Memorisation Flashcards

1
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HLA B8

A

Addison’s
Myasthenia Gravis
Graves disease
My m8 kennedy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HLA DQ2/8

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HLA DR2

A

Good Morning Lu
Goodpastures
Multiple Sclerosis
SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HLA DR3

A
Great SAiD Hermionie
Graves
SLE
Addison's
DM1
Hashimotos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HLA DR4

A

Ron At the Door
Rheumatoid
Addisons
DM1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HLA DR5

A

Harry Potter stays alive
Hashimotos
Pernicious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CD16, CD56

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CD25, FOXP3

A

regulatory T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CD80/86 (B7)

A

Dendritic cells which interact with CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CD40L

A

Th2 cells which interact with B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CD14

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CD34

A

Haemopoietic stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hot t bone steak

A
Hot - fever
T cell stimulation
Bone marrow stimulation
st
IgE
IgA
K (Acute phase proteins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IL 8

A

neutrophil chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IL10

A

decrease MHCII and Th1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IL12

A

Th1, NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TNFa

A

septic shock, increase WBC migration and vascular leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

INF-y

A

macrophage stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

INFa+b

A

against viruses - break down nucleic acids and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

respiratory burst

A

catalase positive organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

complement cascade (early and late)

A

early - encapsulated bacteria

MAC - gram negatives - neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MHCII

A

antigen presenting cells

dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mitochondrial permeability

A

irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nuclear pyknosis, karyohexis, karyolysis

A

irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

plasma membrane damage

A

irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lysosomal rupture

A

irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cellular/mitochondrial swelling

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chromatin clumping

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

blebbing

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ribosomal detachment

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

dispersal of Nissl substance throughout the cytoplasm, nucleus in the periphery

A

chromatolysis

reaction to axonal cell injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

collagen types wound healing

A

Type III, after 1 week –> type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tap with high LDH

A

exudate (inflammatory, lymphatic, malignancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pure red cell aplasia

A

thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

good syndrome (hypogammaglobulinemia)

A

thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

A

trosseau sign

adenocarcinoma - pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

anti-NMDA encephalitis

A

ovarian teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia

A

neuroblastoma

small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

small cell lung cancer
gynae and breast
Hodgkins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

antibodies against Hu

A

small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ALK

A

oncogene

lung adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BRAF

A

oncogene
melanoma
non-Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

c-KIT

A

oncogene

GIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

c-MYC

A

oncogene

Burkitt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

KRAS

A

oncogene

colon, lung, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MYCL1

A

oncogene

lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MYCN

A

oncogene

neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

APC

A

tumour suppressor gene

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CDKN2A

A

tumour suppressor gene

melanoma, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

p16

A

CDKN2A

blocks G1-S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

DCC

A

tumour suppressor gene

colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

PDC4

A

SMAD4
pancreas
Juvenile polyposis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

NF2

A

tumour suppressor gene

Merlin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

PTEN

A

tumour suppressor gene

breast, prostate, endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

TP53

A

tumour suppressor gene

Li-Fraumeni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

TSC1 + 2

A

tumour suppressor gene
Tuberous sclerosis
Harmatin + tuberin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

thyroid radiation

A

papillary cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

vinyl chloride

A

angiosarcoma of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

carbon tetrachloride

A

centrilobular liver necrosis, fatty change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

psammoma bodies

A

papillary thyroid cancer
serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
meningioma
malignant mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

CA125

A

ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CA15-3/27-29

A

breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CEA

A

pancreas, colon, breast

medullary thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

p-glycoprotein

A

adrenal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

sarcoma spread

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

carcinoma spread

A

lymph

minus HCC, RCC, follicular, choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

HCC spread

A

hematoganous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

RCC spread

A

heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

follicular carcinoma spread

A

heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

choriocarcinoma spread

A

hemea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Bcl2

A

antiapoptotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

BAX/BAK

A

proapoptotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

STAT3 mutation

A

hyper-IgE

Th17 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ATM gene

A

ataxia-telangectasia

DNA break repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CD40L defect

A

hyper IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

LFA-1 defect

A

leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

CD18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

LYST gene

A

lysosomal trafficking gene

Chediak-Higashi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

NADPH oxidase

A

chronic granulomatous disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

inheritance IL-12 receptor deficiency

A

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

inheritance SICD

A

XR

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

inheritance hyper-IgM

A

XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

inheritance Wiskott-Aldrich

A

XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

inheritance leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

A

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

inheritance Chediak-Higashi

A

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

adenosine deaminase deficiency

A

SCID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

defective IL-2R gamma chain

A

SCID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

anticentromere

A

LIMITED scleroderma (CREST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

anti-desmoglein/ anti-desmosome

A

pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

antiGAD

A

glutamic acid decarboxylase

diabetes mellitus type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

antihemidesmosome

A

bullous pemphygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

anti-histome

A

drug induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

anti-Jo-1

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Anti-SRP, anti Mi2, histidyl tRNA synthetase

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

antimicrosomal

A

hashimoto’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

antimitochondrial

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

antiphospholipase A2 receptor

A

primary membranous nephropahy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

anti DNA topoisomerase I

A

anti-Scl-70

scleroderma - DIFFUSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

anti smooth muscle

A

autoimmune hepatitis type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

anti SSA, SSB

A

sjogrens

anti Ro, La

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

anti TSH

A

Graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Anti-U1 RNP

A

mixed connective tissue disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

p-ANCA (Myeloperoxidase)

A

UC, PSC, Churg-Strauss, microscopic polyangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Proteinase3-ANCA (c-ANCA)

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

prevents IL-2 transcription

A

cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

binds FK506

A

tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

sirolimus

A

rapamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

mTOR inhibitor

A

sirolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

FKBP

A

sirolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

inhibits IMP dehydrogenase

A

mycophenolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

NFkB inhibition

A

corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

alemtuzumab

A

CD52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

bevacizumab

A

VEGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

cetiximab

A

ECFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rituximab

A

CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Trastuzumab

A

HER2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Adalimumab

A

TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Infliximab

A

TNF-a

etanercept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Certolizumab

A

TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Eculizumab

A

Complement protein C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Natalizumab

A

a4 integrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Denosumab

A

RANKL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Platelet glycoproteins IIb/IIIa

A

Acbiximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Omalizumab

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Palivizumab

A

RSV F protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Ranibizumab, bevacizumab

A

VEFG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

increases Km

A

reversible competitive inhibitors

doesn’t change Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

decreases Vmax

A

irreversible competitive inhibitors
and noncompetitive inhibitors
don’t change Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

potency

A

Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

efficacy

A

Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

-stigmine

A

anticholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

-chol

A

cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

edrophonium

A

anticholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

organophosphate poisoning

A

anticholinesterase poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Rx organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine + pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  • pine, -mine, -pium
A

muscarinic antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine

A

muscarinic agonist for overactive bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Rx atropine poisoning

A

pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

isoproterenol

A

selective B agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

NE

E

A

alpha

equal alpha and beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

toxin binding fast Na+ channels in heart/nerves

A

tetrodotoxin

pufferfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

toxin opens Na+ channels causing depolarisation

A

ciguatoxin

reef fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

bacterial histidine –> histamine

A

scombroid poisoning

spoiled dark meat fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

arsenic poisoning

A

succimer, dimercaprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

amphetamine poisoning

A

NH4Cl - acidify urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Metal poisoning

A

penicillamine

Copper, Gold, Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

cyanide poisoning

A

nitrite + thiosulfate + hydroxocolbamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

dimercaprol

A

gold, lead, mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

-ivir

A

neuraminidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

-navir

A

protease inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

-ovir

A

DNA polymerase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

-curium

A

nondepolarising paralytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

a1

A

contraction, fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

a2

A

inhibition, decreases sympathetic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

B3

A

lipolysis, thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

M1

A

CNS, enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

M2

A

heart rate and contractility decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

M3

A

relaxation state - rest and digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

D1

A

increases renal blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

V=

A

vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

case-control

A

odds ratio

with and without disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

cohort study

A

risk ratio

with and without risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

rule out test

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

negative skew

A

mean lowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

type I error

A

study finding there is a difference when there isn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

type II error

A

study doesn’t find a difference, when one exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

power =

A

1 - chance of type II error (study not finding anything when there was a correlation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

liklihood of a type I error

A

p vaue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

ANOVA

A

difference between 3 or more means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

chi-squared

A

difference between 2 or more percentage or proportions of categorical outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

NAD requires

A

B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

FAD requires

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

hexokinase

A

everywhere minus liver and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

glucokinase

A

liver and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

glycolysis

A

2 pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+ + 2H2O

Hot water PAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

arsenic inhibits

causes

A

lipolic acid

TCA to not produce ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

pyruvate dehydrogenase complex cofactors

A

B1, 2, 3, 5, lipolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

TCA cycle produces

A

10 ATP, 3 NADH, 2CO2, FADH2, GTP

double for per glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

neuro problems, lactic acidosis, high serum alanine

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

high fat diet with high lysine and leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

cells that don’t have sorbitol dehydrogenase

A

schwann cells, retina, kidneys, lens (mainly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

cherry red spot on mecula

A

Tay-Sachs

+ hepatosplenomegaly = Nieman-Pick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

long bone aseptic necrosis

A

Gaucher disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

worsening eyesight, peripheral neuropathy, regressive milestones

A

Krabbe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

clumsy, ataxia, dementia - child

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

XR lysosomal storage disease

A

Fabry

Hunter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

small purple blemishes, neuropathy, increased sweating

A

Fabry disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

corneal clouding, lung and liver issues, low IQ

A

Hurler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

low IQ, gargoyle, Aggression

A

Hunter (XR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

hexosaminidase A deficiency

A

tay-sachs

increased GM2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

spingomyelinase deficiency

A

Nieman-Pick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

glucocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Gaucher disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

galactocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Krabbe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

arylsulfatase A deficiency

A

metachromatic leukodystrophy

increased cerebroside sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

alpha galactosidase A deficiency

A

Fabry disease

increased ceramide trihexoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Increased heparan and dermatan sulfate

A

Hunter and Hurler syndromes

196
Q

nausea, vomiting, vertigo, blurred vision

A

vitamin A acute toxicity

197
Q

alopecia, dry skin, hepatic toxicity, enlargement, arthralgia, pseudotumour cerebri

A

chronic vitamin A toxicity

198
Q

raised RBC transketolase activity after … administration

A

B1

199
Q

B1 needed in

A

TCA, HMP shunt

200
Q

high output cardiac failure, edema, bad nutrition

A

B1 deficiency - wet beriberi

201
Q

polyneuritis, symmetric muscle wasting, poor nutrition

A

B1 deficiency - dry beriberi

202
Q

B2 needed in

A

FAD, FMN

TCA cycle

203
Q

lip inflammation, scaling and fissures at corners of mouth, corneal vascularisation

A

B2 deficiency

204
Q

B3 needed for

A

NAD

205
Q

B3 on lipids

A

decreases VLDL

increases HDL

206
Q

Glossitis, diarrhoea, dermatitis, dementia

A

B3 deficiency

207
Q

facial flushing when taking tablet, which stops with aspirin

A

B3 (prostaglandin release)

208
Q

CoA cofactor, fatty acid synthase

A

B5

209
Q

dermatitis, enteritis, alopecia, adrenal insufficiency

A

B5 deficiency

210
Q

peripheral neuropathy, sideroblastic anemia

A

B6 deficiency

211
Q

needed for transamination, heme, niacin, cystathionine, histamine, neurotransmitters, glycogen phosphorylase

A

B6

212
Q

eggwhite binds

A

biotin - B7

213
Q

B7 needed for

A

carboxylation in TCA

214
Q

dermatitis, alopecia, enteritis

A

B7 deficiency

215
Q

megaloblastic anemia, high homocystine, normal methylmalonic acid

A

B9 - folate deficiency

216
Q

megaloblastic anemia, high homocystine, high methylmalonic acid

A

B12 deficiency

217
Q

dopamine B hydroxylase cofactor

A

vitamin C

218
Q

xs vitamin C in hemochromatosis

A

can precipitate iron toxicity

219
Q

vitamin interacting with warfarin

A

vitamin E increases warfarin effects

220
Q

vitamin causing hemolytic anaemia

A

vitamin E

221
Q

hypogonadism, delayed wound healing, anosmia, acrodermititis

A

zinc deficiency

222
Q

aldosterone causes

A

potassium loss

223
Q

intellectual disability, growth retardation, seizures, fair skin, eczema, musty body odour

A

Phenylketonuria (AR)

GIVE BH4

224
Q

intellectual disability, CNS defects, tonic posturing, poor feeding

A

Maple syrup urine disease (AR)

urine smells like burned sugar

225
Q

urine turns black on standing

A

Alkaptonuria (AR)

226
Q

marfinoid, osteoporosis, kyphosis, thrombosis, intellectual disability, lens subluxation

A

homocystinuria (AR)

cystathionine-beta synthase (CBS) mutation

227
Q

renal and visceral vessels, fibrinoid necrosis

A

polyarteritis nodosa

228
Q

respiratory tract, lungs, kidneys

necrotising, granulomatous

A

granulomatosis with polyangiitis

229
Q

lungs, kidney, skin

necrotising

A

microscopic polyangiitis

230
Q

asthma, sinusitis, peripheral neuropathy, heart, GI, kidney

necrotising, granulomas

A

Churg-Strauss

231
Q

Post URTI

palpable purpura, arthralgia, abdo pain

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

IgA nephropathy

232
Q

lynch syndrome inheritance

A

AD
HNPCC
MLH1 mismatch repair gene

233
Q

port wine urine

A

acute porphyria
inhibits porohobilinogen deaminase
corproporphyrinogen builds up

234
Q

tea coloured urine, blistering photosensitivity

A

porphyria tarda
uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
uroporphyrinogen III builds up

235
Q

Bernard-Souiler

A

AR

GpIb deficiency

236
Q

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

A

AR

GpII/ IIIa deficiency

237
Q

poor repetition + understanding

A

conduction aphasia

238
Q

Butorphanol

A

partial u agonist

239
Q

pentazocine

A

u antagonist

240
Q

adult tumour cerebellum

A

hemangioblastoma

241
Q

S-100 marker

A

schwannoma

242
Q

oligodendroglioma found in

A

frontal lobes

243
Q

adult tumour GFAP

A

glioblastoma multiforme - astrocytoma

MALIGNANT

244
Q

pliocyte astrocytoma

A

cerebellum

GFAP

245
Q

rosenthal fibres - eosinophilic + corkscrew

A

pliocyte astrocytoma

246
Q

motor-oil fluid - brain tumour

A

craniopharyngeoma

247
Q

supratentorial tumour

A

craniopharyngeoma

248
Q

rod shaped blepharoplasts

A

ependymoma

249
Q

obstructive hydrocephalus, vertical gaze palsy, precocious puberty

A

pinealoma

250
Q

Homer-Wright rosettes, ataxia, child

A

medulloblastoma

251
Q

tram track calcifications, port wine stain

A

Sturge-Weber

252
Q

episcleral hemangioma, leptomeningeal angioma

A

Sturge-Weber

253
Q

Harmatomas, angiofibroma, angiomyolipoma

A

Tuberous sclerosis

Angiomyolipoma = renal tumour

254
Q

Lisch nodules

A

NF1

due to schwan cells

255
Q

glioma, phaeochromocytoma

A

NF1

due to schwann cells

256
Q

lower lobes restrictive lung disease

A

asbestosis

257
Q

Kulchitsky cells

A

small cell

258
Q

Central lung tumours

A

Sentral
Small cell
Squamous cell

259
Q

lytic lesions

A

multiple myeloma

260
Q

sclerotic lesions

A

prostate metastasis

261
Q

warfarin

A

PT

262
Q

heparin

A

aPTT

263
Q

decrease prevalence causes a decrease in

A

PPV

264
Q

Birbeck granules

A

tennis rackets

Langerhans histiocytosis

265
Q

Endothelin 1

A

idiopathic pulmonary hypertension

266
Q

Gp IIb/IIIa antibodies

A

ITP - idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

267
Q

succinylcholine broken down by

A

pseudocholinesterase

268
Q

succinylcholine

A

depolarising blocker

269
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

CN VI damage

270
Q

CKD

A

mixed metabolic acidosis

271
Q

stop Ca kidney stones

A

thiazides

272
Q

causes uric acid stones

A

thiazides

273
Q

ammonium magnesium phosphate stones

A

urease positive bugs

274
Q

8:14

A

Burkitts
c-myc
heavy Ig chain

275
Q

14:18

A

follicular
heavy Ig chain
Bcl2

276
Q

11:14

A

mantle
cyclin D
heavy Ig chain

277
Q

15:17

A

APML M3 type
PML gene
retinoic acid receptor alpha gene - RARA

278
Q

ruxolitinib

A

myelofibrosis

JAK2

279
Q

HGPRT

A

Lesch Nyhan

purine salvage pathway

280
Q

primitive pulmonary vein

A

smooth part of L atrium

281
Q

smooth part of R atrium

A

right horn of sinus venosus

282
Q

cardinal veins

A

SVC

283
Q

y descent prominent, absent

A

constrictive pericarditis

tamponade

284
Q

wide splitting

A

RBBB

285
Q

paradoxical splitting

A

LBBB, aortic steonsis

286
Q

fixed splitting

A

ASD

287
Q

htn Rx

A

get a VAT of drugs
Verapimil, ACE inhibitors, Thiazide
+- B blocker for diabetes/HF

288
Q

smooth muscle relaxation uses

A

cGMP

myelin dephosphorylation

289
Q

pemphigus vulgaris

A

flaccid bullae

desmosomes

290
Q

bullous pemphigoid

A

tense bullae

hemidesmosomes

291
Q

diabetes drug causing pancreatitis

A

GLP-1 analogs

292
Q

vaptans

A
ADH antagonists (block ADH receptors)
also demeclocycline (decrease renal tubule sensitivity)
for SIADH
293
Q

desmopressin

A

ADH analog

294
Q

ocreotide

A

somatostatin
inhibits GH
use for carcinoid tumours

295
Q

fludrocortisone

A

aldosterone analog

296
Q

Dopamine inhibits (think of parkinsons)

A

prolactin and TSH

297
Q

Antipsychotic that doesn’t cause galactorrhoea

A

Aripriprazole

is a partial agonist at D2 receptors

298
Q

colchicine

A

binds tubulin, inhibiting microtubules
decreases LB4
causes d&v, and abdo pain

299
Q

roof of inguinal canal

A

internal oblique + transversus abdominus

300
Q

floor of inguinal canal

A

inguinal ligament

301
Q

posterior of inguinal ligament

A

tranversalis fascia

302
Q

anterior of inguinal canal

A

apeneurosis of external oblique + internal oblique

303
Q

indirect hernia

A

goes through internal ring
into the scrotum
lateral to epigastric vessels

304
Q

direct hernia

A
inguinal triangle (Hesselbach)
medial to epigastric vessels
305
Q

femoral hernia

A

below inguinal ligament

femoral canal

306
Q

less avid binding of 2,3 DPG

A

more avid binding of O2

307
Q

acaanthocyte

A

spurr cell

liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia

308
Q

dacrocyte

A

teardrop cell

309
Q

degmacyte

A

bite cell

310
Q

echinocyte

A

burr cell

renal disease, liver disease, pyruvate kinase deficiency

311
Q

Target cell

A

HbC
Asplenia
Liver disease
Thalassemia

312
Q

hyperammonemia + increases orotic acid

A

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

vs orotic aciduria

313
Q

transaxemic acid

A

antifibrinolytic

314
Q

heparin

A

activates antithrombin

decreases action of IIa and Xa

315
Q

fondaparinux

A

increases antithrombin degredation of Xa

316
Q

thrombolytics

A

increase conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

317
Q

cilostazol, dipyridamole

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitors, inhibit plt aggregation (via cAMP)

318
Q

abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

A

bind IIb/IIIa

319
Q

rifampin

A

inhibition of bacterial dependent RNA polymerase

320
Q

ethambutol

A

inhibition of arabinosyl transferase

321
Q

fungins

A

cell WALL

322
Q

malassezia

A

tinea versicolour

spaghetti and meatballs

323
Q

dopamine agonists

A

bromocriptine

pramipexole, ropinerole

324
Q

increase dopamine availability

A

amantadine

325
Q

COMT inhibitors

A

entacapone

tolcopone - peripheral and CNS

326
Q

selegiline

A

blocks dopamine conversion (MAO-B)

327
Q

good for Parkinson’s tremor

A

benztropine

also for tardive dyskinesia

328
Q

lichen planus

A

stratum granulosum

329
Q

psoriasis skin layers

A

stratum corneum

330
Q

acanthosis

A

epidermal hyperplasia - stratum sponosum

acanthosis nigricans

331
Q

acantholysis

A

phemphigus vulgaris
flaccid
+ mouth involvement

332
Q

condyloma accuminata

A

HPV

333
Q

acral lentiginous

A

melanoma on feet

334
Q

zileuton

A

inhibits 5-lipoxygenase - leukotriene synthesis

335
Q

montelukast

A

leukotriene receptor antagonsits

336
Q

epoprostenol

A

prostacyclin for pulmonary htn

337
Q

pyrophosphate analogs

A

bisphosphonates

338
Q

teriperatide

A

recombinant PTH analog

339
Q

probenecid

A

inhibits uric acid reabsorption in PCT

340
Q

pegloticase

A

uric acid –> allantoin

recombinant uricase

341
Q

rasburicase

A

recombinant uricase

342
Q

lichen planus

A

hep C

Wickham striae

343
Q

mosaicism

A

germline and somatic

344
Q

heteroplasmy

A

mitochondrial

345
Q

heterophile antibodies

A

EBV

346
Q

degeneration of putamen

A

Wilson’s

347
Q

serotonin precursor

A

tryptophan

348
Q

cyproheptadine

A

Rx for serotonin syndrome

antiseratoninergic antihistamine

349
Q

Down’s etiology

A

meiosis 1 anaphase

350
Q

non selective B blockers

A

second half of alphabet

shouldn’t be used with respiratory symptoms

351
Q

disruption of vasa vasorum

A

tertiary syphilis

352
Q

cystic medial necrosis of aorta

A

Marfans

353
Q

tranylcypromine

A

MAO-A inhibitor

354
Q

chlorpromazine

A

first generation anti psychotic

355
Q

germline mosaicism

A

different cell lines in the testes/ovaries to the rest of the body
can lead to AD conditions

356
Q

sublimation

A

channeling impulses into socially acceptable behaviours

357
Q

displacement

A

transferring feelings to a more socially acceptable object

358
Q

projection

A

projecting your feelings onto someone else

359
Q

reaction formation

A

responding in the opposite way to your true feelings (becoming a nun)

360
Q

schizophreniform

A

schizophrenia lasting less than 6 months

361
Q

schizoaffective disorder

A

mood disorder + schizophrenia symptoms, < 2 weeks of schiz without mood disturbance

362
Q

polyploidy

A

more than 2 complete sets of chromosomes exist in the cell

363
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 agonist

364
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

a1 antagonist

phaeochromocytoma Rx

365
Q

genetic heterogeneity

A

different genes same result

366
Q

pleiotropy

A

many phenotypic manifestations which appear unrelated, but are due to one gene defect

367
Q

transformation

A

uptake of free DNA

368
Q

transduction

A

bacteriophage mediated

369
Q

chromosome 17

A

NF1, BRCA1, p53 (Li-Fraumeni)

370
Q

Chromosome 14

A

Krabbe disease, a-1 antitrypsin deficiency

371
Q

neural tube defects markers

A

increased AFP and AChE

372
Q

unmyelinated fibres

A

post-ganglionic autonomic fibres

C type free nerve endings (pain and temperature)

373
Q

chromosome 4

A

Huntingdon’s, achondroplasia, PKD2 (ADPKD), Hurler’s

374
Q

hemispatial neglect

A

nondominant parietal cortex

375
Q

memantine

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

376
Q

tetrabenazine, reserpine, haloperidol

A

Huntingdon’s

377
Q

Riluzole

A

decreases glutamate excitotoxicity

ALS

378
Q

paranoid vs delusion

A

delusion you think that you are being poisoned

paranoid you think they are just watching you

379
Q

Bounding pulse, head bobbing

A

Aortic regurg

380
Q

high NH4

A

glutamate builds up

381
Q

brown pigment stones

A

infection, beta glucoronidase

382
Q

inhibits 7-a hydroxylase

A

fibrates

increases risk of cholesterol stones

383
Q

neuroblastoma associated with

A

n-myc

384
Q

fluoxetine

A

SSRI

385
Q

busiprone

A

used for GAD

5-HT agonist

386
Q

mirtazapine

A

atypical antidepressant

with a2 antagonism

387
Q

methylphenidate

A

amphetamine derivative

for ADHD

388
Q

chromosome 16

A

ADPKD, alpha thalasemia

389
Q

chromosome 6

A

ARPKD, hemochromatosis

390
Q

chromosome 9

A

Tuberous sclerosis, Freidrich’s ataxia, CDKN2A

391
Q

Lynch syndrome associated with

A

endometrial, colorectal, skin, ovarian cancers

392
Q

chromosome 5

A

FAP

393
Q

chromosome 7

A

CF, William’s syndrome

394
Q

chromosome 11

A

Wilm’s tumour, MEN1, B thalassaemia

395
Q

chromosome 13

A

Wilson’s, Rb, BRCA2

396
Q

chromosome 15

A

Marfan’s - FBN1 gene

397
Q

statins s.e

A

rhabdomyalysis

can lead to atn

398
Q

MEN inheritance

A

AD

399
Q

MSUD

A

defect in a-ketoacid dehydrogenase

branched chain amino acids and ketoacids build up in the blood

400
Q

essential a.a. in homocystinuria

A

cystine

401
Q

essential a.a. in PKU

A

tyrosine

402
Q

AKI + eosinophilia

A

acute interstitial nephritis

403
Q

branched chain amino acids

A

valine, leucine, isoluecine

404
Q

McCardle’s

A

glycogen phosphorylase

405
Q

phentolamine

A

alpha antagonist

406
Q

don’t give with HCM

A

vasodilators, diuretics

407
Q

Don’t give with prinzmetal angina

A

Dihydroergotamine (ergot alkaloid used for migraine treatment)

408
Q

Clomiphene

A

brain E antagonist - enduces ovulation

409
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Breast antagonist

bone and uterus agonist

410
Q

Raloxifene

A

Breast antagonist
Bone agonist
Uteris antagonist

411
Q

Danazol

A

partial agonist at androgen receptors

412
Q

nephritic kidney disease + hepatitis

A

MPGN

413
Q

nephrotic kidney disease + hepaittis

A

Membranous

414
Q

Kidney disease black/ hispanic vs white

A

FSGS

Membranous

415
Q

aldesleukin

A

RCC anti IL-2

416
Q

WT1 deletion

A

WAGR - wilms tumour, aniridia, genitourinary malformation, mental retardation

417
Q

WT1 mutation

A

Denys-Drash - wilm’s tumour, nephrotic syndrome, male pseudohermaphroditism

418
Q

WWT2 mutation

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann - wil’ms tumour, macroglossia, organomegaly, hemihyperplasia

419
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

hypoventilation

420
Q

diuretics metabolic alkalosis

A

acetazolamide, thiazides

421
Q

can’t concentrate urine

A

Osm <350mOsm

renal and post renal

422
Q

chromosome 19

A

Peutz-Jeghers

harmatomatous polyps, freckles around the mouth

423
Q

proptosis

A

XS gylcosaminoglycans

424
Q

calretinin + cytokeratin

A

mesothelioma

425
Q

first vs second generation antihistamines

A

1st - -en/-ine/-ate

2nd - -adine

426
Q

antagonises NMDA receptors

A

dextromethorphan

PCP

427
Q

Disulfarim reaction

A
Sorry Pals, Can't Go Mingle
Sulfonureas - tolbutamide
Procarbazine
Cephalosporins, chloramphenicol
Griseofulvin
Metronidazole
428
Q

terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

A

ALL

429
Q

Weil-Felix

A

Rickettsia

agglutination test

430
Q

daclizumab, basiliximab

A

mab against IL-2

431
Q

Councilman bodies

A

yellow fever

hepatocytes

432
Q

Dohle bodies

A

infection, pregnancy, trauma, cancer

neutrophils

433
Q

Pappenheimer bodies

A

sideroblastic anemia, sickle cell

RBCs

434
Q

Rubeola

A

Measles

435
Q

protease inhibitor side effects

A

hyperglycemia, d&v, lipodystrophy, nephropathy

436
Q

enfuvirtide

A

binds gp41

437
Q

maraviroc

A

binds CCR-5 inhibiting gp120 interaction

438
Q

-gravir

A

integrase inhibitors

439
Q

s.e integrase inhibitors

A

increase CK

440
Q

inhibits pol gene

A

protease inhibitors

441
Q

nevirapine, delavirdine, efavirenz

A

NNRTIs

don’t require phosphorylation

442
Q

abacavir, tenofovir, didanosine, emtricitabine, lamivudine, stavudine, zidovudine

A

NRTIs

443
Q

nucleotide inhibitor

A

Tenofovir

444
Q

NRTI causing pancreatitis

A

didanosine

445
Q

HIV drug requiring phosphorylation

A

NRTIs

446
Q

P450 inducers

A

Chronic alcoholics steal phen phen and never refuse greasy carbs
chronic alcohol, phenytoin, phenobarbital, nevirapine, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine, st john’s wart

447
Q

P450 substrates

A

anti epileptics, theophylline, warfarin, OCPs

448
Q

P450 inhibitors

A

to cip alcohol seems right Amy

acute etoh, ritonavir, amiodarone, cimetidine, ciprofloxacin

449
Q

uncal herniation

A

CN 3 palsy - blown pupil

450
Q

cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A

brainstem death

451
Q

transtentorial herniation

A

caudal displacement
basilar arteries rupture –> duret hemorrhages
usually fatal

452
Q

subfalcine herniation

A

compress ACA

453
Q

spermatogonium

A

stem cells

454
Q

spermatocytes

A

undergoing meiosis

455
Q

spermatid

A

1N haploid, undergone meiosis

456
Q

spermatozoon

A

mature sperm ready for release

457
Q

protein M

A

resistance to phagocytic killing

458
Q

calcium pyrophosphate

A

pseudogout

459
Q

digoxin toxicity

A

quinidine, amiodarone, verapamil, spironolactone

460
Q

ristocetin

A

vWF disease

461
Q

misoprostol

A

NSAID induced peptic ulcers

462
Q

what substrate is Normal in folate deficiency

A

methylmalonic acid

463
Q

ER

A

folds proteins, moves to golgi

464
Q

Golgi

A

the post office - packages and sends things around the cell, and out of the cell in lysosomes etc.

465
Q

metoclopramide

A

antiemetic, D2/5-HT antagonist at the CTZ; increases gastric emptying

466
Q

reaction against plasma proteins in infused blood

A

allergic reaction

467
Q

antibodies against donor HLA and WBC

A

febrile non hemolytic reaction

468
Q

ABO incompatibility

A

intravascular acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

469
Q

antibodies against foreign antigen on donor RBC

A

extravascular acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

470
Q

Km

A

potency

471
Q

V max

A

efficacy

472
Q

chocolate blood

A

Methemoglobinuria

methylene blue

473
Q

cGMP

A

BNP, ANP, EDRF (NO)

BAD GMP

474
Q

cAMP

A

FLAT ChAMP
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, CRH, ADH, MSH, PTH
Calcitonin, GHRH, Glucagon, H2

475
Q

IP3

A

GOAT HAG

GnRH, oxytocin, ADH, TRH, H1, ATII, Gastrin

476
Q

Tyrosin kinase receptors

A

Insulin, GF

477
Q

Non receptor tyrosine kinase

A

PIGGlET

prolactin, immunomodulators, GH, G-CSF, EPO, TPO

478
Q

Apo E

A

chylomicron remnant uptake

479
Q

Apo AI

A

activates LCAT

480
Q

Apo B100

A

binds LDL R

481
Q

Apo B-48

A

chylomicron secretion

482
Q

C II

A

LPL cofactor

can’t offload lipids

483
Q

carvedilol

A

B1, B2, a1 antagonist

484
Q

fibrates

A

decrease VLDL, increase LPL

485
Q

TAG
Cholesterol
Both

A

Fibrates
Ezetimibe
Statins