Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive stain what color? what about negative?

A

Purple/red

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2
Q

Lipoteichoic acid is a property of gram + or - bacteria?

A

Gram +

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3
Q

Why can’t Vanco work on Gram - bacteria?

A

External membrane blocks it

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4
Q

Chlamydia lacks what kind of acid in its cell wall?

A

Muramic acid

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5
Q

What is transformation regarding bacterial genetics?

A

Uptake of free DNA from the environment

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6
Q

What does transposons do?

A

They transfer DNA between chromosome and plasmid

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7
Q

What kind of cells is capable of conjugating with another cell?

A

F+/Hfr

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8
Q

What’s the difference between F+ and Hfr cells?

A

F+ cells have the F factor in the plasmid/F factor is integrated into the chromosomes in Hfr cells

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9
Q

What is the difference of conjugation between F+ and Hfr cells?

A

During conjugating of Hfr cells—>the entire genome would be transferred instead of just the F factor plasmid of F+ cells

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10
Q

What kind of cells are responsible for transduction of bacteria?

A

Phage virus

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11
Q

What is the only kind of gram + cells that have LPS?

A

Listeria

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12
Q

Which toxin is heat stable, endotoxin or exotoxin? and what is the exception?

A

Endotoxin is heat stable/S aureus produces exotoxin that is heat stable

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13
Q

Which toxin is immunogenic (can produce an vaccine against it), endo or exo?

A

Exotoxin is immunogenic

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14
Q

What are superantigens and what are the 2 examples?

A

Antigens that unselectively activate everything in your immune system—>cytokine storms
S. aureus—>TSST-1
S. pyogenes—>exotoxin A

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15
Q

What are 2 examples of toxin that are cAMP inducers?

A

Cholera and anthrax toxin

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16
Q

What kind of agar is Pertussis grows on?

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

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17
Q

Fungi grows on ___ agar?

A

Sabouraud agar

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18
Q

What are the 3 bacteria that cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma/Chlamydia/Legionella

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19
Q

Barking kind of cough (seal?) with inspiratory stridor, is it pharyngitis or epiglottis?

A

Epiglottis

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20
Q

Sinusitis usually occurs after?

A

Viral infection

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21
Q

What to give first to food poisoning pts?

A

Fluid, antibiotics are not always necessary

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22
Q

Gastritis presents with ___ enteritis presents with ____?

A

Vomiting/diarrhea

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23
Q

Campylobacter presents with? and its from?

A

Bloody diarrhea/spoiled chicken

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24
Q

Get food poisoning from reheated rice, think what bacteria?

A

Bacillus cereus

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25
Pt with pyelonephritis/high fever/"swarming" on agar/struvite stones, think what bacteria?
Proteus
26
Young pt with arthritis in one knee, think what bacteria?
Gonnorrhea
27
Which one can kill, viral or bacterial meningitis?
Bacterial
28
Signs in babies with meningitis?
Lethargy/irritable/not able to feed well
29
Why do pregoes shouldn't have unpasteurized milk?
It might contain Listeria--->cross placenta--->meningitis
30
Swap vagina, see clue cells and have a positive whiff test, diagnosis?
Gardenella
31
Itchy vagina/strawberry cervix/parasite swims on wet mount, what kind of parasite is it?
Trichomonas vaginitis
32
What is chandelier sign?
Tender cervix--->caused by PID from gonnorrhea or chlamydia
33
Only gram + or - bacteria can form spores? and what is responsible for that?
Gram +/teichoic acid pumps water out of the cell
34
What does catalase do?
Break hydrogen peroxide into water and O2--->protect bacteria from oxidative damage
35
What do staph and strep look like under microscopy?
Cluster/chain
36
Coagulase + means the bacteria will form ___?
Abscess
37
What is the second most common bacteria that causes UTI?
S. saprophyticus
38
What is the significance of protein A on the surface of S. aureus?
It binds to the Fc (handle part) part of IgG--->prevent opsonization
39
What bacteria seeds prothetic valves?
S. epidermidis
40
How do alpha and beta hemolytic bacteria present on blood agar?
Green/clear
41
What group of bacteria cause subacute endocarditis?
Viridian group
42
What does the M protein of S. pyogenes do?
Cleave C3 convertease--->prevent complement
43
What are the 2 gram + gamma hemolytic bacteria?
enterococcus/S. bovis
44
How does autoclave work?
High pressure putting water into spores and burst them
45
Gram + rods in chain with poly-D-gluatmate capsule, think?
B. anthracis
46
Gram + or - has an outer membrane in their cell wall?
Gram -
47
What is Fitz Hugh Curtis disease? and what causes it?
Infection of liver capsule from N. Gonorrhea (violin adhesion between the peritoneum and the liver)
48
What are the 3 antigen of enterobacteriaceae?
O antigen of the LPS/H antigen on the flagella/K antigen on capsule
49
What are the 3 non lactose fermenting enterobacteriaceae?
Proteus/Salmonella/shigella
50
How to distinguish Salmonella from Shigella on Hektoen agar?
Salmonella: black Shigella: green
51
What cell does Shigella invade through?
M cell in the GI
52
Bacillary dysentery is caused by what bacteria? and what do you find in the stool sample?
Shigella/blood and pus
53
What is EUEC and what does it cause? and what virulent fact does it have?
One strain of E. coli--->causes UTI/fimbriae
54
Which serotype of E. coli causes infant meningitis?
K
55
What does urease do? what does it do for bacteria?
Break urea into ammonia and CO2/decrease acidity to invade
56
How does vibrio cholera causes watery diarrhea?
It stimulate Gs---->increase cAMP--->increase water secretion into the intestinal lumen--->watery diarrhea
57
What is the number 1 bacteria that causes diarrhea?
Campylobacter
58
What are the 3 anaerobic bacteria?
ABC Actinomyces Bacteroides C. diff
59
What are 4 urea producing bacteria?
Proteus/ureoplasma/klebsiella/helicobacter pylori
60
What kind of cell are involved in granuloma formation of TB infection?
TH1 helper T cells
61
What does ureaplasma causes?
Urethritis
62
Arrange in descending order of size of borrelia/treponema/leptospira
Borrelia---leptospira---treponema
63
What does treponema pertenue also called and what does it cause?
Yaws/infection of skin bone and joints
64
Will treponema pertenue be VDRL + or -?
+
65
What is the confirmatory test for treponema pallidum?
FTA-ABS (antibody)
66
What bacteria causes the cat scratch fever?
Bartonella
67
What does Brucella causes?
Undulating fever/from unpasteurized diary product
68
What bacteria do you get from handling rabbits?
Tularensis
69
What does pasteurella causes and where do you get it from?
Cellulitis from animal bites (cats/dogs)
70
How does rickettsia prowazakii transmitted?
Lyse poops on you--->you scratch the lice--->lice die--->transmit
71
What causes the endemic and epidemic typhus?
R. typhi (flea) /R. prowazekii (lice)
72
What kind of test is used to diagnose chlamydia?
NAAT
73
How to distinguish chlamydia from gonorrhea with congenital conjunctivitis and pneumonia?
Gonorrhea presents right after birth/chlamydia presents after 1-2 weeks
74
What does serotype L1-L3 of chlamydia causes?
lymphogranuloma venereum--->start with painless genital ulcer and then painful LAD
75
What type of pneumonia does chlamydia pneumoniae causes?
Atypical pneumonia
76
What does chlamydia psittaci causes? and where do you get it from?
Pneumonia/birds
77
Why is chlamydia obligate intracellular?
They need host ATP
78
When lyme involves CNS, can you culture borrelia from the CSF?
No
79
What drug should be given for 3rd degree heart block and encephalopathy caused by lyme disease?
Ceftriaxone
80
Ergosterol is in the cell wall of what kind of organism?
Fungi
81
Why do we use KOH to visualize fungi?
KOH dissolve away human cells and leave fungi behind
82
Are dermatophytes dimorphic?
No, only hyphae
83
What is sporotrichosis and what organism causes it?
lymphangitis/Sporothrix schenckii
84
What is the shape of the yeast of sporothrix schenckii?
Cigar shaped
85
Which fungi is endemic around Mississippi/Ohio river or central US? what about great lakes?
Histo/blasto
86
See germ tube formation, think what kind of organism?
Candida
87
What type of pneumonia does pneumocystis Jiroveci causes?
Diffuse interstitial pneumonia
88
What are the 2 kinds of parasites?
Protozoa (singe cell)/helminth (worm/multicellular)
89
What are fat soluble vitamins?
ADEK
90
Pts with HIV and seizure, think which parasite infection?
Toxoplasmosis
91
What kind of tissue does Chagas disease effect?
Muscle
92
What are other names for cestodes and nematodes
Tapeworm/roundworm
93
What form of Taenia solium is ingested to present neurocysticercosis?
Egg
94
Which part of the intestine does Diphyllobothrium latum block? and what results?
Terminal ileum--->causes B12 deficiency
95
What are hookworms? what does it present?
Ancylostoma or necator amercianus/suck blood from intestine--->anorexia/anemia/weight loss
96
What drug is used to treat hookworm?
Albendazole
97
What is pinworm?
Enterobius vermicularis
98
What is the mechanism of albendazole?
Cause microtubule dysfunction
99
What is whipworm? how do you get it and what does it present?
Trichuris trichura/egg found in soil/usually asymptomatic--->abdominal pain/diarrhea/rectal prolapse
100
What are flukes?
Trematodes
101
The treatment of plasmodium is aim to get rid of what form of plasmodium?
Merozoites
102
What are naked viruses CPR PAPP H smear
CPR (RNA viruses) - Calcivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus PAPP (DNA viruses) - Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papilloma, Polyoma H - Hepevirus
103
What is the eclipse phase of viral replication?
Virus going into the cell
104
Where do you find GP41 and GP120 and what do they do?
On the surface of HIV/GP120--->binds to CCR5 or CXCR4 on CD4--->promote absorption/GP41--->promote the entry of the cell
105
What's the difference of cell entry between naked and encapsulated viruses?
Encapsulated--->fusion of the membrane | Naked--->taken in by endocytosis--->has to escape lysosome
106
What are the steps of viral replication?
Attachment--->penetration--->uncoating--->replication---->assembly--->release
107
All DNA viruses are single or double strand viruses? and what is the exception?
Double stranded/Parvovirus
108
All RNA viruses are single or double strand viruses? and what is the exception?
Single stranded/reovirus
109
What does + and - sense RNA mean?
+ sens--->same direction as messenger RNA--->can be translated by host cell ribozyme right away - sense--->come with its own RNA dependent RNA polymerase--->then makes + sense RNA
110
Whats the difference between naked and capsulated viruses upon existing the cells?
Naked--->need to burst the cell (kill) | Capsulated--->can bud out of the cell
111
What are abortive and cytolytic viral infection?
Abortive--->virus is not able to proliferate | Cytolytic--->virus replicates in cell and lyse the cell
112
What kind of immunity does live attenuated and killed vaccine produce?
Live attenuate--->humoral and cell mediated | Killed--->only humoral
113
What are the 4 killed vaccines?
Polio/HAV/rabies/influenza
114
What are the DNA viruses (H2AP4)?
Hepadna/Herpes/Adeno/Pox/Parvo/Papilloma/Polyoma
115
What is the shape of the genome of DNA viruses?
All linear except for papilloma/polyoma/hepadna (circular)
116
What is the membrane of Herpes virus come from?
Nuclear membrane
117
How does monospot test performed?
Mix pt serum with sheep blood--->agglutination (EBV)
118
How do you tell the difference between viral hepatitis from alcohol hepatitis in terms of liver enzyme?
Viral: ALT is greater than AST Alcohol: AST is greater than ALT
119
What is the progression of erythema infectiosum?
Low grade fever that last about a week--->fever stops--->slapped cheek rash on face and then rash travels down to body
120
What cell does parvovirus infect?
Erythroblast
121
What is variola?
Small pox
122
Vesicles at various stages of evolution describes what kind of rash that is caused by this virus?
Chickenpox
123
What are the + sense RNA viruses?
I went to a retro (retrovirus) toga (togavirus) party, where I drank flavored (flavivirus) Corona (coronavirus) and ate hipster (hepevirus) California (calicivirus) pickles (picornavirus)
124
All RNA viruses are linear or circular except for?
All are linear except for Arena/Bunya/Deltavirus
125
All RNA replicate in nucleus or cytoplasm, except for what?
Cytoplasm except for influenza and retrovirus
126
What virus is the #1 gastroenteritis in children? what is its route of transmission? it can cause transient __ intolerance?
Rotavirus/fecal oral/lactose
127
What are the 4 segmented RNA viruses?
``` BOAR Bunya Orthomyxo Arena Reo ```
128
Which influenza subtype is associated with both antigenic drift and shift?
A | B is just drift
129
Which subtype of influenza has M2 protein?
A
130
Tamiflu must be given within ___ hours?
72 hours
131
What is German measles?
Togavirus--->rubella
132
When does the rash of the measles start?
1 or 2 days after koplik spots--->rash start from head then down
133
What symptoms does rhabdovirus causes at the mucosal?
Increase salivary production/painful spasm of the muscle of the throat and larynx
134
What are the 3 arboviruses?
Bites transmit fever | Bunya/toga/flavivirus
135
How is hep E transmitted and what is its target population?
Dirty water/pregos
136
Which surface protein indicate high transmissibility of hep B?
HBeAg
137
What can HIV causes directly?
Renal/liver dysfunction/encephalitis and dementia
138
Primary CNS lymphoma is only seen in ___ pt?
AIDS
139
What is the congenital infection of HIV?
Recurrent infection/chronic diarrhea
140
What is normal vaginal pH?
4-4.5
141
Is the ulcer from lymphogranuloma venerum painful or painless? what about genital herpes?
Painless/painful
142
Which strand of S. pyogenes cause post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Exotoxin B
143
What does coagulase do?
Convert fibrinogen to fibrin