

ulcer with black eschar

A

cutaneous anthrax

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88
Q

woolsorter’s disease

A

anthrax

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89
Q

d&v 1-5 hrs, GI pain 8-18hrs

A

bacillus cerus

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90
Q

botulinum injestion from

A

preformed toxin, honey

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91
Q

c diff toxins

A

A - binds brush boarder

B - actin depolymerisation

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92
Q

RF c diff

A

clindamycin, ampicillin, PPI use

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93
Q

Rx c diff

A

metronidazole, vancomycin

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94
Q

pseudomembranous pharyngitis, see, caused by

A

greyish white membrane, c.diptheriae

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95
Q

blue and red granules

A

c.diptheriae

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96
Q

elek test +ve

A

c. diptheriae

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97
Q

unpasturized dairy, cold deli meat: specifically careful

A

listeria

crosses placenta

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98
Q

rocket tails

A

listeria monocytogens

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99
Q

nocardia found in

Rx

A

soil

sulfonamides

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100
Q

mimic of TB

A

Nocardia

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101
Q

false negative PPD in TB

A

sarcoidosis

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102
Q

Langerhans giant cells

A

secondary TB

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103
Q

mycobacterium avium found in, Rx

A

AIDS

azithromycin

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104
Q

mycobacterium scrofluaceum causes

A

cervical lymphadenitis in children

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105
Q

what stops phagocytes in TB?

A

sulfatides

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106
Q

lepromatous disease

A

communicable, diffuse, low cell mediated defense, Th2 response
dangerous one

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107
Q

tuberculoid leprosy disease

A

hairless skin plaques, Th1 response

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108
Q

Rx leprosy

A

dapsone + rifampicin + clofazimine (lepromatous)

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109
Q

maltose fermentation

A

meningococci

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110
Q

fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome caused by

A

gonococci

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111
Q

Rx gonococci

A

erythromycin

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112
Q

Rx meningococci

A

ceftriaxone, penicillin

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113
Q

H flu causes

A

epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia

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114
Q

Rx legionella

A

macrolide, quinolone

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115
Q

pontiac fever: features, from

A

mild flu-like; legionella

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116
Q

Pseudomonas is associated with

A

Pneumonia, Sepsis, Ecthyma gangernosum, UTIs, Diabetes, Osteomyelitis, Mucoid polysaccheride capsule, Otitis externa, Nosocomial infection, exotoxin A, Skin infection

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117
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

pseudomonas

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118
Q

Rx pseudomonas

A 
CAMPFIRE
Carbapenems
Aminoglycosides
Monobactams
Polymyxins
Fluroquinolones
trIRd and 4th generation cephalosporins
Extended-spectrum penicillins
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119
Q

immunocompromised, rapidly spreading necrotic lesion

A

ecthyma gangrenosum

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120
Q

EIEC

A

invasive dysentery

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121
Q

ETEC

A

Travelers’ diarrhoea

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122
Q

EPEC

A

pediatric diarrhoea

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123
Q

EHEC

A

hemorrhage, hamburgers, HUS

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124
Q

currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella

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125
Q

4 A’s of klebsiella

A

Aspiration pneumoniae, abscess in lung and liver, Alcoholics, diAbetics

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126
Q

bloody diarrhoea

A

campylobacter

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127
Q

invade via M cells of Peyer’s patches

A

salmonella, shigella

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128
Q

pet faeces, contaminated milk or pork

A

yersinia

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129
Q

Rx H pylori

A

amoxicillin, clarythromycin, PPI

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130
Q

spirochetes

A

borrelia, leptospira, treponema

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131
Q

flu like, jaundice, photophobia, drank stream water, surfing in Hawaii

A

leptospirosis

stream water has animal urine

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132
Q

Weil disease

A

leptospira - severe

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133
Q

borrelia burgadorferi

A

Lyme disease

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134
Q

where is lyme disease found?

A

mice

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135
Q

features of lyme disease

A 
FACE
facial nerve palsy
arthritis
cardiac block
erythema migrans
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136
Q

treponema pallidum

A

syphilis

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137
Q

maculopapular rash, condylomata lata, lymphadenopathy, patchy hair loss

A

secondary syphilis

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138
Q

gummas - are, seen in

A

chronic granulomas, tertiary syphilis

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139
Q

baby: deaf, notched teeth, linear scars at mouth angle, saddle nose

A

syphilis

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140
Q

false positive VDRL

A

Viral infection (EBV, hepatitis)
Drugs
RF
Lupus and leprosy

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141
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

flu like syndrome after abx due to killed bacteria releasing toxins

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142
Q

anaplasma spp.

A

ixodes ticks

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143
Q

borrelia recurrentis

A

louse

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144
Q

coxiella burnetti

A

cattle, sheep

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145
Q

ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

amblyomma (Lone star tick)

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146
Q

farncisella tularensis

A

ticks, rabbits, deer flies

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147
Q

pasteurella multocida causes, transmitted by

A

cellulitis, osteomyelitis

cat/ dog bite

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148
Q

rickettsia prowazekii causes, transmitted by

A

thypus, human lice

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149
Q

rickettsia rickettsii causes, transmitted by

A 
rocky mountain spotted fever
dog tick (dermacentor)
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150
Q

rickettsia typhi

A

fleas

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151
Q

salmonella spp

A

reptiles, poultry

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152
Q

yersinia pestis causes, transmitted by

A

plague, fleas

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153
Q

gardnerella vaginalis causes, Rx

A

bacterial vaginosis

metronidazole, clindamycin

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154
Q

Rx rickettsia/ vector disease

A

doxycycline

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155
Q

north carolina, rash on wrists and ankles

A

rocky moutain spotted fever

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156
Q

truncal rash, spreading out

A

typhus

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157
Q

mulberry inclusions in cytoplasm of monocytes

A

ehrlichoiosis

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158
Q

granulocytes with morulae

A

anaplasmosis

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159
Q

Rx chlamydia

A

azithromycin or doxycycline

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160
Q

chlamydia trachomatis A, B, C

A

chronic, blindness (africa)

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161
Q

chlamydia trachomatis D-K

A

urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia

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162
Q

chlamydia trachomatis L1, L2, L3: causes, Rx

A

STI symptoms

doxycycline

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163
Q

Local fungal infection

A

fluconazole

itraconazole

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164
Q

systemic fungal infection

A

amphotericin B

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165
Q

where are histoplasma found?

A

inside mpgs

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166
Q

histoplasmosis from

A

bird or bat droppings

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167
Q

where is histoplasmosis found?

A

mississippi and ohio river valleys

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168
Q

fungal infection cause inflammatory lung disease

A

blastomycosis

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169
Q

broad-base budding

what does it form?

A

blastomycosis

granulomatous nodules

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170
Q

where do you find blastomycosis?

A

eastern US

Central america

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171
Q

where can blastomycosis disseminate to?

A

bone and skin

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172
Q

where do you find coccidioidomycosis?

A

southwestern US - think deserts

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173
Q

what does coccidioidomycosis cause?

transmission

A

pneumonia, meningitis

dust particles - think deserts

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174
Q

erythema nodosum, arthralgia, hiking in arizona

A

coccidiodomycosis

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175
Q

paracoccidioidomycosis found in

A

Latin america

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176
Q

budding yeast with captain’s wheel formation

A

paracoccidioidomycosis

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177
Q

branching spetate hyphae on KOH

A

tinea

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178
Q

t.capitis

A

scalp

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179
Q

t.corporis

A

ringworm - can have central clearing

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180
Q

t.cruris

A

inguinal, no central clearing

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181
Q

t.pedis types

A

interdigital
moccasin
vesicular

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182
Q

t.unguium

A

nails

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183
Q

malassezia spp.

A

t.versicolor (pityriasis)

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184
Q

spghetti and meatballs on microscopy

A

malassezia spp. - t.versicolor

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185
Q

dimorphic pseudohyphae and budding - 20C

germ tubes 37C

A

candida

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186
Q

Rx vaginal candida

A

topical azole

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187
Q

Rx oral/oesophageal candida

A

nystatin, fluconazole, capsofungin

188
Q

systemic candida

A

fluconazole, caspofungin, amphotericin B

189
Q

septate hyphae branching at an acute angle

A

aspergillus

190
Q

conidia in radiating chains at end of conidiophore

A

aspergillus

191
Q

toxins from aspergillus + association

A

aflatoxins

hepatocellular carcinoma

192
Q

5-10um, narrow budding (looks like a dandilion)

A

cryptococcus neoformans

193
Q

cryptococcus found in, transmission

A

soil, pidgeon droppings

inhaled

194
Q

sabouraud agar

A

cryptococcus

195
Q

latex agglutination, india ink clear halo, mucucarmine stain

A

cryptococcus

196
Q

soap bubble lesions in brain

A

cryptococcus

197
Q

irregular, broat nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles

A

mucor and rhizopus spp

198
Q

who gets mucormycosis?

A

DKA, neutropenics

199
Q

where does mucor spp proliferate?

A

vessel walls

200
Q

headache, facial pain, black necrotic eschar on face

A

mucormycosis

201
Q

Rx mucormycosis

A

amphotericin B, surgical debridement

202
Q

bilateral ground glass on CXR

A

p.jirovecii

203
Q

disc shaped yeast on methenamine silver stain

A

p.jirovecii

204
Q

Rx p.jirovecci

A

pentamidine, dapsone, atovaquone, TMP-SMX

205
Q

dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast, branching hyphae, rosettes of conidia

A

sporothrix schenckii - sporotrichosis

206
Q

Rx sporotrichosis

A

itraconazole, potassium iodide

207
Q

Multinucleated trophozoites or cysts in fatty stools

A

Giardia

208
Q

Rx giardia

A

metronidazole

209
Q

entamoeba histolytica

A

amebiasis

210
Q

anchovy paste liver abscess
flask shaped ulcer
is, other symptoms

A

amebiasis

bloody diarrhoea

211
Q

trophozoites/ cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool

A

amebiasis

212
Q

Rx amebiasis

A

metronidazole, iodoquinol (for asymptomatic)

213
Q

severe diarrhoea in AIDS

A

cryptosporidium

214
Q

oocysts on acid-fast stain

A

cryptosporidium

215
Q

Rx cryptosporidium

A

nitazoxanide (immunocompetent only)

216
Q

chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

A

toxoplasmosa gondii

217
Q

ring enhancing lesions on MRI

A

toxoplasmosa gondii

218
Q

Rx toxoplasmosa gondii

A

sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

219
Q

meningioencephalitis - protozoa

A

naegleria fowleri

220
Q

swimming in freshwater lake - encephalitis

A

naegleria fowleri

221
Q

trypanosoma brucei

Rx

A

african sleeping sickness
suramin - blood
melarsoprol - CNS

222
Q

maltese cross

A

babesia

223
Q

Rx babesia

A

atovaquone + azithromycin

224
Q

fever + hemolytic anaemia + tick bite
is
what US are?

A

babesiosis

northeastern

225
Q

Fever pattern
malaeriae
vivax/ovale
falciparum

A

72 hours
48 hours
irregular

226
Q

trophozoite ring in RBC

A

malaria

227
Q

Schuffner stippling

A

malaria vivax/ovale

228
Q

mechanism chloroquine malaria

A

blocks plasmodium heme polymerase

229
Q

vivax/ovale Rx

A

add primaquine for hypnozoites

230
Q

trypanosoma cruzi

A

chagas disease

231
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus

A

chagas

232
Q

Romaña sign

A

unilateral periorbital swelling - Chagas

233
Q

Reduviid bug

A

chagas

234
Q

Rx chagas

A

benznidazole, nifurtimox

235
Q

types of leishmeniasis

A

visceral - spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia

cutaneous - skin ulcers

236
Q

leishmeniasis vector

A

sandfly

237
Q

mpg containing amastigotes

A

leishmeniasis

238
Q

Rx leishmeniasis

A

amphotericin B, sodium stibogluconate

239
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas vaginalis

240
Q

Rx vaginitis

A

metronidazole

241
Q

Ingested nematodes

A

Enterobius, Ascaris, Toxocara, Trichinella

EATT

242
Q

Cutaneous nematodes

A

Strongyloides (threadworm), Ancylostoma (hookworm), Necator

SANd

243
Q

Bite nematodes

A

Loa loa, Onchocerca colvulus, Wuchereria bancrofti

LOW

244
Q

type I eosinophil reaction to helminths

A

neutralisation of histamine and leukotrienes

245
Q

type II eosinophil reaction to helminths

A

IgE attach and release cytotoxins

246
Q

Rx intestinal nematodes

A

Bendazoles

247
Q

hookworm Rx

A

bendazoles, pyrantel pamoate

248
Q

nematode mimicing peptic ulcer

A

threadworm

249
Q

anaemia, foot rash, walked on beach

A

hookworm

250
Q

fever, vomiting, nausea, periorbital edema, myalgia, undercooked meat

A

trichinella spiralis

251
Q

toxocara canis affects

A

heart, liver, CNS

252
Q

myocarditis, seizure

A

toxocara canis

253
Q

river blindness caused by, vector

Rx

A

onchocerca volvulus
blackfly
ivermectin

254
Q

conjunctival worm also see, called, from

A

swelling in skin, deer/horse/mango fly, Loa loa

255
Q

Rx Loa loa

A

diethylcarbamazine

256
Q

Rx wuchereria

A

diethylcarbamazine

257
Q

Rx tapeworm

in CNS

A

praziquantel

add albendazole

258
Q

megaloblastic anaemia, raw freshwater fish

A

diphyllobothrium latum

259
Q

Rx diphyllobothrium latum

A

Praziquantel

260
Q

dog faeces, hydatid cysts in liver

A

echinococcus granulosus

261
Q

types of schistosoma

A

lateral spine - mansoni

terminal spine - haematobium

262
Q

chronic schistomiasis

A

squamous cell carcinoma of bladder

pulmonary htn

263
Q

Rx schistomiasis

A

praziquantel

264
Q

pigmented gallstones + biliary inflammation

from

A

clonorchis sinensis

undercooked fish

265
Q

Rx clonorchis sinensis

A

Praziquantel

266
Q

microcytic anaemia

A

ancylostoma, necator

267
Q

enterobius vermicularis

A

pinworm

268
Q

where do scabies live?

A

stratum corneum

269
Q

transmission of scabies

A

fomites

270
Q

Rx scabies

A

permethrin cream

271
Q

what can lice transmit?

A

rickettsia prowazekii (typhus), borrelia recurrentis (relapsing fever), bartonella quintana (trench fever)

272
Q

Rx lice

A

pyrethroids, malathion, ivermectin lotion

273
Q

recombination

A

exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of base sequences

274
Q

reassortment

A

viruses with segmented genomes exchanging genetic material

275
Q

complementation

A

one virus supports another (HBV and HDV)

276
Q

Phenotypic mixing

A

simultaneous infection with 2 viruses - one virus coats another

277
Q

subunit vaccines

A

HBV, HPV

278
Q

killed vaccines

A

rabies, influenza, polio, HAV

279
Q

live attenuated vaccines

A

smallpox, yellow fever, rotavirus, chickenpox, sabin polio, MMR, influenza (nasal)

280
Q

why is parvovirus different?

A

only DNA virus which isn’t double stranded

281
Q

which DNA viruses are circular?

A

papilloma, polyoma, hepadnavirus

282
Q

Which is the only ssRNA virus?

A

reoviridae

283
Q

what are the positive stranded RNA viruses?

A

Retro, toga, flavi, corona, hepe, calici, picorna

I went to a retro toga party where I drank flavoured corona and hippi california pickles

284
Q

which naked virus genomes are infective?

A

dsDNA, +ve strand ssRNA

285
Q

which naked virus genomes are not infective?

A

-ve ssRNA, dsRNA

286
Q

where does the poxvirus replicate?

A

cytoplasm

287
Q

where do influenza and retroviruses replicate?

A

nucleus

288
Q

where does herpesviruses envelope come from

A

nuclear membrane

289
Q

where do envelopes generally come from?

A

plasma membrane

290
Q

which viruses are naked?

A

papilloma, adenovirus, parvovirus, polyomavirus, calcicivirus, picornavirus, reovirus, hepevirus
naked Hippie CPR (RNA) Phone APP (DNA)

291
Q

generally DNA virus shape

A

icosahedral

292
Q

DNA viruses think

A

HAPPY (starting letters)

293
Q

mollescum contagiosum

A

pox virus

294
Q

acute hemorrhagic cystitis, febrile pharyngitis, pneumonia, pink eye

A

adenovirus

295
Q

JC virus

A

polyomavirus

296
Q

JC virus causes

A

kidney damage in transplant patients, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV

297
Q

virus causing aplastic sickle cell crisis

A

parvovirus B19

298
Q

virus causing hydrops fetalis

A

parvovirus B19

299
Q

VZV is a form of …virus

causes

A

human herpes virus 3

chickenpox, shingles, encephalitis, pneumonia

300
Q

which virus causes mono?

A

Epstein-Barr - human herpes-4

301
Q

mono risk

A

splenic rupture

302
Q

how does EBV infect cells?

A

CD21 on B cells

see reactive cytotoxic T cells

303
Q

genital herpes

A

HSV-2

304
Q

herpes viral meningitis

A

HSV-2

305
Q

herpes virus sporadic encephalitis

affects

A

HSV-1

temporal lobe

306
Q

herpes conjunctivitis

A

HSV-1

307
Q

high fever, diffuse maccular rash called, caused by

A

roseola infantum

HHV-6/7

308
Q

herpes cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma\HHV-8

309
Q

Tzanck test for, see

A

multinucleated giant cells

HSV, VZV

310
Q

CMV receptors

A

integrins (heparan sulfate)

311
Q

Rabies receptors

A

Nicotinic AChR

312
Q

Rhinovirus receptors

A

ICAM-1

313
Q

HIV receptors

A

CD4, CXCR4, CCR5

314
Q

capsid symmetry SS+ve linear RNA

A

icosahedral

315
Q

ss-ve linear RNA

A

helical

316
Q

calicivirus

A

norovirus

317
Q

falvivirus

A

HCV, yellow fever, dengue, st.louis encephalitis, west nile virus

318
Q

tagavirus

A

rubella, equine encephalitis

319
Q

picornavirus

A

polio, echo, rhino, coxackie, HAV

320
Q

retroviruses

A

HIV, HTLV

321
Q

coronavirus

A

common cold, SARS, MERS

322
Q

orthomyxociruses

A

influenza

323
Q

paramyxoviruses

A

parainfluenza (croup), RSV, mesales, mumps

324
Q

rhabdovirus

A

rabies

325
Q

filovirus

A

ebola, marburg

326
Q

arenaviruses

A

LCMV, lassa fever encehpalitis

327
Q

bunyaviruses

A

california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, cirmean-congo hemorrhagic fever, hantavirus

328
Q

detla virus

A

HDV

329
Q

negative strandad viruses

A

Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication

Arena, Bunya, Paramyxo, orthomyxo, filo, rhabdo

330
Q

segmented viruses

A

BOAR

Bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo

331
Q

RNA transplated into one long polypeptide which is cleaved

A

picornavirus

332
Q

picornavirus spread

A

feco-oral apart from rhinovirus

333
Q

black vomit, jaundice

A

yellow fevre

334
Q

councilman bodies are, found in

A

eosinophilic apoptotic globules
yellow fever
hep A

335
Q

acute diarrhoea, lots at nursery

A

rotavirus

336
Q

diarrhoea, low K and low Na

A

rotavirus

337
Q

8-segment genome

A

influenza

338
Q

genetic shift

A

pandemics

resorts genomic segments

339
Q

genetic drift

A

epidemic random mutations in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes

340
Q

confluent rash starting on face, fever, post auricular arthralgia

A

Rubella

341
Q

blueberry muffin

A

Congenital rubella
toxoplasma gondii
cytomegalovirus

342
Q

seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, steeple sign on XR

A

croup

343
Q

plaivizumab

A

paramyxovirus protein F

344
Q

3 Cs of measles

A

Cough
Coryza (rhinitis)
Conjunctivitis

345
Q

Koplik spots are

A

red spots with blue white centre in mouth

measles

346
Q

Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells

A

measles

347
Q

what can help with measles morbidity?

A

vitamin A

348
Q

bullet-shaped virus, negri bodies

A

rabies virus

349
Q

where are negri bodies foun?

A

purkinje cells of cerebellum and hippocampus

350
Q

fever, agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia, hypersalivation

A

rabies

351
Q

ebola target cells

A

endothelium, phagocytes, hepatocytes

352
Q

incubation ebola

A

21 days

353
Q

hepatitis virus families

A

Picorna, Hepadna, Fliavi, Delta, Hepadna

Please Have Fudge Donuts Here

354
Q

transmission hepA-E

A

A, E - fecooral
B - blood, baby making, birthing
C - blood

355
Q

hepatitis HCC risk

A

Hep C

B not as much

356
Q

ground glass liver

A

HBV

357
Q

lymphoid aggregates, macrovesicular steatosis

A

Hep C

358
Q

Patchy necrosis

A

HEV

359
Q

anti-HAV (IgG)

IgM

A

acute

prior/ vaccine

360
Q

HBsAg

anti-HBsAg

A

infected

immune

361
Q

HBcAg

anti-HBcAg

A 
\+IgM = acute/recent
\+IgG = prior exposure/chronic
362
Q

HBeAg

anti-HBeAg

A

active replication and transmissible

low trnasmission

363
Q

only anti-HBs

A

immunisation

364
Q

gp120

A

attaches to CD$

365
Q

gp41

A

fusion and entry

366
Q

p24 + p17

A

capsid and matrix proteins

367
Q

pol (HIV)

A

reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, integrase

368
Q

what mutation is protective in HIV?

A

CCR5

369
Q

how to dgx HIV

A

rule out then rule in tests

370
Q

when do you get false results in HIV test?

A

1-2 months after infection

babies just born, as will have mother’s anti-gp120

371
Q

prion disease

A

a helix –> b pleated sheet

372
Q

what causes prion disease?

A

CJD
BSE - animal meat
Kuru - from cannibalism

373
Q

what does prion disease cause?

A

spongiform encephalopathy, dementia, ataxia, death

374
Q

reheated meat

A

c. prefringens

375
Q

meat, mayo, custard

A

s. aureas

376
Q

v. parahaemolyticus, v.vulnificus

A

contaminated seafood

377
Q

Bloody diarrhoea

A

campylobacter, e.histolytica, EHec, EIec, salmonella, shigella, yersinia

378
Q

Watery diarrhoea

A

c diff, c prefringens, ETec, protozoa, cholera, viruses

379
Q

CF pneumonia

A

pseudomonas, s.aureas, s.pneumoniae, burkholderia cepacia

380
Q

post viral pneumonia

A

s.pneumoniae, s.aureas, Hflu

381
Q

top 2 causes of pneumonia in 18-40yrs

A

mycoplasma

chlamydiae pneumoniae

382
Q

neonatal meningitis

A

group B strep, e coli, listeria

383
Q

most common cause of meningitis

A

s.pneumoniae

384
Q

most common cause of teenage meningitis

A

n.meningitidis

385
Q

meningitis unimmunised child

A

haem. influenzae

386
Q

CSF: low sugar, high protein, raised ICP, lymphocytes

A

fungal/TB

387
Q

CSF: slightly high pressure, normal sugar, slightly high protein, lymphocytes

A

viral

388
Q

brain abscess

A

viridians strep.

s.aureas

389
Q

IVDU osteomyelitis

A

pseudomonas, candida, s.aureas

390
Q

positive nitrite test

A

e.coli

391
Q

urease positive urine

A

klebsiella, proteus

392
Q

clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

393
Q

infections crossing placenta

A

ToRCHeS
Toxoplasma, rubella, cytomegalovirus, HIV, Herpes simplex 2, syphilis
+ strep. agalactiae, e.coli, listeria, B19 (think neonatal meningitis)

394
Q

oval shaped vesilces on palms and soles, mouth ulcers

A

coxackie A - hand-foot-mouth

395
Q

haemophilus ducreyi

A

chancroid

396
Q

comdylomater acuminata

A

HPV 6 and 11

397
Q

creamy purulent discharge, itis

A

gonorrhea

398
Q

painless genital ulcers, painful lymphadenopathy

A

c trachomatis

399
Q

PID caused by

A

chlamydia trachomatis, n.gonorrhoease, c trachomatis

400
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

PID –> liver capsule inflammation –> peritoneal adhesions

401
Q

g-ves in surgical wounds

A

bacteroides, pervotella, fusobacterium

402
Q

s.e. penicillins

A

direct coombs positive hemolytic anaemia

403
Q

penicillinase resistant penicillins

A

dicloxacillin, nafcillin, oxacillin

the NOD of resistance

404
Q

penicillin for pseudomonas

A

pipercillin, tacarcillin

405
Q

B lactamase inhibitors

A

clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam

406
Q

what organisms are not covered by cephalosporins?

A

LAME

listeria, atypicals, MRSA, enterococci

407
Q

1st gen ceph

A

cefazolin, cephalexin

Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella - PEcK

408
Q

2nd gen ceph

A

cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefuroxime
HENS PEcK
H flu, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Serratic, proteus, e coli, klebsiella

409
Q

3rd gen ceph

A

ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime

410
Q

cefepime

A

4th gen ceph

pseudomonas

411
Q

ceftaroline

A

5th gene

MRSA

412
Q

s.e. cephalosporins

A

autoimmun hemolytic anaemia, disulfarim like, vK deficiency, cross reactive with penicillin, increases aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity

413
Q

what do you give with imipenem and why?

A

cilastatin decreases drug activity in renal tubules

414
Q

aztreonam syngery

A

aminoglycosides

415
Q

gram negative rods

A

aztreonam

416
Q

glycopeptides

mechanism

A

vancomycin, bacitracin

bind d-ala, stop peptidoglycan

417
Q

drug if penicillin allergy

A

monobactams

418
Q

red man syndrome

A

vancomycin

419
Q

bind 30S

A

tetracyclines

420
Q

renal failure abx

A

doxycycline (fecal elimination)

421
Q

tetracyclines especially good for

A

intracellular (rickettsia, chlamydia)

422
Q

blocks 50S

A

chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid

423
Q

anaerobes above diaphragm

below

A

clindamycin

metronidazole

424
Q

macrolides

mechanism

A

mycin

23S of 50S

425
Q

macrolide s.e.

A

MACRO
Motility, Arrhythmia (long QT), cholestatic hepatitis, Rash eOsinophilia
inhibit P-450

426
Q

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

trimethoprim

427
Q

inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

A

sulfonamides, dapsone (folate)

428
Q

s.e sulfonamides

A

displace drugs from albumin, G6DPH

429
Q

-floxacin

mechanism

A

fluroquinolones

inhibit topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

430
Q

daptomycin mechanism

A

disrupts cell membrane of gram +ve cocci

431
Q

metronidazole mechanism

A

damages DNA

432
Q

metallic taste

A

metronidazole

433
Q

m avium-intracellulare prophylaxis

A

azithromycin, rifabutin

434
Q

rifampicin

A

inhibits DNA RNA polymerase

435
Q

s.e. rifampicin

A

stimulates p-450 (rifambutin less)

436
Q

mechanism isoniazid

A

decreases mycolic acid synthesis

437
Q

s.e. isoniazid

A

inhibits p-450, vB6 deficiency, SLE symptoms

438
Q

blocks arabinosyltransferase

A

ethambutol

439
Q

red-green colour blindness

A

ethambutol

440
Q

streptomycin mechanism

s.e

A

30S

tinnitus, vertigo, ataxia, nephrotoxicity

441
Q

binds ergosterol

A

amphotericin B, nystatin

442
Q

inhibits DNA and RNA biosynthesis by conversion to 5-flurouracil

A

flucytosine

443
Q

-azoles

A

inhibit ergosterol snythesis by inhibiting p-450

444
Q

s.e. -azoles

A

gynecomastia, liver dysfuction

445
Q

inhibits squalene epoxidase

A

terbinafine

446
Q

-fungins

A

inhibit cell wall gynthesis (b-glucan)

447
Q

interferes with microtubules

A

griseofulvin

448
Q

toxoplasmosis

A

pyrimethamine

449
Q

trypanosoma brucei

A

suramin, melarsoprol

450
Q

t cruzi

A

nifurtimox

451
Q

leishmaniasis

A

sodium stibogluconate

452
Q

anti-mite Rx

A

permethrin, malathion, lindane

453
Q

mebendazole, pyrantel pamoate, ivermectin, praziquantel, diethlycarbamazine

A

helminths

454
Q

blocks heme detoxification

A

chloroquine

455
Q

inhibit neuraminidase

A

oseltamivir, zanamivir

456
Q

guanosine analogs

A

-cyclovir

457
Q

foscarnet mechnism

A

DNA/RNA polymerase inhibitor in viruses

HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor

458
Q

cidofovir mechanism

A

DNA polymerase (viral)

459
Q

NRTIs are, endings

A

bind reverse transcriptase

-sine/dine, abacavir

460
Q

NNRTIs

A

delavirdine, efavirenz, nevirapine

461
Q

-navir

A

protease inhibitors

462
Q

intergrase inhibitors

A

..tegravir

463
Q

enfuvirtide, maraviroc

A

fusion inhibitors

464
Q

HCV anti virals

A

ribavirin, sofosbuvir, simeprevir

465
Q

embryotoxic

A

clarythromycin

466
Q

cartilage damage

A

fluroquinolones

467
Q

tetarogenic

A

ribavirin, griseofluvin

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