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FA > micro - viruses > Flashcards

micro - viruses Flashcards

1
Q

exchange of genes b/w 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

A

recombination

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2
Q

viruses w/ segmented genomes exchange segments - high freq recomb

A

reassortment

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3
Q

cause of worldwide influenza pandemics

A

reassortment

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4
Q

2 viruses infect cell –> 1 has mutated nonfunctional protein so the second virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses

A

complementation

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5
Q

2 viruses infect cell –> share coat proteins but still 2 distinct genetic material

A

phenotypic mixing

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6
Q

vaccine that induced humoral and cell mediated immunity

A

live attenuated

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7
Q

what type of immunity does killed/inactivated vaccine induce

A

humoral immunity

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8
Q

which vaccines dont req a booster

A

live attentuated

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9
Q

live attenuated vaccines

A

LIVE! nSYCnS MMRI - small pox, yellow fever, chicken pox (VZV), sabin’s polio virus, measles, mumps, rubella, influenza (intranasal)

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10
Q

live attenuated vaccine that can be given to HIV-positive patients who do not show signs of immunodeficiency

A

MMR - measles, mumps, rubella

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11
Q

killed vaccines

A

RIP Always - rabies, influenza (injected), salK polio, HAV

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12
Q

recombinant vaccines

A

HBV, HPV (6,11,16,18)

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13
Q

the only DNA virus that is ssDNA

A

parvovirus - part of a virus

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14
Q

the only DNA viruses that are not linear

A

papilloma, polyoma, and hepadnavirus (circular)

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15
Q

the only RNA virus that is dsRNA

A

reoviridae

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16
Q

positive stranded RNA viruses

A

i went to a retro toga party where I drank flavored corona and ate hippy california pickles
retrovirus, togavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, hepevirus, calicivirus, picornavirus

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17
Q

structure of naked virus

A

icosahedral capsid and nucleic acid

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18
Q

infectious naked viruses

A

purified nucleic acid of most dsDNA and positive stranded ssRNA = infectious

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19
Q

noninfectious naked viruses

A

negative strand ssrNA and dsRNA - req. polymerases contains in complete virion

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20
Q

virus ploidy

A

all viruses are haploid (1 copy DNA or RNA)

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21
Q

the only virus that is diploid

A

retrovirus (2 identical ssRNA)

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22
Q

where do DNA viruses replicate

A

nucleus

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23
Q

the only DNA virus that does not replicate in the nucleus

A

poxvirus

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24
Q

where do RNA viruses replicate

A

cytoplasm

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25
Q

the only RNA viruses that do not replicate in the cytoplasm

A

influenza virus and retrovirus

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26
Q

naked viruses

A

PAPP smears and CPR to hippys - papillomavirus, adenmoc virus, parvovirus, polyomavirus, calcivirus, picornovirus, reovirus, and hepevirus

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27
Q

where do enveloped viruses acquire their envopes

A

plasma membranes when they exit from the cell

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28
Q

which viruses acquire their envelopes from nuclear membranes

A

herpesviruses

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29
Q

naked RNA viruses

A

CPR (calcivirus, picornovirus, reovirus) and hepevirus

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30
Q

naked DNA viruses

A

PAPP - papillomavirus, adenmoc virus, parvovirus, polyomavirus

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31
Q

DNA viruses

A

HHAPPPPy - hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma

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32
Q

all DNA viruses aree…

A

double stranded, linear, icosahedral, replicate in nucleus

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33
Q

herpes viruses

A

dsDNA, linear, enveloped

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34
Q

HSV1 transmission

A

resp secretions and saliva

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35
Q

HSV1 diseases

A

gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, herpes labialis

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36
Q

most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US

A

HSV1

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37
Q

where does HSV1 remain latent

A

trigeminal ganglion

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38
Q

HSV2 route of transmission

A

sexual contact, perianal

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39
Q

HSV2 diseases

A

herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes

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40
Q

where does HSV2 remain latent

A

sacral ganglion

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41
Q

VZV transmission

A

resp secretions

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42
Q

VZV disease

A

varicella zoster (chicken pox/shingles), encephalitis, pneumonia

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43
Q

where does VZV remain

A

dorsal root or trigeminal ganglion

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44
Q

EBV transmission

A

resp secretions and saliva

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45
Q

EBV diseases

A

infectious mono, burkitts/hodgkins lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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46
Q

where does EBV remain latent

A

B cells

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47
Q

CMV transmission

A

congential, trasnfusion, sex, saliva, urine, transplant

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48
Q

CMV disease

A

congenital infection, mono (negative monospot), pneumonia, retinitis

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49
Q

owls eye inclusions

A

CMV

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50
Q

where does CMV remain latent

A

mononuclear cells

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51
Q

mono with negative monospot

A

CMV

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52
Q

mono with positive monospot

A

EBV

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53
Q

highly associated with transplants

A

CMV

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54
Q

HHV-6

A

roseola - high fevers for several days that can cause seizures –> diffuse macular rash

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55
Q

HHV-8

A

kaposi’s sarcoma (HIV patients) via sexual contact

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56
Q

test of choice for HSV

A

PCR

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57
Q

tzanck test

A

detects multinucleated giant cells (HSV-1,2 and VZV)

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58
Q

intranuclear cowdry A inclusions

A

HSV

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59
Q

EBV sx

A

fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical nodes)

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60
Q

EBV peripheral blood smear

A

atypical lymphocytes = reactive cytotoxic T cells (hugging of RBC)

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61
Q

EBV test

A

positive monospot test - heterophile antibodies

also associated with hodgkins and endemic burkitts lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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62
Q

kissing disease

A

EBV

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63
Q

hepadnavirus

A

dsDNA, enveloped, partial circular
HBV - acute/chronic hepatitis
vaccine - HBV surface antigen
has reverse transcriptase

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64
Q

adenovirus

A

dsDNA linear
febrile pharyngitis - sore throat w/ acute hemoorhagic cystitis
pneumonia
conjunctivitis - pink eye

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65
Q

enveloped DNA viruses

A

herpes, hepadnovirus and poxvirus

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66
Q

parvovirus characteristics

A

SS and linear (smallest)

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67
Q

B19 virus

A

parvovirus

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68
Q

B19 virus sx

A

aplastic crises in sickle cell disease, SLAPPED CHEEKS rash in kids (erythema infectiosum)
RBC destruction in fetus –> hydrops fetalis + death
pure RBC aplasia and RA-like sx in adults

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69
Q

papillomavirus

A

dsDNA + circular
HPV - warts (1,2,6,11), CIN
cervical cancer (16,18)
vaccine available

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70
Q

cervical cancer

A

HPV 16 + 18

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71
Q

polyomavirus

A

dsDNA + circular
JC virus - progressive multiple leukoencephalopthy (PML) in HIV *junky cerebrum
BK - transplant pts –> kidney *bad kidney

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72
Q

poxvirus

A

dsDNA + linear, enveloped (largest)
small pox - germ warfare
vaccinia - cowpox (milkmaids blisters)

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73
Q

molluscum contagiosum

A

poxvirus

flesh-colored dome lesions with central dimple

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74
Q

negative stranded RNA viruses

A

always bring polymerase or fail replications - arenaviruses, bunyavirus, paramyxovirus, orthomyxomvius, filovirus, rhabdovirus

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75
Q

segmented viruses

A

only RNA - BOAR –> bunyavirus, orthomyxovirus, arenavirus, reovirus

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76
Q

picornaviruses

A

PERCH - poliovirus, echovirus, rhinovirus, coxcackievirus, HAV
viral meningitis excpept rihno and hav
enteroviruses (fecal-oral) except rhino

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77
Q

non-enveloped RNA viruses

A

reovirus, picornavirus, hepevirus, calicivirus

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78
Q

circular RNA viruses

A

arenavirus, bunyaivurs, delta virus

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79
Q

cause of common cold

A

rhinovirus

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80
Q

rhinovirus property

A

acid labile - destroyed by stomach acid (does not infect GI tract)

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81
Q

yellow fever virus transmission

A

aedes mosquitoes w/ monkey/human reservoir

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82
Q

yellow fever sx

A

high fever, black vomit, and jaundice *blank and yellowwww

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83
Q

yellow fever is what type of virus

A

flavivirus

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84
Q

rhinovirus is what type of virus

A

picornavirus

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85
Q

most impt global cause of infantile gastroenteritis

A

rotavirus

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86
Q

what type of virus is rotavirus

A

reovirus (dsRNA)

87
Q

majory cause of acute diarrhea in US during winter in day-care centers/kindergarden

A

rotovirus = right out the anus

CDC recommends routine vaccinations of all infants

88
Q

rotavirus MOA

A

villous destruction w/ atrophy –> decreased asborption of sodium and loss of K+

89
Q

influenza virus is what type of virus

A

orthomyxovirus

enveloped, negative ssRNA with 8-segment genome

90
Q

influenza antigens

A

hemagglutinin - viral entry

neuraminidase - progeny virion release

91
Q

what is patient as risk for with influenza virus

A

fatal bacterial superinfection

92
Q

major mode of protection vs influenza

A

killed viral vaccine

93
Q

h flu vaccine in kids

A

live attentuated vaccine intranasally - temp sensitive mutant replicates in the nose but not in the lung

94
Q

pandemics

A

genetic shift - more deadly (ohhhh shiffffft!)

95
Q

epidemics

A

genetic drift

96
Q

genetic shift

A

reassortment of viral genome - high freq recombination

EX: human flu A virus recombines w/ swine flu A virus

97
Q

genetic drift

A

minor changes based on random mutation

98
Q

rubella virus is what type of virus

A

togavirus

99
Q

rubella

A

german 3day measles

fever, postauricular adenopathy, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias

100
Q

rubella rash

A

starts at head and mvoes down

101
Q

rubella congenital disease

A

torches infection

102
Q

paramyxoviruses

A

children diseases –> parainfluenza (croup), mumps, measles

103
Q

paramyxovirus MOA

A

surface F (fusion) protein - resp epithelial cells ot fuse and form multinucleated cells

104
Q

resp tract infection in infants

A

RSV

105
Q

seal-like barking cough

A

croup

106
Q

palivizumab

A

monoclonal antibody against F protein

107
Q

prevents pneumonia caused by RSV infection in premature infants

A

palivizumab

108
Q

measles is what type of virus

A

paramyxovirus

109
Q

measles characteristics

A

koplik spots and descending maculopapular rash
RASH = LAST AND PRESENTS HEAD TO TOE
3 c’s = cough, coryza, conjunctivits

110
Q

possible measles sequale

A

SSPE (years later), encephalitis, and giant cell pneumonia (immunosuppressed)

111
Q

what type of virus is mumps virus

A

paramyxovirus

112
Q

mumps sx

A

POM-poms = parotitis, orchitis, aseptic meningitis

***can cause sterility after puberty

113
Q

bullet-shaped virus

A

rabies virus

114
Q

negri bodies

A

rabies - cytoplasmicinclusions in neurons infected w/ rabies virus

115
Q

where are negri bodies found

A

purkinje cells of cerebellum

116
Q

rabies sx

A

long incubation period –>fever/malaise –> agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia –> paralysis, coma –> death

117
Q

rabies post exposure tx

A

wound cleansing and vaccination with or without rabies immune globulin

118
Q

how does rabies travel

A

retrograde fashion up nerve axons –> CNS

119
Q

where do people get rabies from in US

A

bat, raccoon and skunk bites

120
Q

the only DNA hepatitis virus

A

HBV

121
Q

signs and symptoms of all hepatitis viruses

A

fever, jaundice, elevated ALT and AST

122
Q

HAV

A

asx, acute, alone (no carriers)

123
Q

what type of virus is HAV

A

RNA picornavirus

124
Q

HAV transmission and incubation

A

fecal-oral, short (weeks)

125
Q

what type of virus is HBV

A

DNA hepadnavirus

126
Q

HBV transmission and incubation

A

parenteral, sexual, maternal-fetal

long (months)

127
Q

hepatitis viruses that have carriers

A

B, C, D

128
Q

HBV

A

HCC risk - integrates into host genome and acts as oncogene

129
Q

hepatitis viruses that have a risk for HCC

A

B, C, D

130
Q

what type of virus is HCV

A

RNA flavivirus

131
Q

HCV transmission and incubation

A

primarily blood, IVDU, post-transfusion

long

132
Q

HCV associations

A

chronic, cirrhosis, carcinoma, carrier

HCC risk- from chronic inflammation

133
Q

what type of virus is HDV

A

RNA delta virus

134
Q

HDV transmission and incubation

A

parental, sexual, maternal-fecal
superinfection (chronic HBV –> HDV) = short
co-infection (acute HBV + HDV) = long

135
Q

HDV

A

dependent on HBV

superinfection decreases prognosis

136
Q

what type of virus is HEV

A

RNA hepevirus

137
Q

HEV transmission and incubation

A

fecal-oral (waterborne epidemics)

short

138
Q

HEV

A

high morality in pregnant women

enteric, expectant mothers, epidemic

139
Q

the fecal-oral hepatitis viruses

A

HAV + HEV

140
Q

HBV MOA

A

virus uses its own DNA-dependent DNA polymerase –> full viral dsDNA –> host RNA polymerase –> mRNA –> viral proteins

141
Q

hep virus that requires HBV

A

HDV

142
Q

hep virus associated w mortality in preggers

A

HEV

143
Q

AST > ALT

A

alcoholic hepatitis

144
Q

ALT > AST

A

viral hepatitis

145
Q

HAV - active

A

anti-HAV IgM

146
Q

HAV - prior infection or vaccinated

A

anti-HAV IgG

147
Q

protection vs HAV

A

anti-HAV IgG

148
Q

HBV infection if you currently have it - acute or chronic (except in window period)

A

HBsAg

149
Q

positive in window period of HBV

A

anti-HBc IgM and anti-HBe

150
Q

acute/recent infection HBV

A

anti-HBc IgM

151
Q

chronic/prior infection HBV

A

anti-HBc IgG

152
Q

high transmissability HBV

A

HBeAg

153
Q

low transmissability HBV

A

anti-HBe

154
Q

immunity to HBV

A

anti-HBs

present in recovery or immunized

155
Q

HBV recovery, what is positive

A

anti-HBs, anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG

156
Q

HBV immunization, what is positive

A

anti-HBs only

157
Q

HIV envelope proteins and how they are acquired

A

gp120 + gp 41 - acquired through budding from host cell plasma membrane

158
Q

diploid genome with 2 molecules of RNA

A

HIV

159
Q

what are the 3 structural genes of HIV

A

env, gag, and pol

160
Q

what does env code for

A

envelope proteins = gp 120 and gp41

161
Q

how is env formed

A

cleavage of gp160 –> envelope proteins

162
Q

gp 120

A

docking glycoprotein - attachment to host CD4+ T cell

163
Q

gp 41

A

transmembrane glycoprotein - fusion and entry

164
Q

what does gag code for

A

p24 - capsid protein

165
Q

what does pol code for

A

reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease + integrase

166
Q

what does reverse transcriptase do

A

RNA –> dsDNA - integrates into host genome

167
Q

what does HIV virus bind

A

CD4 on T cells and coreceptors CCR5 - early + CXCR4 - late

macrophages - CCR5 + CD4

168
Q

homozygous CCR5 mutation

A

immunity

169
Q

heterozygous CC45 mutation

A

slower course

170
Q

HIV screening and confirmatory

A

ELISA (sens- rule out) –> western blot (spec - rule in)

171
Q

HIV PCR/viral load

A

amount of viral RNA in plasma
high viral load = poor prognosis
use viral load to monitor drug therapy effects

172
Q

AIDS diagnosis

A

< 200 CD4+ cells (norm = 500-1500)

HIV positive with AIDS-defining condition (pneumocystis pneumonia/PCP) or CD4/CD8 < 1.5

173
Q

elisa/western blot tests

A

look for antibodies to viral proteins
falsely negative in first 1-2 months of HIV
falsey positive initially in babies born to infected mothers (anti-gp120 crosses placenta)

174
Q

HIV CD4 and RNA counts

A

decreasing CD4 and increasing HIV RNA copies

175
Q

immunocompromise

A

<400 CD4

176
Q

AIDS defining illness

A

< 200 CD4+

177
Q

four stages of HIV infection

A

Flu-like (acute) –> feeling fine (latent) –> falling count –> final crises

178
Q

what happens during latent phase of HIV

A

virus replicates in LN

179
Q

HIV positive adults common diseases

A

CD4 count decreases - reactivate past infections, dissemination of bact infections and fungal infections + NHL

180
Q

histoplasma capsulatum in immunocompetent hosts

A

pulmonary sx

181
Q

histoplasma capsulatum in HIV

A

low-grade fevers, cough, hepatosplenomegaly, tongue ulcers

182
Q

histoplasma capsulatum dx

A

oval yeast cells within mo, CD4 < 100

183
Q

oval yeast cells within macrophages

A

histoplasma capsulatum

184
Q

fluffy white cottage-cheese lesions bug

A

candida albicans (thrush)

185
Q

candida albicans dx

A

pseudohyphae
oral CD4 < 400
esophageal CD4 < 100

186
Q

superficial vascular proliferation bug

A

bartonella henselae (bacillary angiomatosis)

187
Q

batonella henselae dx

A

biopsy - neutrophilic inflammation

188
Q

chronic watery diarrhea bug

A

cryptosporidium spp

189
Q

cryptosporidium dx

A

acid fast cysts in stool CD4 < 200

190
Q

JC virus reactivation (PML)

A

encephalopathy

191
Q

JC virus dx

A

reactivation of latent virus –> demyelination

CD4 < 200

192
Q

toxoplasma gondii

A

abscesses

193
Q

toxoplasma gondii dx

A

ring-enhancing lesions on imaging

CD4 < 100

194
Q

cryptococcus neoformans

A

meningitis

195
Q

cryptococcus neoformans dx

A

india ink stain - yeast with narrow-based budding and large capsule, CD4 < 50

196
Q

CMV

A

retinitis

197
Q

CMV dx

A

cotton-wool spots on funduscopic exam and may occur w/ esophagitis
CD4 < 50

198
Q

dementia is directly associated with…

A

HIV

199
Q

HHV-8

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

superficial neoplastic proliferation of vasculature

200
Q

biopsy of HHV-8

A

lymphocytic inflammation

201
Q

hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV - lateral tongue

202
Q

where does NHL occur

A

oropharynx (waldeyers ring)

make be associated with EBV

203
Q

HPV in AIDS pts

A

squamous cell carcinoma - in anus (MSM) or cervix (female)

204
Q

CMV in HIV

A

interstitial pneumonia

205
Q

CMV biopsy

A

cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies = owl’s eye

206
Q

aspergillus fumigatus

A

invasive aspergillus

207
Q

dx aspergillus fumigatus

A

pleuritic pain, hemoptysis, infiltrates on imaging

208
Q

pneumocystis jirovecii

A

pneumonia

CD4 < 200

209
Q

mycobacterium avium-intracellular

A

tuberculosis-like disease

CD4 < 50

210
Q

prion disease

A

PrPc –> PrPsc (beta-pleated) - transmissible

211
Q

prion disease MOA

A

accumulation of PrPsc –> spongiform encephalopathy, dementia, ataxia, cell death

212
Q

Creutzfeld-jakob disease

A

rapidly progressive dementia

sporadic prion disease

213
Q

gerstmann-straussler-scheinker syndrome

A

inherited prion disease

214
Q

kuru

A

acquired prion disease

FA (13 decks)

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