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Unit 4 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive stain what color? what about negative?

A

Purple/red

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2
Q

Lipoteichoic acid is a property of gram + or - bacteria?

A

Gram +

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3
Q

Why can’t Vanco work on Gram - bacteria?

A

External membrane blocks it

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4
Q

Chlamydia lacks what kind of acid in its cell wall?

A

Muramic acid

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5
Q

What is transformation regarding bacterial genetics?

A

Uptake of free DNA from the environment

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6
Q

What does transposons do?

A

They transfer DNA between chromosome and plasmid

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7
Q

What kind of cells is capable of conjugating with another cell?

A

F+/Hfr

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8
Q

What’s the difference between F+ and Hfr cells?

A

F+ cells have the F factor in the plasmid/F factor is integrated into the chromosomes in Hfr cells

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9
Q

What is the difference of conjugation between F+ and Hfr cells?

A

During conjugating of Hfr cells—>the entire genome would be transferred instead of just the F factor plasmid of F+ cells

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10
Q

What kind of cells are responsible for transduction of bacteria?

A

Phage virus

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11
Q

What is the only kind of gram + cells that have LPS?

A

Listeria

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12
Q

Which toxin is heat stable, endotoxin or exotoxin? and what is the exception?

A

Endotoxin is heat stable/S aureus produces exotoxin that is heat stable

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13
Q

Which toxin is immunogenic (can produce an vaccine against it), endo or exo?

A

Exotoxin is immunogenic

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14
Q

What are superantigens and what are the 2 examples?

A

Antigens that unselectively activate everything in your immune system—>cytokine storms
S. aureus—>TSST-1
S. pyogenes—>exotoxin A

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15
Q

What are 2 examples of toxin that are cAMP inducers?

A

Cholera and anthrax toxin

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16
Q

What kind of agar is Pertussis grows on?

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

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17
Q

Fungi grows on ___ agar?

A

Sabouraud agar

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18
Q

What are the 3 bacteria that cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma/Chlamydia/Legionella

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19
Q

Barking kind of cough (seal?) with inspiratory stridor, is it pharyngitis or epiglottis?

A

Epiglottis

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20
Q

Sinusitis usually occurs after?

A

Viral infection

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21
Q

What to give first to food poisoning pts?

A

Fluid, antibiotics are not always necessary

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22
Q

Gastritis presents with ___ enteritis presents with ____?

A

Vomiting/diarrhea

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23
Q

Campylobacter presents with? and its from?

A

Bloody diarrhea/spoiled chicken

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24
Q

Get food poisoning from reheated rice, think what bacteria?

A

Bacillus cereus

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25
Q

Pt with pyelonephritis/high fever/”swarming” on agar/struvite stones, think what bacteria?

A

Proteus

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26
Q

Young pt with arthritis in one knee, think what bacteria?

A

Gonnorrhea

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27
Q

Which one can kill, viral or bacterial meningitis?

A

Bacterial

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28
Q

Signs in babies with meningitis?

A

Lethargy/irritable/not able to feed well

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29
Q

Why do pregoes shouldn’t have unpasteurized milk?

A

It might contain Listeria—>cross placenta—>meningitis

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30
Q

Swap vagina, see clue cells and have a positive whiff test, diagnosis?

A

Gardenella

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31
Q

Itchy vagina/strawberry cervix/parasite swims on wet mount, what kind of parasite is it?

A

Trichomonas vaginitis

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32
Q

What is chandelier sign?

A

Tender cervix—>caused by PID from gonnorrhea or chlamydia

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33
Q

Only gram + or - bacteria can form spores? and what is responsible for that?

A

Gram +/teichoic acid pumps water out of the cell

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34
Q

What does catalase do?

A

Break hydrogen peroxide into water and O2—>protect bacteria from oxidative damage

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35
Q

What do staph and strep look like under microscopy?

A

Cluster/chain

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36
Q

Coagulase + means the bacteria will form ___?

A

Abscess

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37
Q

What is the second most common bacteria that causes UTI?

A

S. saprophyticus

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38
Q

What is the significance of protein A on the surface of S. aureus?

A

It binds to the Fc (handle part) part of IgG—>prevent opsonization

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39
Q

What bacteria seeds prothetic valves?

A

S. epidermidis

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40
Q

How do alpha and beta hemolytic bacteria present on blood agar?

A

Green/clear

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41
Q

What group of bacteria cause subacute endocarditis?

A

Viridian group

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42
Q

What does the M protein of S. pyogenes do?

A

Cleave C3 convertease—>prevent complement

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43
Q

What are the 2 gram + gamma hemolytic bacteria?

A

enterococcus/S. bovis

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44
Q

How does autoclave work?

A

High pressure putting water into spores and burst them

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45
Q

Gram + rods in chain with poly-D-gluatmate capsule, think?

A

B. anthracis

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46
Q

Gram + or - has an outer membrane in their cell wall?

A

Gram -

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47
Q

What is Fitz Hugh Curtis disease? and what causes it?

A

Infection of liver capsule from N. Gonorrhea (violin adhesion between the peritoneum and the liver)

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48
Q

What are the 3 antigen of enterobacteriaceae?

A

O antigen of the LPS/H antigen on the flagella/K antigen on capsule

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49
Q

What are the 3 non lactose fermenting enterobacteriaceae?

A

Proteus/Salmonella/shigella

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50
Q

How to distinguish Salmonella from Shigella on Hektoen agar?

A

Salmonella: black
Shigella: green

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51
Q

What cell does Shigella invade through?

A

M cell in the GI

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52
Q

Bacillary dysentery is caused by what bacteria? and what do you find in the stool sample?

A

Shigella/blood and pus

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53
Q

What is EUEC and what does it cause? and what virulent fact does it have?

A

One strain of E. coli—>causes UTI/fimbriae

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54
Q

Which serotype of E. coli causes infant meningitis?

A

K

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55
Q

What does urease do? what does it do for bacteria?

A

Break urea into ammonia and CO2/decrease acidity to invade

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56
Q

How does vibrio cholera causes watery diarrhea?

A

It stimulate Gs—->increase cAMP—>increase water secretion into the intestinal lumen—>watery diarrhea

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57
Q

What is the number 1 bacteria that causes diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter

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58
Q

What are the 3 anaerobic bacteria?

A

ABC
Actinomyces
Bacteroides
C. diff

59
Q

What are 4 urea producing bacteria?

A

Proteus/ureoplasma/klebsiella/helicobacter pylori

60
Q

What kind of cell are involved in granuloma formation of TB infection?

A

TH1 helper T cells

61
Q

What does ureaplasma causes?

A

Urethritis

62
Q

Arrange in descending order of size of borrelia/treponema/leptospira

A

Borrelia—leptospira—treponema

63
Q

What does treponema pertenue also called and what does it cause?

A

Yaws/infection of skin bone and joints

64
Q

Will treponema pertenue be VDRL + or -?

65
Q

What is the confirmatory test for treponema pallidum?

A

FTA-ABS (antibody)

66
Q

What bacteria causes the cat scratch fever?

A

Bartonella

67
Q

What does Brucella causes?

A

Undulating fever/from unpasteurized diary product

68
Q

What bacteria do you get from handling rabbits?

A

Tularensis

69
Q

What does pasteurella causes and where do you get it from?

A

Cellulitis from animal bites (cats/dogs)

70
Q

How does rickettsia prowazakii transmitted?

A

Lyse poops on you—>you scratch the lice—>lice die—>transmit

71
Q

What causes the endemic and epidemic typhus?

A

R. typhi (flea) /R. prowazekii (lice)

72
Q

What kind of test is used to diagnose chlamydia?

73
Q

How to distinguish chlamydia from gonorrhea with congenital conjunctivitis and pneumonia?

A

Gonorrhea presents right after birth/chlamydia presents after 1-2 weeks

74
Q

What does serotype L1-L3 of chlamydia causes?

A

lymphogranuloma venereum—>start with painless genital ulcer and then painful LAD

75
Q

What type of pneumonia does chlamydia pneumoniae causes?

A

Atypical pneumonia

76
Q

What does chlamydia psittaci causes? and where do you get it from?

A

Pneumonia/birds

77
Q

Why is chlamydia obligate intracellular?

A

They need host ATP

78
Q

When lyme involves CNS, can you culture borrelia from the CSF?

79
Q

What drug should be given for 3rd degree heart block and encephalopathy caused by lyme disease?

A

Ceftriaxone

80
Q

Ergosterol is in the cell wall of what kind of organism?

81
Q

Why do we use KOH to visualize fungi?

A

KOH dissolve away human cells and leave fungi behind

82
Q

Are dermatophytes dimorphic?

A

No, only hyphae

83
Q

What is sporotrichosis and what organism causes it?

A

lymphangitis/Sporothrix schenckii

84
Q

What is the shape of the yeast of sporothrix schenckii?

A

Cigar shaped

85
Q

Which fungi is endemic around Mississippi/Ohio river or central US? what about great lakes?

A

Histo/blasto

86
Q

See germ tube formation, think what kind of organism?

87
Q

What type of pneumonia does pneumocystis Jiroveci causes?

A

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia

88
Q

What are the 2 kinds of parasites?

A

Protozoa (singe cell)/helminth (worm/multicellular)

89
Q

What are fat soluble vitamins?

90
Q

Pts with HIV and seizure, think which parasite infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis

91
Q

What kind of tissue does Chagas disease effect?

92
Q

What are other names for cestodes and nematodes

A

Tapeworm/roundworm

93
Q

What form of Taenia solium is ingested to present neurocysticercosis?

94
Q

Which part of the intestine does Diphyllobothrium latum block? and what results?

A

Terminal ileum—>causes B12 deficiency

95
Q

What are hookworms? what does it present?

A

Ancylostoma or necator amercianus/suck blood from intestine—>anorexia/anemia/weight loss

96
Q

What drug is used to treat hookworm?

A

Albendazole

97
Q

What is pinworm?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

98
Q

What is the mechanism of albendazole?

A

Cause microtubule dysfunction

99
Q

What is whipworm? how do you get it and what does it present?

A

Trichuris trichura/egg found in soil/usually asymptomatic—>abdominal pain/diarrhea/rectal prolapse

100
Q

What are flukes?

A

Trematodes

101
Q

The treatment of plasmodium is aim to get rid of what form of plasmodium?

A

Merozoites

102
Q

What are naked viruses CPR PAPP H smear

A

CPR (RNA viruses) - Calcivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus
PAPP (DNA viruses) - Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papilloma, Polyoma
H - Hepevirus

103
Q

What is the eclipse phase of viral replication?

A

Virus going into the cell

104
Q

Where do you find GP41 and GP120 and what do they do?

A

On the surface of HIV/GP120—>binds to CCR5 or CXCR4 on CD4—>promote absorption/GP41—>promote the entry of the cell

105
Q

What’s the difference of cell entry between naked and encapsulated viruses?

A

Encapsulated—>fusion of the membrane

Naked—>taken in by endocytosis—>has to escape lysosome

106
Q

What are the steps of viral replication?

A

Attachment—>penetration—>uncoating—>replication—->assembly—>release

107
Q

All DNA viruses are single or double strand viruses? and what is the exception?

A

Double stranded/Parvovirus

108
Q

All RNA viruses are single or double strand viruses? and what is the exception?

A

Single stranded/reovirus

109
Q

What does + and - sense RNA mean?

A

+ sens—>same direction as messenger RNA—>can be translated by host cell ribozyme right away
- sense—>come with its own RNA dependent RNA polymerase—>then makes + sense RNA

110
Q

Whats the difference between naked and capsulated viruses upon existing the cells?

A

Naked—>need to burst the cell (kill)

Capsulated—>can bud out of the cell

111
Q

What are abortive and cytolytic viral infection?

A

Abortive—>virus is not able to proliferate

Cytolytic—>virus replicates in cell and lyse the cell

112
Q

What kind of immunity does live attenuated and killed vaccine produce?

A

Live attenuate—>humoral and cell mediated

Killed—>only humoral

113
Q

What are the 4 killed vaccines?

A

Polio/HAV/rabies/influenza

114
Q

What are the DNA viruses (H2AP4)?

A

Hepadna/Herpes/Adeno/Pox/Parvo/Papilloma/Polyoma

115
Q

What is the shape of the genome of DNA viruses?

A

All linear except for papilloma/polyoma/hepadna (circular)

116
Q

What is the membrane of Herpes virus come from?

A

Nuclear membrane

117
Q

How does monospot test performed?

A

Mix pt serum with sheep blood—>agglutination (EBV)

118
Q

How do you tell the difference between viral hepatitis from alcohol hepatitis in terms of liver enzyme?

A

Viral: ALT is greater than AST
Alcohol: AST is greater than ALT

119
Q

What is the progression of erythema infectiosum?

A

Low grade fever that last about a week—>fever stops—>slapped cheek rash on face and then rash travels down to body

120
Q

What cell does parvovirus infect?

A

Erythroblast

121
Q

What is variola?

122
Q

Vesicles at various stages of evolution describes what kind of rash that is caused by this virus?

A

Chickenpox

123
Q

What are the + sense RNA viruses?

A

I went to a retro (retrovirus) toga (togavirus) party, where I drank flavored (flavivirus) Corona (coronavirus) and ate hipster (hepevirus) California (calicivirus) pickles (picornavirus)

124
Q

All RNA viruses are linear or circular except for?

A

All are linear except for Arena/Bunya/Deltavirus

125
Q

All RNA replicate in nucleus or cytoplasm, except for what?

A

Cytoplasm except for influenza and retrovirus

126
Q

What virus is the #1 gastroenteritis in children? what is its route of transmission? it can cause transient __ intolerance?

A

Rotavirus/fecal oral/lactose

127
Q

What are the 4 segmented RNA viruses?

A 
BOAR
Bunya
Orthomyxo
Arena
Reo
128
Q

Which influenza subtype is associated with both antigenic drift and shift?

A

A

B is just drift

129
Q

Which subtype of influenza has M2 protein?

130
Q

Tamiflu must be given within ___ hours?

131
Q

What is German measles?

A

Togavirus—>rubella

132
Q

When does the rash of the measles start?

A

1 or 2 days after koplik spots—>rash start from head then down

133
Q

What symptoms does rhabdovirus causes at the mucosal?

A

Increase salivary production/painful spasm of the muscle of the throat and larynx

134
Q

What are the 3 arboviruses?

A

Bites transmit fever

Bunya/toga/flavivirus

135
Q

How is hep E transmitted and what is its target population?

A

Dirty water/pregos

136
Q

Which surface protein indicate high transmissibility of hep B?

137
Q

What can HIV causes directly?

A

Renal/liver dysfunction/encephalitis and dementia

138
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma is only seen in ___ pt?

139
Q

What is the congenital infection of HIV?

A

Recurrent infection/chronic diarrhea

140
Q

What is normal vaginal pH?

141
Q

Is the ulcer from lymphogranuloma venerum painful or painless? what about genital herpes?

A

Painless/painful

142
Q

Which strand of S. pyogenes cause post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Exotoxin B

143
Q

What does coagulase do?

A

Convert fibrinogen to fibrin

Unit 4 (28 decks)

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