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0. Step Ia > FA - Classic/Relevant Treatments > Flashcards

FA - Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide (1st line)

Valproate (2nd line)

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2
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine (inhibits PMN chemotaxis along microtubules)

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3
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

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4
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

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5
Q

Alcohol use disorder

A

AA + disulfiram, naltrexone, or acamprosate (NDMA blocker & GABA-A agonist) for patient. Al- Anon for patient’s family

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6
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

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7
Q

Anorexia

A

Nutrition, psychotherapy

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8
Q

Anticoagulation for use during pregnancy

A

Heparin

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9
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

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10
Q

B12 deficiency

A

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

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11
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin (alpha1 blocker), finasteride (5a reductase inh)

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12
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

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13
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

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14
Q

Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

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15
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

SSRIs

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16
Q

Candida albicans

A

Amphotericin B (systemic)
nystatin (oral thrush)
Azoles (vaginitis)

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17
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide

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18
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea confection)

erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

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19
Q

Chronic gout

A

Probenecid (underexcretor)
Allopurinol (overproducer)
Febuxostat

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20
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

IFN-α

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21
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

Imatinib

Aleumtuzumab (anti-CD52)

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22
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

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23
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

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24
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

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25
Q

CMV

A

Ganciclovir

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26
Q

Crohn disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab, methotrexate, azathioprine

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27
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

amphotericin B + Flucytosine (5FC) + Fluconazole for 6 wks

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

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28
Q

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

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29
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first-line)

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30
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

DDAVP (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

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31
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Diet ∆ (low sugar) + insulin

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32
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

Diet ∆, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

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33
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

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34
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

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35
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

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36
Q

ER (+) breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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37
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

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38
Q 
Haemophilus influenzae (B)
prophylaxis? treatment?
A

Prophylaxis: Rifampin (prophylaxis)
treatment: Ampicillin

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39
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

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40
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

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41
Q

Heparin toxicity (acute)

A

Protamine sulfate

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42
Q

HER2/neu (+) breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

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43
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

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44
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first-line)

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45
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

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46
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin

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47
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

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48
Q

Influenza

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

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49
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Erythromycin

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50
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

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51
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

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52
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene - muscle relaxant

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53
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

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54
Q

Migraine

A

Sumatriptan

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55
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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56
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

IFNβ, immunosuppression, natalizumab

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57
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

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58
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

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59
Q

Neisseria meningitidis
treatment?
prophylaxis?

A

Treatment: ceftriaxone or pencillin

Prophylaxis: rifampin

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60
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

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61
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

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62
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

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63
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

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64
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

α-antagonists (phenoxybenzamine, irreversible)

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65
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patient)

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66
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

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67
Q

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

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68
Q

Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide

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69
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

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70
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil
bosentan (endothelin receptor antagonist)
epoprostenol (prostacyclin)

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71
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (associated with aplastic anemia)

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72
Q

Ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

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73
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

5-HT2A antagonists (e.g., 2nd-generation antipsychotics)

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74
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., 1st- and 2nd-generation antipsychotics)

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75
Q

SIADH

A

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

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76
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (incr fetal hemoglobin)

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77
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral potassium iodide

78
Q

Stable angina

Unstable angina
Angina prophylaxis

A

stable: NTG

Unstable; GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors (abciximab, epifibatide, tirofiban)

cilostazol, dipyridamole

79
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins)

MRSA: vancomycin

80
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

81
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

82
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

83
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

84
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

85
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

86
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

87
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

88
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)

A

Carbamazepine

89
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA, infliximab, colectomy

90
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

91
Q

Warfarin toxicity

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

92
Q

Nesiritide

A

BNP (recombinant); used for treatment of heart failure

93
Q

maintain PDA patency

A

PGE analog (alprostadil)

94
Q

promote PDA closure

A

indomethacin

95
Q

Torsades de pointes

A

MgSO4

96
Q

Melanoa V600E

A

Vemurafenib - BRAF kinase inhibitor

97
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

eculizumab - selectively targets and inhibits the terminal portion of the complement cascade, which prevents the generation of the terminal complement complex C5b-9

98
Q

Mother who is Rh- who develops anti-Rh IgG during her first pregnancy is pregnant again with a fetus that is Rh+. What should you do?

A

Rho(D) IgG

99
Q

sideroblastic anemia due to defect in ALAS

A

pyridoxine B6 - cofactor for ALAS

100
Q

Orotic aciduria

A

uridine monophosphate to bypass mutated enzyme

101
Q

aplastic anemia

A 
withdraw offending agent
allogenic BM transplant
RBC/platelet transfusion
G-CSF
GM-CSF
102
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A

splectomy

103
Q

acute intermittent porphyria

A

deficient porphobilinogen deaminase

treat w/ glucose + heme, which inhibits ALAS

104
Q

treatment for vWF disease

A

DDVAP - causes release of vWF in stored endothelium

105
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A

cladribine 2-CDA - adenosine analog (inhibits adenosine deaminase)

106
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia

A

All-trans retinoic acid (vit A)

107
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

imatinib - inhibits bcr-abl tyrosine kinase

also busulfan

108
Q

polycythemia vera

A

phlebotomy

109
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

lepirudin/bivalirudin - thrombin inhibitors (prevents further clots from forming); can also be used instead of heparin for HIT patients

110
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

  • acute management
  • long-term prophylaxis
A

acute - heparin

prophylaxis - warfarin (or rivaroxaban)

111
Q

Stroke prevention in patients with a-fib

A

apixaban, rivaroxaban - binds directly and inhibits activity of factor Xa

112
Q

stroke

A

alteplase (anything with “teplase”)

113
Q

alteplase OD

A 
aminocaproic acid (inhibitor of fibrinolysis)
Fresh frozen plasma + cryoprecipitate
114
Q

prevent clots from forming in coronary stents

A

clopidogrel, ticlopidine, prasurgrel, ticagrelor

115
Q

treatment for intermittent claudication

A

cilostazol, dipyridamole

  • phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
  • increase cAMP in platelets -> inhibits aggregation
116
Q

5-FU overdose

A

uridine

117
Q

prevent cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin/daunorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane - Fe chelating agent

118
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A

nitrosoureas - carmustine, lomustine, semustine, stretozocin (can cross BBB)

119
Q

drug to ablate patients’ bone marrow prior to BM transplant

A

busulfan

120
Q

prevent nephrotoxicity from cisplatin, carboplatin

A

amifostine (free radical scavenger)

chloride diuresis

121
Q

Amphetamines OD

A

NH4Cl

122
Q

Lead OD

A

Lead:
EdtA**
Dimercaprol
Succimer

123
Q

Acetaminophen OD

A

N-acetylcysteine

  • binds to toxic metabolite (NAQPI)
  • also provides sulfhydryl groups to enhance elimination
  • replenishes glutathione
124
Q

ß blocker OD

A

glucagon - acts on GPCR to increase cAMP, thereby releasing intracellular Ca -> increases contractility + HR; improves within minutes

125
Q

Salicylates OD

A

NaHCO3/alkalinize urine to increase excretion
gastric decontamination (pump)
correct fluid/electrolyte imbalance

126
Q

Benzodiazepines OD

A

Flumazenil (GABAa antagonist)

127
Q

Digoxin OD - 3

A

Anti-dig Fab fragments
Mg2+
Normalize K+ slowly

128
Q

carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% hyperbaric O2

129
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors OD

A

Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

130
Q

Heparin OD

A

protamine sulfate

131
Q

Methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze) OD

A

Fomepizole (1st-line), ethanol, dialysis

132
Q

TCAs OD - arrhythmias

A

NaHCO3

133
Q

Opioids OD

A

Naloxone/naltrexone - both opioid antagonists

134
Q

organophosphates OD

A 
Atropine
pralidoxime (2-PAM)
135
Q

Iron OD

A

Deferoxamine, deferasirox

136
Q

Cyanide OD

A

Amyl Nitrite**
thiosulfate
hydroxocobalamin

137
Q

Copper, arsenic, gold OD

A

Penicillamine

138
Q

Theophylline OD

A

β-blocker

139
Q

Methemoglobin OD

A

Methylene blue (reducing agent that converts iron in heme from Fe3+ -> Fe2+, vitamin C

140
Q

Mercury, arsenic, gold OD

A

Dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

141
Q

Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents OD

A

physostigmine (AChE inhibitor)

142
Q

post-op or neurogenic ileus

A

bethanecol or neostigmine

143
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine (long-acting) or neostigmine

144
Q

atropine OD

A

physostigmine

145
Q

Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantime

146
Q

Parkinson’s

A

Benztropine

147
Q

Motion Sickness

A

Scopolamine

148
Q

COPD

A

Ipratropium, Tiotropium

149
Q

reduce urgency in mild cystitis/ reduce bladder spasm

A

oxybutynin

150
Q

Preop to reduce airway secretions

A

glycopyrrolate

151
Q

person on MAOi who ate wine/cheese

A

phentolamine (reversible)

152
Q

drug for sweat test in CF patients

A

pilocarpine

153
Q

drug for asthma test

A

methacholine

154
Q

drug to diagnose myasthenia gravis

A

edrophonium

155
Q

severe galactosemia

A

exclude galactose + lactose

156
Q

Von Gierke

A

frequent oral glucose + starch

avoid fructose + galactose

157
Q

fructose intolerance

A

decrease sugar intake (glucose + fructose + sucrose)

158
Q

Pyruvate DH malfunctioning (mutation or due to arsenic)

A

increase fat + lysine + leucine

159
Q

Hyperammonemia due to urea cycle enzyme deficiency - 4

A

decrease protein in diet
benzoate + phenylbutyrate
lactulose

160
Q

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

A

restrict proteins

161
Q

Orotic aciduria

A

uridine (inhibits CPS II)

162
Q

Lesch Nyhan

A

allopurinol

Febuxostat

163
Q

Gout - acute attack

A

colchicine (blocks PMN chemotaxis by affecting microtubules)

probenecid - only for patients w/ good renal function

164
Q

Porphobilinogen deaminase

A

glucose + heme (inhibits ALAS)

165
Q

maple syrup urine disease

A

decrease isoleucine, leucine, valine

increase thiamine

166
Q

homocystinuria

A

pyridoxine (B6)

167
Q

nitroprusside OD

A

Sodium thiosulfate (sulfur) since Nitroprusside is initially metabolized to cyanide)

168
Q

Conn syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)

A

Spironolactone or Eplerenone (fewer ADR) - both aldosterone antagonists

169
Q

partial seizures (simple + complex)

A

carbamazepine

170
Q

myoclonic seizures

A

valproic acid

171
Q

Tourette Syndrome

A

Haloperidol

172
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine - antihistamine w/ anti-serotonergic properties

173
Q

Psychosis

A

Haloperidol

174
Q

ascites secondary to cirrhosis

A

furosemide + spironolactone

175
Q

hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose

176
Q

Wilson’s disease

A 
penicillamine chelation (removes excess copper from tissues)
Trientine
177
Q

hemochromatosis
Multiple blood transfusions
Iron poisoning etc

A

deferoxamine - chelating agent

178
Q

hepatic adenomas

A

discontinuation of oral contraceptives or anabolic steroid use

179
Q

barbituates OD - CNS depression

A

supportive

  • gastric pump
  • decrease gastric absorption
  • forced alkaline diuresis (diuretic + urinary alkalinization)
180
Q

salicylate OD

A

supportive, gastric pump, decrease gastric absorption

forced alkaline diuresis (diuretic + urinary alkalinization)

181
Q

initial treatment for septic arthritis (while waiting for lab results)

A

ceftriaxone (usually due to gonococcus)

182
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

dantrolene or D2 agonist) o

183
Q

esophageal varices rupture

A

endoscopic ligation AND octreotide (somatostatin analog - inhibits release of vasodilator hormones, resulting in splanchnic vasoconstriction)

184
Q

High LDL (hypercholesterolemia)

A

Statin + Ezetimibe (LC-ES)

185
Q

High TG (hypertriglyceridemia)

A

Statins + Fibrates (TSF)

186
Q

Low HDL

A

Niacin

187
Q

Inflammatory traveler’s diarrhea

A

ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolone)

188
Q

Ascaris, Enterobius, Ancycostoma

A

Mebendazole

189
Q

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

A

Albendazole

190
Q

Campylobacter jejeni

A

Erythromycin

191
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

Metronidazole

192
Q

diabetic peripheral neuropathy

A

Amytriptyline (TCA) more common

duloxetine (SSRI)

0. Step Ia (28 decks)

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