Anesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the inhaled anesthetics?

A

Nitric oxide
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is MAC (minimal alveolar concentration) in terms of inhaled anesthetics? and how is it related to potency?

A

Minimal alveolar con. when 50% of pt do not response surgical stimulus
High MAC—>lower potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is nitric oxide used as an anesthetics?

A

Use with other inhaled anesthetics since it has a really high MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does blood/gas ratio means for inhaled anesthetics?

A

The lower the ratio—>the faster the onset/recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The more lipid or water soluble the anesthetics, the lower the MAC?

A

More lipid soluble—>lower MAC—>more potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MAC is lower in what population?

A

Elderly/the presence of opioid or sedative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is midazolam used for and what is its effect?

A
IV anesthetics (short acting benzo)--->preoperative sedation
Anterograde amnesia (don't remember anything after taking the drug)--->date rape drug or use it before colonoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is propofol and its mechanism? can you use it for pt with pre existing cardiac disease?

A

IV anesthetics for induction and maintenance of anesthesia
GABAa agonist
Antiemetic
No—>it is a cardiac depressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is etomidate compares with propofol?

A

All GABAa agonist but etomidate is not a cardiac depressant—>use for pt with pre existing cardiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is fentanyl?

A

IV anesthesia (opiate) use for induction and maintenance of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of ketamine?

A

NMDA blocker—>IV anesthesia—>induction of anesthesia

Disassociative anesthesia—>hallucination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the IV anesthesia for asthmatics?

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Weak bases—>basic environment (nonionized form) to cross axonal membrane—>then ionized form to be active—>prolong inactivated state of the Na channel—>prevent them from returning to rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What toxins work similarly to local anesthetics?

A

Tetrodotoxin and saxitoxin (both from puffer fish)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 classes of local anesthetics and how to distinguish them? and how are they metabolized?

A

Esters—>have one “i” in their names—>metabolized by plasma and tissue esterases
Amide—>have more than one “i” in their names—>metabolized by liver amidases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the similarity between antiarrhythmia/antiepileptic/local anesthesia in terms of nerve fiber sensitivity?

A

They target the fiber that is firing the fastest

17
Q

What kind of fiber is most sensitive to local anesthetics?

A

The smaller/faster the more sensitive
Type B/C (pain)—>type A delta—>type A beta and gamma—>type A alpha (motor)
Recovery is the reverse

18
Q

Local anesthetics should be taken with __ to prevent it from entering the systemic circulation? and which local anesthetics do not need to do that?

A

Alpha 1 agonist (vasoconstrict)
Cocaine does not need to be taken with alpha 1 agonist—>it blocks Na channel and also prevent uptake of NE (vasoconstrict)—>nasal ischemia

19
Q

Which class of local anesthetics cause allergy and why?

A

Esters—>they form PABA

20
Q

How do nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants work? how do you reverse the affects? what muscles do they work on?

A

Block the 2 alpha subunits of Nm receptor—>competitive antagonist
Reverse the affect with AChE inhibitors
Only skeletal muscles—>no cardiac and smooth muscle

21
Q

Do nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants have any CNS effects? if yes what are they?

A

Trick question—>NO

22
Q

What are the nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants?

A

“curium” “curonium”
Atracurium
Mivacurium
Pancuronium

23
Q

Which nondepolarizing Nm blockers can be used with pt with liver/renal disease? and why?

A

Atracurium—>spontaneous metabolize to laudanosine—>may cause seizure

24
Q

What is the depolarizing Nm blocker? how does it work?

A
Succinylcholine--->noncompetitive Nm agonist 
Phase I (initial depolarization--->flaccid paralysis)---->phase II (desensitization)
25
Q

What group of drugs might increase phase I of succinylcholine?

A

AChE inhibitors

26
Q

If a pt takes a long time to recover from succinylcholine, what do you suspect?

A

Pt might have atypical pseudocholinesterase (can’t metabolize succinylcholine sufficiently)

27
Q

What are the 2 side effects of succinylcholine and how do they occur?

A

Hyperkalemia—>Na rushes into the muscles cells and K leaks out
Malignant hyperthermia—>muscle rigidity (life threatening)

28
Q

Which 3 syndromes present with malignant hyperthermia and muscle rigidity?

A

Malignant hyperthermia as a side effect of succinylcholine
Serotonin syndrome
NMS as side effect from typical antipsychotic

29
Q

What kind of pt is more susceptible for malignant hyperthermia from succinylcholine?

A

Pt with mutation in genes that code ryanodine receptors or part of L type Ca channel in skeletal muscle?

30
Q

What drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia from succinylcholine?

A

Dantrolene—>block Ca release from SR in skeletal muscle cells

31
Q

What are the 2 centrally acting Nm blockers?

A

Benzo—>GABAa (Cl channel)
Baclofen—>GABAb (K channel)
Use for spasticity