Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

what forms foam cells?

A

mpg and LDLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

monckeberg sclerosis

A

medial calcific sclerosis
medium sized arteries - elastic lamina and media
vascular stiffening, no obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causes smooth muscle cell migration in atherosclerosis?

A

fatty streaks releasing PDGF and FGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

coronary steal syndrome

A

ischaemia in poststenotic region after vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

primitive ventricle gives rise to

A

trabeculated part of left and right ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Right dominant circulation (% and what it means)

A

Posterior descending artery comes off the RCA

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primitive pulmonary vein gives rise to

A

smooth part of left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MAP =

A

CO x TPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Left horn of sinus venosus gives rise to

A

Coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

V wave

A

increased R atrial pressure from filling against a closed tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fixed splitting seen in

A

ASD causing left to right shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Y descent
absent in
prominent in

A

RA emptying into RV
tamponade
constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

C wave

A

RV contraction - closed tricuspid bulging into the atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal ejection fraction

A

> 55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do you get paradoxical splitting?

A

Delay in aortic valve colsure, aortic stenosis, LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where to listen for septal defects

A

Tricuspid area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the valsalva do?

A

Decreases preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

ejection systolic click, radiates to carotids, weak pulse, slow rising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aortic regurg

A

Blowing early diastolic, collapsing/ hyperdynamic pulse, head bobbing, wide pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can long QT cause?

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Long QT syndrome found in

A

Romano-Ward

Jervell and Lange-Nielson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ECG U waves seen in

A

hypokalaemia, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

QRS complex length

A

< 120s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2nd degree Wencheback type

A

type I

progressive lengethening and drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cardiac defects seen in Down’s syndrome

A

AV septal defect - endocardial cushion
VSD
ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hypertensive urgency

A

> 180/120

no end organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

22q11 syndromes

A

Truncus arteriosus

Tetrology of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Late cyanosis in lower limbs

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Marfan syndrome causes what cardiac issues?

A

MVP
Thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection
aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure value

A

4-12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Carotid sinus baro-receptor transmits to

A

glossopharangeal –> solitary nucleus of medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome causes what cardiac problems

A

VSD
PDA
ASD
Tetrology of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tetrology of Fallot (4)

A

VSD
Pulmonary stenosis
RV hypertrophy
Overriding aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Afferent baroreceptor

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

wavy fibres, early coagulation necrosis

A

0-24 hrs after MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aortic dissection associated with

A

HTN
Bicuspid aortic valve
CTDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

> 2 weeks post MO

A

contracted scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Rx prinzmetal angina

A

Ca channel blocker
Nitrates
Smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Mpg with granulation tissue

A

3 - 14 days post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

at rest, from artery spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rx Stanford B

A

B blockers

Vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rx Stanford A

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does troponin rise?

A

After 4 horus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

RSHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Classification of aortic dissection

A

Stanford A - ascending

B - descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sudden cardiac death linked with

A

CAD
Cardiomyopathy
hereditary ion channelopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

1 - 3 days post MI

A

neutrophils, coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcohol, beriberi, coxackie myocardidis, cocaine, chagas, doxorubicin toxicity, haemochromatosis, sarcoid, peripartum, idiopathic, familial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

cause of interventricular septal rupture post MI

A

Mpg degredation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Rx hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

B blocker, Ca blockers (verapamil), ICD, no sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Endomyocardial fibrosis with prominent eosinophilic infiltrate

A

Loffler syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rx HF

A

ACE inhibitrs/ AT II; B blocker, spironolactone, thiazide/ loop diuretic if needed (hydralazine + nitrate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HF, S3, systolic regurg murmur

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Thick fibroelastic tissue in endocardium of young children

A

endocardial fibroelastosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

mitral regurg post MI caused by

A

papillary muscle rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

S4 systolic murmur (mitral regurg)

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rx NSTEMI

A 
AAABS
Anticoag
Antiplatelet (aspirin + clopidogrel)
ACE inhibitor
B blocker Statin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Rx dilated cardiomyopathy

A 
Na restriction
ACE inhibitors
B blockes
diuretics
digoxin
ICD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Sarcoid, Amyolid, postradition fibrosis, endocardial fibroelastosis, Loffler syndrome, haemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

familial (60-70%)

AD B myosin heavy chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

immediate MI complications

A

V arr., HF, shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

1-3 day post MI complications

A

postinfarction fibrous pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

3 - 14 days post MI complication

A

tamponade, mitral regurg, LV pseudoaneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

> 2 weeks post MI complications

A

Dressler syndrome, HF, arrhythmia, ventricular aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how to prevent reflex tachy with B blocker

A

Give gtdralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do Ca channel blockers work?

A

Block L-type voltage Ca channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where do non-dihydropyridines act?

A

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where do dihydropyridines act?

A

Vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Digoxin

A

Inhibits Na/K ATPase which inhibits Na/Ca increased Ca(i) stimulates vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

HTN urgency

A

clevidipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

mechanism of hydralazine

A

increases cGMP –> smooth muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

compensatory tachy, fluid retention, headache, angina, lupus like syndrome

A

hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

S.E Ia

A

thrombocytopaenia, torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

hyperkalaemia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea

A

digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Ib clinical use

A

post MI, digitalis toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

S.E disopyramide

A

HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mechanism B blocker

A

decrease cAMP –> SAN, AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

S.E Ib

A

CNS stimulation/depression, CVS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Ezetimibe

A

prevents cholesterol abosrption at the SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Niacin (lipids) s.e

A

inhibits lipolysis in adipose, reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis
red flushed face, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

C.I Ic

A

ischaemic heart disease, structural heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

S.E quinidine

A

headache, tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Ranolazine

A

inhibits late Na current deducing diastolic wall tesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Fibrates

A

upregulate LPL increasing TG clearance, activates PPAR-a increaseing HDL synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

S.E Ic

A

proarrhythmic, don’t give post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

S.E reflex tachy, tOtn, lushing, heache

A

nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

quinidine other (2)

A

procainamide, disopyramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

S.E procainamide

A

SLE like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Fenoldopam mechanism, use

A

D1 antagnoist, HTN emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

disrupts pyramidine synthesis

A

leflunemide, methotrexate, trimethoprim, 5-flurouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

s.e. propranolol

A

exacerbates vasospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

S.E amiodarone

A

pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypothyroidism/ hyperthyroidism, photodermatitis, constibation, neuro effects, brady, heart block, HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Rx htn in pregnancy

A

Hydralazine, labetalol, methyldopa, nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

B blocker overdose

A

saline, atropine, glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

III use

A

AF/ flutter

VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

B blocker arrhythmia use

A

SVT

AF/ flutter

98
Q

s.e. metoprolol

A

dyslipidaemia

99
Q

B blocker adverse events

A

impotence, exacerbation of COPD/asthma, AV block, brady, HF, sedation, masks hypoglycaemia

100
Q

S.E adenosine

A

flushing, hOtn, chest pain, impending doom, bronchospasm

101
Q

Sotalol

A

III - K+ channel

102
Q

S.E peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, gingival hyperplasia

A

dihydropyridines

103
Q

S.E cardiac depression, AV block, hyperprolactinemia, constipation

A

Non-dihydropyridines

104
Q

hydroxyurea mechanism

A

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

105
Q

III mechanism

A

increases AP duration

106
Q

disruption of purine synthesis

A

6-mercaptopurine
mycophenolate
ribavirin

107
Q

adenosine use

A

SVT - short acting

108
Q

Ib mechanism

A

decreases AP duration

109
Q

HTN Rx

A 
ACE AT CaT
Ace inhibitiors
AT receptor blockers
Ca channel blockers (dihydropyridines)
Thiazides
110
Q

HTN + DM

A

add in B blockers

111
Q

HTN + HF

A

Diuretics

ACE inhibitor/ ATII blocker, B blockers, aldosterone antagonists

112
Q

B blocker phaeochromocytoma

A

a1 agonism

113
Q

Use of IV

A

SVT, AF rate control

114
Q

Ia mechanism

A

increase AP duration and refractory period

increase QT interval

115
Q

5-fluouracil mechanism

A

forms 5-F-dUMP inhibiting thymidylate synthase

116
Q

Ia use

A

SVT

VT

117
Q

Lidocaine (1 other)

A

Mexiletine

118
Q

Blurry yellow vision

A

Digoxin toxicity

119
Q

Fleccianide (1 other)

A

Propafenone

120
Q

Mechanism Ic

A

increases ERP at AVN

121
Q

Leflunemide mechanism

A

inhibits dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase

122
Q

S.E IV

A

constipation, flushing, edema, SAN depression, AV block, HF

123
Q

Arrhythmia use of Mg

A

Torsades des pointes, digoxin toxicity

124
Q

Use of Ic

A

SVT, AF, (VT)

125
Q

Mycophenolate, ribavirin mechanism

A

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

126
Q

IV mechanism

A

decreases conduction velocity increasing PR interval

127
Q

Adenosine mechanism

A

increases K efflux, causing hyperpolarisation

128
Q

Nesiritide

A

Recombinant BNP for HF

129
Q

Rx subarachnoid

A

Nimodipine

130
Q

Rx digoxin overdose

A

Normalise K+, anti-digoxin Fab fragments, Mg

131
Q

Disrupts base synthesis

A

hydroxyurea

132
Q

Mechanism 6-mercaptopurine prodrug

A

azathioprine

inhibits de novo purine synthesis

133
Q

methotrexate, trimethoprim, pyrimethamine mechanism

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase decreasing deoxythymidine monophosphate

134
Q

right horn of sinus venosus gives rise to

A

smooth part of RA (sinus venarum)

135
Q

Pulse pressure is proportional to

A

Stroke volume

136
Q

umbilical arteries form

A

medial umbilical ligaments

137
Q

right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein

A

SVC

138
Q

What is S3?

A

early diastole, increased filling pressure

139
Q

A wave

A

Absent in AF

atrial contraction

140
Q

Where is S2 loudest?

A

Upper left sternal boarder

141
Q

What helps close the ductus arteriosus?

A

Increased O2, decrease in prostaglandins

142
Q

Acute IE

Subacute IE

A

S aureas

Viridians strep

143
Q

Distributive shock caused by

A

sepsis
anaphylaxis
CNS injury

144
Q

Criteria of rheumatic fever

A 
joints (migratory polyarthritis)
carditis
nodules in skin
erythema marginatum
sydenham chorea
145
Q

Prenatal lithium exposure

A

ebstein anomaly

146
Q

Renovascular disease predisposing to htn

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

147
Q

What causes wide splitting?

A

Delay in RV emptying, pulmoary stenosis, RBBB

148
Q

Williams syndrome

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis

149
Q

What does hypotension cause?

A

increased HR, contractility, BP

150
Q

Turner syndrome cardiac defects

A

Bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of the aorta

151
Q

3rd degree heart block

A

atria and ventricles independent

152
Q

secondary endocarditis

A

malignancy, hypercoagulable, lupus

153
Q

histiocytes

A

xanthomas

154
Q

what does rapid squatting elicit in heart sounds

A

increased AS murmur

decreased hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

155
Q

What do you hear in paradoxical splitting?

A

Pulmoary heard first, most prominent on expiration

156
Q

pulse pressure isinversley proportional to

A

arterial compliance

157
Q

vasculidity following URI

why?

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

IgA immune complex deposition

158
Q

Endocardial cushions give rise to

A

Atrial septum, membranous interventricular septum, AV and semilunar valves

159
Q

Beck triad

A

Tamponade, hOtn, distended neck veins, distant heart sounds

160
Q

Kawasaki disease

A 
CRASH and burn
Conjunctival injection
Rash (polymorphus --> dequamating)
Adenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Hand-foot changes
Fever
161
Q

Necrotizing vasculiis, granulomatous, eosinophilia

A

Churg-Strauss

162
Q

raised JVP on inspiration

A

Kussmaul sign

163
Q

PR3-ANCA/ c-ANCA

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

164
Q

Primitive atrium gives rise to

A

Trabeculated part of left and right ventricles

165
Q

Congenital rubella leads to

A

PDA, pulmoary artery stenosis, septal defects

166
Q

Henoch-Schonlein purpura triad

A

Palpable purpura, arthralgia, abdo pain

167
Q

Most common cardiac tumour in children

A

rhabdomyoma

168
Q

When do you see Kausmaul sign?

A

constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathies, RA/V tumours

169
Q

Decreased pulse pressure

A 
HATS
HF
Aortic stenosis
tamponade
shock (cardiogenic)
170
Q

Left dominant circulation (8%)

A

Posterior descending from LCX

171
Q

Fetal O2blood transport

A 
Umbilical vein
Ductus venosus
IVC
Foramen ovale
Aorta
172
Q

Pulsus parodoxus seen in

A 
Tamponade
Asthma
Sleep apnea
Percarditis
Croup
173
Q

Urachus

A

part of the allantoic duct between the bladder and umbilicus

174
Q

Fetal deO2blood transport

A

SVC, RA–>RV, pulmoary artery, patent ductus arteriosus, descending aorta

175
Q

Codominant circulation

A

7%

176
Q

Umbilical vein PO2 and sats

A

30mmHg

80%

177
Q

Increased pulse pressure

A

hyperthyroidism, aortic regurg, aortuc stiffening, sleep apnea, exercise

178
Q

Urachus forms

A

median umbilical ligament

179
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Opening snap, late diastolic murmur –> LA dilatation

180
Q

What is the most posterior point of the heart?

A

LA

181
Q

What does the notochord form?

A

Nucleus pulposus

182
Q

Which prostaglandins keep the ductus arteriosus open?

A

E1 and E2

183
Q

Bulbus cordis gives rise to

A

Smooth parts of Left and R entricles

184
Q

Where is S1 loudest?

A

Mitral area

185
Q

PR interval

A

< 200 ms

186
Q

The effect of removing an organ in parallel arrangement

A

decreases TPR

Increases CO

187
Q

What does S4 suggest?

A

High atrial pressure, pushing against stiff ventricle

188
Q

Drugs decreasing contractility

A

B1 blockers, systolic HF, acidosis, hypoxia/ hypercapnea, non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers

189
Q

Turner heart

A

Coarctation of the aorta

190
Q

when does the heart beat spontaneously?

A

week 4

191
Q

Infant of diabetic mother

A

Transposition of great vessels

192
Q

Coarctation of the aorta associated with

A

biscuspid aortic valve
other heart defects
Turner’s syndrome

193
Q

Which shunt presents earlier with cyanosis?

A

Right to left

194
Q

Late cyanosis, clubbing, polycythaemia

A

Eisenmenger syndrome

195
Q

Complications of coarctation

A

HF, berry aneurysm, aortic rupture, endocarditis

196
Q

Aortic arch baroR transmits to

A

vagus nerve

197
Q

BNP released from

A

ventricular myocytes

198
Q

Prosthetic valve IE

A

S epidermis

199
Q

Shock - warm and dry

A

Distributive

200
Q

Bundle of Kent

A

WPW

201
Q

PAN linked with

A

Hep B

202
Q

Aorta looks like tree bark

A

Tertiary syphilis

203
Q

Granulomatous thickening and narrowing of aortic arch. Called? Who is affected?

A

Takayasu arteritis

< 40yr Asian women

204
Q

Tricuspid IE

A

IVDU
S aureas
Pseudomonas
Candida

205
Q

How does RF affect the valve?

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

M protein antibodies cross react

206
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is

A

systolic BP dropping on inspiration

207
Q

Increased antistreptolysin O (ASO)

A

RF

208
Q

Truncus arteriosus gives rise to

A

ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

209
Q

What would you hear in fixed heart splitting?

A

Inspiration and expiration the pulmonary sound is delayed

210
Q

What does a hand grip do to heart sounds?

A

Increases MR, AR, VSD

decreases hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

211
Q

peripheral chemoRs respond to

A

O2, CO2, pH decrease

212
Q

What accounts for most of the peripheral resistance?

A

Arterioles

213
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus sound

A

continuois machine like murmur, loudest at S2, left infraclavicular area

214
Q

What would you hear in wide splitting?

A

delayed pulmoary sound in inspiration

215
Q

Asthma, sinusitis, peripheral neuropahty

A

Churg-Strauss

216
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis triad

A

Focal necrotizing vasculitis
Necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway
Necrotizing glomerulonephritis

217
Q

How does Lesch-Nyhan syndrome present?

A 
HGPRT
Hyperuricemia
Gout
Pissed off (agression/ self mutilation)
Retardation
dysTonia
218
Q

Cushing reaction

A

increased ICP constricts arterioles, increased CO2, acidosis, central reflex to increase perfusion O (htn), bradycardia

219
Q

ANP action on kidneys

A

decreases Na reabsorption

220
Q

What is microscopic polyangiitis associated with?

A

MPO-ANCA

p-ANCA

221
Q

What is absent in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

HGPRT

222
Q

renal and visceral vessel arteritis

A

PAN

223
Q

Brugada syndrome

A

Looks like anterior STEMI with RBBB, asian males, VTarr. and SCD

224
Q

What does the valsalva do to heart sounds?

A

decreases most

increases hypertrophic cardiomyopathies

225
Q

What can cause long QT?

A 
ABCDE
antiArrhythmics - Ia, III
antiBiotics - macrolides
antiCycotics - haloperidol
antiDepressants - TCA
antiEmetics - ondansetron
226
Q

What is S4, where do you hear it?

A

late diastolic kick

apex, left lateral position

227
Q

Mitral valve prolapse

A

late systolic cresc, midsystolic click, apex

228
Q

Mitral and tricuspid regurg

A

panssytolic blowing, mitral - radiates to axilla, tricuspid - radiates to R sternal border

229
Q

Antischokow cells

A

RF, enlarged mpg with ovoid, wavy rod-like nucleus

230
Q

When do you hear S3?

A

mitral regurg, HF, dilated ventricles

231
Q

ductus arteriosus closed by

A

indomethacin

232
Q

2 type II Block

A

dropped beat, no change in length

233
Q

Umbilical vein forms

A

ligamentum teres hepatis (contained in the falciform ligament)

234
Q

Most common congenital cardiac abnormality

Usually occurs in

A

VSD

Mebranous septum

235
Q

Ejection fraction and HF

A

decreased in systolic, constant in diastolic

236
Q

Drugs increasing contractility

A

catecholamines, increased Ca, decreased Na, digitalis

237
Q

Drugs acting on phase 4 of pacemaker action potential

A

increasing HR - catecholamines, sympahtetic chain

Decreasing HR - ACh, adenosine

238
Q

Affects vasa vasorum of aorta

A

Syphilis

239
Q

Aschoff bodies

A

RF

granuloma with giant cells

240
Q

central chemoRs respond to

from

A

change in pH and CO2

brain, interstitial fluid

241
Q

Culture -ve IE

A 
Coxiella burnetii
Bartonella
HACEK
haemphilus
aggregatibactin (actinobacillus)
cardiobacterium
eikenella
kingella
242
Q

inferior MI bradycardia

A

atropine

Step 1 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions