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0. Step Ia > Micro - Bacteria > Flashcards

Micro - Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

catalase test

A

GP

staph (+)
strep (-)

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2
Q

coagulase test

A

GP

staph aureus (+)
staph epidermidis or saprophyticus (-)
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3
Q

novobicin test

A

GP

staph epidermidis (sens)
staph saprophyticus (resis)
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4
Q

hemolysis

A

GP

streptococci (a, ß, g)

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5
Q

alpha hemolysis

A

GP

Strep. pneumoniae (capsule)
Strep. viridans (no capsule)

  • differentiate btwn the two using optochin + bile solubility
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6
Q

ß hemolysis

A

GP

Strep pyogenes (grpA)
Strep agalactiae
Staph aureus
Listeria monocytogenes

LAAP = listeria, aureus, agalactiae, pyogenes

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7
Q

gamma hemolysis

A

GP

enterococcus
non-enterococcus

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8
Q

optochin sensitivity

A

GP

Strep. pneumoniae - sensitive
Strep. viridans - resistant

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9
Q

bile solubility

A

GP

Strep. pneumoniae - soluble (lysed by bile)
Strep. viridans - not lysed by bile

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10
Q

bacitracin

A

GP

S. pyogenes (sensitive)
S. agalactiae (resistant)

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11
Q

growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl

A

GP

Enterococcus faecalis

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12
Q

growth in bile, not 6.5% NaCl

A

GP

Strep. bovis

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13
Q

B cells typically infected by this virus

A

EBV

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14
Q

Ganglion cells typically infected by this virus

A

herpes

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15
Q

oligodendrocytes typically infected by this virus

A

JC virus –> PML

Measles –> SSPE

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16
Q

follicular dendritic cells typically infected by this virus

A

HIV

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17
Q

grows at 42˚C

A

GN, oxidase +, comma shaped

campylobacter jejuni

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18
Q

grows in alkaline media

A

GN, oxidase +, comma shaped

vibrio cholera

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19
Q

produces urease

A

GN, oxidase +, comma shaped

helicobacter pylori

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20
Q

GN diplococci

2

A

neisseria meningitidis
neisseria gonorrhoeae

differentiate using maltose test

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21
Q

maltose test is used for..

A 
neisseria MeninGitidis (fermenter - maltose + glucose)
neisseria Gonorrhoeae (non-fermenter - glucose only)
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22
Q

GN “coccoid” rods

4

A

haemophilus influenza (requires factor V, X)
Bordtella pertussis
Pasturella - animal bites
Brucella

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23
Q

Requires factor V, X

A

haemophilus influenza - GN coccoid rods

can also be grown with staph aureus, which provides factor V

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24
Q

lactose fermenters (rate) - Macconkey’s

A

GN

klebsiella, e. coli, enterobacter (fast fermenter)

citrobacter, serratia (slow fermenter)

MaconKEES

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25
Q

lactose non-fermenters

how do differentiate between them?

A

All GN

Shigella
Salmonella 
Proteus
Yersinia
Pseudomonas

Oxidase test - only pseudomonas are oxidase +

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26
Q

oxidase test - which bugs are +? -?

A 
Oxidase (-)
Shigella
Salmonella 
Proteus
Yersinia
Oxidase (+)
Pseudomonas 
Campylobacter
Vibrio cholerae
Helicobacter pylori
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27
Q

oxidase +, comma shaped

A

campylobacter jejuni - grows at 42˚
vibrio cholera - alkaline media
helicobacter pylori - urease

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28
Q

bacterial infection associated with schistocytes

A

EHEC - eating undercooked meats

Shigella

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29
Q

Staph aureus virulence factor

A

Protein A - binds Fc-IgG - inhibits complement activation and phagocytosis; colonizes the nose

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30
Q

TSST

A

superantigen that binds to MHCII and TCR, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation

present in vaginal or nasal tampons

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31
Q

S. aureus food poisoning is due to

A

preformed ENTEROTOXIN - heat stable (not destroyed by cooking)

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32
Q

S. epidermidis is commonly associated with

What would you treat a hospitalized patient with?

how do you differentiate this from S. saprophyticus?

A

prosthetic devices
IV catheters

*contaminant of blood cultures

treat with vanco pending sensitivity tests because they can be resistant to multiple antibiotics

SE: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobicin (S)
SS: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobicin (R)

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33
Q

S. saprophyticus

at risk for what?

how do you differentiate this from S. epidermidis?

A

UTI - second most common cause; increased risk of struvite stones (Ammonium MgPO4)

novobicin resistant

SE: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobicin (S)
SS: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobicin (R)

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34
Q

S. pneumo

causes

how to differentiate

A 
Meningitis
Otitis media
pneumonia
Sinusitis
sepsis in sickle cell patients and splenectomy
rusty/reddish brown

a hemolysis (green)
SP: capsule, optochin (S), bile (S)
SV: ø capsule, optochin (R), bile (R)

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35
Q

shape of s. pneumo?

virulence factor?

A

lancet shaped GP diplococci, encapsulated

IgA protease

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36
Q

s. viridans

how do differenitate it from S. pneumo?

A

alpha hemolytic, optochin R

can cause

  • dental caries (mutans)
  • normal inhabitant of the mouth (mitis)
  • subacute bacterial endocarditis on damaged valves (sanguinis)

a hemolysis (green)
SP: capsule, optochin (S), bile (S)
SV: ø capsule, optochin (R), bile (R)

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37
Q

how does strep. sanguinis cause subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

binds to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves

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38
Q

GAS is also known as

A

S. pyogenes

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39
Q

diseases that S. pyogenes cause

A

pharyngitis, cellulitis, erysipelas, rheumatic fever, PIGN

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40
Q

things that S. pyogenes produce?

A

Streptolysin O: degrades cell membranes; lyses RBC

Exotoxin A: superantigen - causes release of IFNg, IL2 –> shock

M protein - prevent phagocytosis virulence factor

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41
Q

S. pyogenes sensitivity?

what must you differentiate it from?

A

ß hemolysis (clear)
GAS (Spyogenes): Bacitracin (S); ASO titers
GBS (S. agalactiae): Bacitracin (R), Hippurate test (+), CAMP test

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42
Q

GBS is also known as

A

S. agalactiae

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43
Q

things that S. agalactiae cause?

what happens if you find out that a mother is colonized with GBS within a month of her due date?

A

neonatal sepsis, meningitis, pneumonia

must give INTRApartum penicillin or ampicillin

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44
Q

GDS is also known as

what does it cause?

what do you have to differentiate it from?

A

S. Enterococci - cocci chains

subacute endocarditis after GI/GU procedures, can cause UTIs, biliary tract; penG resistant

gamma hemolysis
S. Enterococcus (GDS: E. faecalis, E. faceium): bile and NaCl (+)
S. bovis : bile (+) only

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45
Q

S. Bovis cuases

A

endocarditis after colonic malignancy

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46
Q

clostridum - different types and what do you normally find them on?

A

CBotulinum: honey, bottles/canned food

CPerfringens: soil or raw meat, reheated meat dishes

CDiff: antibiotic use (clindamycin or ampicillin”

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47
Q

shape of clostridium?

A

GP Rod

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48
Q

clostridium tetanus produces

A

Tetanospasmin - protease that cleaves SNARES –> prevents release of GABA and glycine from Rhenshaw cells in spinal cord –> spasticity/sustained muscle contraction

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49
Q

Clostridium botulinum produces

A

Botulinum toxin - heat-labile protease that cleaves SNARES –> prevents release of ACh at NMJ –> floppy/descending flaccid paralysis

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50
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces

A

Alpha Toxin - lecithinase that degrades tissues and cell phospholipid membranes –> myonecrosis/gas gangrene + diarrhea

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51
Q

C diff produces

A

Toxin A (enterotoxin) binds to brush border of gut

Toxin B (cytotoxin) causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin polymerization –> pseudomembrane –> diarrea

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52
Q

white fibrinous pseudomembrane should make you think of this bug

A

Corneybacterium diphtheriae

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53
Q

Corneybacterium diphtheriae shape?

what does it produce?

A

Rod w/ blue+red granules (corn is rod-shaped)

Diphtheria Toxin - AB toxins exotoxin encoded by ß prophage, inactivates EF-2 via ribosylation; predilection for cardiac + neural cells

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54
Q

3 tests that you can use for Corneybacterium diphtheriae

A

Tellurite agar - dark black, slightly iridescent colonies

Loffler medium - cytoplasmic GRANULES that can be stained w/ aniline dye (methylene blue)

Elek Test for toxin

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55
Q

elongated Rod box-car chains should make you think of..

A

Bacillus anthracis - Aerobe, spore forming

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56
Q

Bacillus anthracis causes

A

painless black eschar w/ edematous borders, mediastinal widening

spores can be present on wool

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57
Q

Bacillus anthracis virulence factor

A

polypeptide capsule (D-glutamate) - antiphagocytic

Edema Factor - mimics adenylate cyclase to incr. cAMP”

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58
Q

reheated rice, pasta should make you think of…

A

bacillus cereus - GP Rod, spore forming

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59
Q

bacillus cereus produces

A

Cereulide - preformed toxin –> watery dairrhea

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60
Q

Listeria Monocytogenes - features

A

GP rod with tumbling motility - rocket tails (actin) that propel them into cells (intracellular)

catalase +, LPS (UNIQUE!!!), ß hemolysis

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61
Q

Listeria Monocytogenes - where is it normally found on?

A

unpasteurized milk, soft cheeses, deli meats

transplacental or vaginal transmission –> meningitis in neonates and elderly

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62
Q

Mycobacterium - features

A 
GP Rod; mycolic acid w/ high lipid content
obligate aerobe (use O2 to generate ATP) - lung apices
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63
Q

reactivation of Mycobacterium is usually due to…

A

Immunocompromised state or TNFa inhibitors (infliximab or adalimumab)

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64
Q

two virulence factors of mycobacterium?

A

Cord-factor- inhibits macrophage maturation; induces release of TNFa

Sulfatides (surface glycolipids) - inhibit phagolysosomal fusion

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65
Q

Mycobacterium tubuerculosis symptoms

A

fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis

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66
Q

MAC - when does it normally occur? how do you deal with it?

A

AIDS, CD4 <50; prophylaxis w/ Azithromycin; usually unable to form the caseating granulomas

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67
Q

mycobacterium leprosy - predilection for…

A

skin/superficial nerves (likes cool temperatures –> causes glove and stocking loss of sensation)

normally found on….armadillos

68
Q

2 forms of mycobacterium leprosy and when do they normally occur?

A

lepromatous (low CMI, Th2 response) - more serious forms

tuberculoid (high CMI, Th1 response)

69
Q

PAS(+) foamy macrophages in intestinal lamina propria should make you think of…

A

Tropheryma whipplei

70
Q

symptoms that Tropheryma whipplei cause

A

cardiac sx, arthralgias, neurologic sx, esp. in older men

71
Q

long-branching Filaments that resemble fungi

2 - how to differentiate between them?

A

Actinomyces - anaerobe, NOT acid fast

Nocardia - aerobe, acid fast

72
Q

actinomyces - features

causes..
treatment?

A

Oral flora

long-branching Filaments that resemble fungi
obligate ANaerobes, ø catalase or superoxide dismutase (susceptible to oxidative damage)
FOUL smelling
Yellow sulfur granules”

oral/facial abscesses; trmt: pencillin

73
Q

Nocardia

features

how is it detected?

A

long-branching Filaments that resemble fungi

obligate aerobe (use O2 to generate ATP
Urease (+)

Ziehl-Neelsen (carbolfuchsin/aniline dye) in Acid fast Stain

74
Q

Neisseria

A

GN diplococci

75
Q

1 cause of all UTIs

A

E. coli…..

76
Q

E. coli

feature
all produce this

A

GN rod

encapsulated (K capsule)
Catalase (+)

77
Q

How can E. coli can be detected?

A

MacConkee’s agar - pink, fast (lactose fermenter)

EMB plates - purple colonies w/ green metallic sheen

78
Q

EIEC method of pathogenesis

A

invasive -> necrosis + inflammation -> dysentery

79
Q

ETEC method of pathogenesis

trmt?

A

heat-labile toxin (LT) - increases cAMP

heat stable toxin (ST) - increases cGMP -> watery diarrhea; NO inflammation (travelers)

trmt: loperamide, fluoroquinolones, azithromycin, rifampin “Travelers Love to travel FAR”

80
Q

EPEC method of pathogenesis

A

EPEC: pili allows for adheres + flattens vili –> prevents absorption (children)

81
Q

EHEC 0157:H7 method of pathogenesis

A

Shiga-like toxin (SLT) - incactivates 60S rRNA (prevents binding of tRNA -> enhances cytokine release -> dysentery + HUS (anemia, thrombocytopenia, ARF, schistocytes due to microthrombi)

usually due to undercooked meats, raw unpasteurized milk

82
Q

how to differentiate EHEC 0157:H7 from other e. coli?

A

ø sorbitol fermentation, ø glucorinidase production (compared to the other E. coli).

83
Q

shigella - features

A

GN rod

84
Q

shigella method of pathogenesis

A

invades intestinal mucosa (M cells of Peyer’s patches) -> PMN infiltration -> dysentery

Shiga Toxin - inactivates 60S rRNA (prevents binding of tRNA) + enhances cytokine release -> HUS

very low ID50

85
Q

antibiotics may prolong fecal excretion of this bug

A

Salmonella - Rod, with flagella

86
Q

Salmonella typhi - pathogenesis

A

encapsulated - invades intestinal mucosa -> MONOCYTIC infiltration

Vi antigen prevents opsonization and phagocytosis, produces H2S

can disseminate hematogenously

87
Q

salmonella typhi - clinical features

A

ROSE spots on abdomen, fever, HA, diarrhea

carrier state in GALL BLADDER; causes typhoid fever

usually due to poultry, meats, eggs

88
Q

pseudo-appendicitis

cause?
typically affects?
where can it be found?

A

Yersinia - GN Rod, intracellular

mini-epidemics in children –> pus + blood in diarrhea

PET feces, contaminated milk, pork

89
Q

Proteus - features

A

GN Rod - swarming motility on agar

Urease (+), produces H2S - can cause struvite stones/ammonium MgSo4

90
Q

Klebsiella - features

who does it usually affect?

what does it cause?

treatment?

A

GN Rod
Urease (+)
lactose fermenter (MacConkee’s - pink, fast)
Encapsulated, MUCOID colonies”

aspiration –> lobar pneumonia (abscess forming) in alcoholics and diabetics
Red-current jelly sputum

trmt: 3rd gen cephalosporin

3rd leading cause of UTI’s - can cause struvite stones/ammonium MgSo4”

91
Q

Bacteroides

A

GN Rod, part of GI flora

Obligate Anaerobes, ø catalase or superoxide dismutase (susceptible to oxidative damage), 
FOUL smelling (short chain FA)

Produce CO2, H2

92
Q

Serratia

A

GN Rod
Red pigment
Catalase (+)

MacConkee’s agar - pink, slow

93
Q

spiral shape, w/ multiple flagella at one pole

A

H. pylori - “catalase (+), oxidase (+), Urease (+)

creates alkaline environment”

94
Q

how is H. pylori detected? treated?

A

Silver Stain
urease breath test (+)
fecal antigen

triple Rx: PPI, clarithromycin, amoxicllin/metronidazole

95
Q

can cause Guillain-Barre, reactive arthritis

A

campylobacter

96
Q

campylobacter - features

A

comma shaped
oxidase (+)
42˚C

97
Q

campylobacter - clinical features (how is it transmitted?

A

bloody diarrhea, esp in children
FECAL-ORAL transmission (poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk)
can cause Guillain-Barre, reactive arthritis

98
Q

vibrio - features

A

GN, comma shaped, oxidase (+)

99
Q

vibrio - types and clinical features

A

Parahemolyticus: voluminous watery diarrhea

vulnificus: septicemia -> blisters and muscle necrosis on lower extremity
cholera: profuse rice water diarrhea

100
Q

vibrio cholera - pathogenesis

A

Cholera toxin - permanently activates Gs -> incr adenylate cyclase -> incr. cAMP -> H2O loss”

101
Q

how do you grow vibrio cholera?

A

alkaline media

102
Q

sputum w/ grape like odor

A

pseudomonas

103
Q

Pseudomonas - general features

A 
GN rod
Obligate Aerobe
Catalase (+), Oxidase (+)
Exotoxin A - inactivates EF-2 via ribosylation
Blue-green pigment (pyocyanin)
104
Q

Pseudomonas pathogenesis

A

Exotoxin A - inactivates EF-2 via ribosylation

same as c. diptheria

105
Q

how is pseudomonas generally acquired - list at least 4

A 
burns/wounds
DM
CF
water sources (hot tubs, ventilators)
indwelling catheters
106
Q

What does pseudomonas generally cause?

A 
Pneumonia
Sepsis
External otitis
UTI
Diabetics/Drugs
Osteomyelitis
Echthyma gangrenosum cutaneous necrotic disease - usually associated with bacteremia in immunocompromised host
107
Q

Pseudomonas - treatment

A

Gentamycin + piperacillin or cefepime

108
Q

Neisseria - features

what is it grown on?

A

GN diplococci

Pili for attachment
IgA protease (to colonize mucosa)

Thayer-Martin (contains VPN) for isolation

109
Q

Neisseria M - features

A

GN diplococci

encapsulated (polysaccharide capsule)

NM: maltose (+), glucose (+)

110
Q

Neisseria M - route of transmission, clinical picture and treatment

A

respiratory/oral secretions

petechial rash on trunk, palm, soles
meningitis
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

post-exposure prophylaxis: Rifampin, ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone for contact prophylaxis

trmt: ceftriaxone or penicillin G

111
Q

Neisseria G - features

A

GN diplococci

facultative intracellular, in PMNs

112
Q

Neisseria G - route of transmission, clinical picture and treatment

A

STD

gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome;

neonates: erythromycin ointment
adults: ceftriaxone (MUST ADD azithro/doxycycline for possible chalmydia coinfection)

113
Q

c5-c9 deficiency

A

think Neisseria

114
Q

Haemophilus features

A

GN coccoid rods

encapsulated (type B = worst; made w/ polyribosyl-ribitol phosphate)

IgA protease (to colonize mucosa)

115
Q

Haemophilus - how is it transmitted? what does it cause? how is it treated/prevented?

A 
Aerosol transmission
Epiglottitis (cherry red) -> stridor, odynophagia, drooling; lateral CXR: ""thumbs up"" sign
Meningitis - treat w/ ceftriaxone
Otitis Media
Pneumonia

trmt: Amoxicillin w/ clavulanate

Post-exposure prophylxis: rifampin

Prevention: conjugated vaccine “

116
Q

how do you grow haemophilus?

A

“Chocolate Agar w. Factors V, X
- or -
grown w/ S. aureus (provides V)”

117
Q

legionella - features

A

GN Rod, facultative intracellular

antigen present in urine

118
Q

legionella - clinical picture

how is it treated?

A

aerosol transmission from environment: AC, hot water tanks, sprayers at restaurants, grocery stores

causes HYPONATREMIA (SIADH mediated)

Legionnaire’s dz: pneumonia,high fever, GI, CNS sx (typical: smoker w/ 104˚ T, diarrhea, confusion, and sputum w/ very few or ø bacteria but LOTS of PMNs)

Pontiac fever: mild flu

trmt: macrolide, quinolone

119
Q

how is legionella detected?

A

Silver Stain

Charcoal yeast w. Cysteine + Iron

120
Q

B. pertussis - features

A

coccoid rods, encapsulated

121
Q

B. pertussis - pathogenesis

A

Pertussis toxin - disables Gi –> overactivation of adenylate cyclase –> incr. cAMP

-> Whooping cough: “coughing spells” or paroxysms of coughing

122
Q

how do you grow B. pertussis

A

Bordet-Genou (potato)

123
Q

Pasteurella - features

A

GN coccoid rods

animal bites

124
Q

Bartonella Henslae - features
clinical picture
treatment

A

GN Rod

“cat-scratch dz” - tender regional adenomapthy, stellate granulomas w/ central necrosis

ø trmt necessary, but if immunosuppressed, give ciprofloxacin + dox + macrolides

125
Q

rash (vasculitis) starts at wrists and ankles and then spreads to trunk, palms, and soles.

A

R rickettsii - Rocky-MTN spotted fever; triad: HA, fever, rash (vasculitis)

126
Q

rash starts centrally and spreads out, sparing palms and soles

A

R typhi - endemic (fleas)

127
Q

monocytes w/ morulae (berry like inclusions)

A

R ehrlichiosis

128
Q

granulocytes w/ morulae (berry like inclusions)

A

R anaplasmosis

129
Q

Rickettsiae - features and general treatment? How do you detect them?

A

GN pleomorphic Obligate intracellular (need CoA + NAD+ because they can’t make ATP)

Giemsa stain

trmt: dox

130
Q

cattle placenta

A

Coxiella
ovoid GN
spores released from tick feces + cattle placenta –> spores inhaled -> pneumonia; ø rash, ø vector

131
Q

Chlamydiae

forms?
subtypes?
features?

A

Elementary body “Enfectious” - Enters cells via Endocytosis

Reticulate body - Replicates via fission and reorganizes into elementary bodies

trachomatis, Pneumoniae, psittaci

Obligate intracellular - can’t make their own ATP

ø muramic acid in cell wall - why is this impt?? DON’T KNOW

132
Q

reactive arthritis (Reiter), follicular conjunctivitis (dots on inner eye lids), nongonoccal urethritis, and PID

features of this bug

A

Chlamydiae trachomatis - DK serotype

133
Q

Chlamydiae trachomatis serotypes

A

ABC: African, blindness, Chronic infection

DK

women: urethritis/PID/ectopic pregnancy
neonates: staccato cough + conjunctivitis, acquired via vaginal delivery

L1, L2, L3 - lymphogranuloma venereum - painless ulcers on genitals + painful ulcerated inguinal LN “buboes”

134
Q

chlamydiae trachomatis - how to detect it?

A

Giemsa

Fluorescent antibody stain

135
Q

chlamydiae Pneumoniae

A

atypical pneumonia; aerosol transmission

136
Q

chlamydiae psittaci

A

atypical pneumonia; avian (parrots) reservoir

137
Q

treatment for chlamydiae

A

azithromycin or doxycline

138
Q

Borrelia - features

A

GN spiral shaped

139
Q

Borrelia - clinical features

how to diagnose it?

A

PAINLESS erythema chronicum migrans

BAMM Sequelae: Bells, Arthritis, Myocarditis (AV block), Meningoencephalitis

ELISA + WB only if its not clear that it is is Lyme dz

to stain it: Giemsa stain

140
Q

Borrelia treatment

A

Doxycycline - 1st line (or ceftriaxone)

children/pregnant women - use amoxicillin

141
Q

Leptospira features

A

GN spiral shaped

142
Q

How is leptospira acquired? What does it cause?

who is it most common in?

A

contaminated water with animal urine -> leptospirosis (flu, jaundice, photophobia w/ conjunctival suffusion - red eyes)

Weil dz: severe; jaundice, azotemia from liver/kidney dysfunction; fever, hemorrhage, anemia

common in surfers and tropics

143
Q

Treponema/Syphilis - general features + 3 stages

A

Treponema/Syphilis - GN Spiral

1˚Painless chancre (1˚)
2˚maculopapular rash on palms/soles, condylomata lata
3˚ gummas, aortitis (vasa vasorum), neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll Robertson Pupil “Prostitute pupil” - accomodates but does not react to light

144
Q

How is Treponema/Syphilis diagnosed?

A

dark field microscopy + Fluorescent antibody staining (FTA-ABS)

145
Q

How do you know if an infant suffers from Syphilis?

A

Congenital: saber shins, saddle nose, CN8 deafness, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars

146
Q

treatment for syphilis?

A

trmt: PenG; can cause Jarisch-herxheimer rxn (flu due to killed spirochetes releasing pyrogens)

147
Q

gray vaginal discharge w/ fishy smell; not painful

A

Gardnerella vaginalis - GN rod

148
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis - features, how is it diagnosed, and treatment

A

GN rod that causes gray vaginal discharge w/ fishy smell; not painful

Light microscopy - Clue cells - vaginal epithelial cells covered w/ Gardnerella bacteria

trmt: metronidazole or clindamycin

149
Q

malodorous gray green frothy discharge with inflammation

A

trichomoniasis

150
Q

gray vaginal discharge w/ fishy smell; not painful

A

Gardnerella vaginalis - GN rod

151
Q

thick, white, adherent discharge “cottage cheese” + inflammation

A

candida vulvovaginitis

152
Q

only bacteria that does not have a cell wall

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

153
Q

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae - how is it grown?

A

sterols in membrane for stability - therefore must be grown on Eaton agar - cholesterol

154
Q

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae - what does it cause? who is it most common in? how do you treat it?

A

“walking ATYPICAL pneumonia” - insidious onset, HA, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial pneumonia

high IgM titers can agglutinate or lyse RBCs

outbreaks in military recruits, prisons

trmt: macrolide, dox, fluoroquinolone (NOT penicillin, duh)

155
Q

What is macconkey agar used for? what does it contain

A 
MaConKEE'S agar - contains BILE (inhibits growth of contaminant organisms), but allows growth of lactose fermenters, which show up as pink colonies: 
Klebsiella
E. Coli
Enterobacter
Serratia
156
Q

catalase +

A 
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E coli
S. auerus
Serratia
157
Q

Otitis Media

A

H. influenza
S. pneumo
Morxaella

158
Q

Otitis Externa

A

Pseudomonas

159
Q

Atypical Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma
Legionella
Chlamydia

160
Q

Bloody diarrhea

A 
Campylobacter
E. Histolytica
EHEC
EIEC
Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia
161
Q

Watery diarrhea

A 
C. Diff
C. perfringens
ETEC
Protozoa 
Vibrio cholera
Vibrio vulnificus
162
Q

Pneumonia IVDU or alcholics

A

S. pneumo, klebsiella, s. aureus

163
Q

Pneumonia Aspiration

A

anaerobes

164
Q

Pneumonia atypical

A

mycoplasma, legionella, chlamydia

165
Q

Pneumonia CF

A

pseudomonas, s. aureus, s. pneumo

166
Q

Pneumonia nosocomial

A

s. aureus (MRSA, MSSA), pseudomonas, enterics

167
Q

Pneumonia post-viral infection

A

staph, H. influenza, S. pneumo

0. Step Ia (28 decks)

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