mi 116 unit 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are micoorganisms?

A

grow in or on a host organism and cause diseases known as infections

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2
Q

what is an infection ?

A

establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host

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3
Q

what go pathogens produce ?

A

high temperature, nausea, vomiting or shock

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4
Q

what are the four types of pathogens?

A

bacteria, virus, fungi and protozoa

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5
Q

bacteria

A

single celled organisms that grow in a colony
can be cocci, spheres, bacilli, rods or spiral shaped
strept throat, pneumonia, and food poisoning

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6
Q

virus

A

cannot live outside a living cell and depends on host cell
can lay dormant at times
rhinovirus, warts

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7
Q

fungi

A

much larger then bacteria
yeast and molds
athletes foot, ringworm, tinea nigra
medically important fungi are dimorphic

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8
Q

protozoa

A

larger then bacteria
live on or in other organisms and have motile functionality
can ingest foot particles
pinworms, tapeworms, malaria

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9
Q

STEPS to require a break through the host

A

encounter-entry-spread-multiplication-damage-outcome

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10
Q

what are the four factors involved with the spread of infection ?

A

a host, an infectious microorganism, a mode of transportation and a reservoir
if broken, the infection will cease at any point

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11
Q

where do microorganism thrive?

A

warm temperatures, darkness and moist areas

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12
Q

exogenously

A

from outside the body (can be direct or indirect)

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13
Q

endogenously

A

from inside the body (flora transported to a different area)

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14
Q

exogenously (indirect)

A

vector (vehicle) or a fomite (mechanical or biological)

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15
Q

exogenously (direct)

A

host to host
can be hand holding, coughing or sexual contact

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16
Q

vector

A

usually an arthropod
needs a microorganism to enter and exit the body
tick or insect

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17
Q

fomite

A

inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious organism
food, water, latex gloves, etc

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18
Q

reservoir

A

site where an infectious organism can remain alive and from which transmission can occur
can be people, animals, insects or inanimate objects like food or dust

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19
Q

CHAIN of infection

A

infectious agents- reservoir- portals of exit-modes of transmission- portals of entry- susceptible host

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20
Q

HAIs

A

healthcare associated infections
-infections people acquire while they are receiving treatment in healthcare setting for another condition
-UTIs, surgical sit infection, pneumonia

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21
Q

nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired infection
-5% of hospital patients acquire an additional condition while in the hospital

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22
Q

iatrogenic

A

infection that is a result of interventions with a physician

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23
Q

communicable diseases

A

HIV, HBV, flu, chicken pox, malaria, tuberculosis, polio

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24
Q

HIV

A

blood borne pathogen
infects the CD4 and T cells in the human host

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25
Q

hepatitis B

A

HBV, causes illness that primarily affects the liver
transmits through needle, penetrating injury and inmate contact

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26
Q

MDRO

A

multi-drug resistant organism
C-DIFF!!!
MRSA, VRE, ESBLs,PRSP, MDR

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27
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
a lot of the times comes from open skin
comes from contact with infected objects or surfaces

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28
Q

VRE

A

part of the normal flora in the GI
capable of causes disease when it affects blood, urine, or wounds
large groups and resistant to a lot of drugs
resistant to normal hand washing

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29
Q

C-Diff

A

clostridium diffcile
bowel disease
spore forming bacterium that releases toxins into the bowel, resistant to disinfectants, easy to spread and frequent in the hospital

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30
Q

tuberculosis (TB)

A

recurrent, chronic disease caused by the spore-forming Mycobacterium, tuberculosis
mostly infects the lungs, communicable disease and treatable disease

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31
Q

how do you prevent disease transmission

A

wash your hands, get immunizations, get boosters, follow post exposure protocols

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32
Q

standard precautions

A

handwashing, gloves, PPE, Needle capping and biospills
all patients are potentially infectious

33
Q

whats the most effective way to preventing infection spread?

A

handwashing

34
Q

when should you use gloves?

A

any time a procedure or contact may include body fluids, blood, secretions, excretions, mucous membranes, non intact skin and contaminated items

35
Q

sequence for donning PPE

A

gown first, mask, goggles then gloves

36
Q

sequence for doffing PPE

A

gloves, goggles, gown, mask

37
Q

transmission based precautions

A

airbone, droplet, contact

38
Q

airborne

A

required N95 mask
pathogenic organisms that remain suspended in the air for long periods on aerosol droplets or dust
patients places in negative pressure isolation room

39
Q

what types of conditions require a N95 mask (airbone)

A

TB, chickenpox, and measles

40
Q

droplet

A

must be 3ft within a patient wearing a surgical mask
-infected with pathogenic organisms
contact

41
Q

what types of conditions are droplet

A

rubella, mumps, flu, and adenovirus

42
Q

contact

A

-need gloves, gown and possible face shield and bouffant
-a patient infected with a virulent pathogen that spreads by direct contact with the patient or by indirect contact w/ a contaminated object

43
Q

what conditions are considered contact

A

staphylococcus aureus, hepatitis A, impetigo, varicella, and varicella zoster

44
Q

gloves and gown rules

A

never leave outside patient room with “dirty gown” and “dirty gloves”

45
Q

environmental precautions

A

bleached is used
must by soap and water for hand hygiene

46
Q

compromised/ immunosuppressed

A

AKA neutropenic and protective precautions
-patient who is at increased risk for infection against contact with potential pathogens
we have to wear PPE

47
Q

aseptic technique

A

can be used in all clinical settings
most of the time this is used in surgery and insertion of IV, catheters and drains

48
Q

medical asepsis

A

performing a removal or destruction of material

49
Q

surgical aspesis

A

used to prevent contamination of microbes and endospores before during and after surgery using sterile technique

50
Q

sterilization

A

to control microorganisms we must have autocave steam under pressure, dry heat, gas and chemicals

51
Q

disinfection

A

as many microorganisms as possible are removed from surfaces by chemical or physical means (boiling not always effective)

52
Q

what procedures require sterile technique

A

angiography, arthrograms, hysterosalpinograms, x-ray in the oR and myelograms

53
Q

sterile field

A

do not reach across a sterile field, must be more than one inch border, use sterile drape

54
Q

OR zones

A

zone 1unrestricted, may enter in street clothes
zone 2- semi-restricted , only person I scrubs and hair and shoes covered may enter
zone 3-restricted, like zone 2 + mask

55
Q

sterile gowning

A

only sleeves and front of gown down to waist are considered sterile

56
Q

what is sterile during a sterile procedure

A

anything blue
patient, table and other furniture covered with sterile drapes, personnel wearing sterile attire

57
Q

dressing changes

A

must be ordered by a physician, wear gown if wound in patient, wash hands before beginning, ensure privacy, remove adherence tape from dressing, remove dressing with triceps or gloves hands, wrap dressing and places in plastic bag

58
Q

skin preparation

A

circle motions, inside to out

59
Q

urinary catheters

A

insertion of a tube the bladder using aseptic technique
foley and straight
used to empty bladder, relieve retention, irrigate the bladder

60
Q

foley

A

has a balloon which is filled with sterile water to hold the catherter in place

61
Q

straight

A

no balloon and used for short term/quick drainage

62
Q

non aspetic techniques

A

Ng tubes, male urinals, bedpans, enemas, colostomies

63
Q

barium enema

A

have patient in Sims position, lubricate enema tip, instruct patient to exhale, insert to umbilicus

64
Q

enema tip

A

non sterile

65
Q

endotracheal tubes

A

always associated with intubation
used for inadequate breathing, inadequate arterial oxygenation, severe airway obstruction, shock, parenchymal diseases that impair gas exchange, etc

66
Q

placement

A

distal tip of the tube should be 1-2 inches above the tracheal bifurcation, usually done through mouth or nose, cuff inflated with air and placed at mid trachea; pediatric tube does not have cuff

67
Q

complications with tube placement

A

most common misplacement is intubation of the right main bronchus; wider than left main bronchus and straighter than left main bronchus; tube may not be placed far enough; erosion of tracheal mucosa due to cuff trauma

68
Q

chest tubes

A

used to drain the intrapleural space and the mediastrunum (air and fluid)

69
Q

how lungs work

A

negative pressure is needed to explain the lungs and when liquid or air is in the pleural cavity, the lungs cannot expand

70
Q

nasogastric/ nasointestinal

A

patients cannot drink or eat with this
used to administration of medication, gastric decompression and removal of flatus and fluids from the stomach

71
Q

levin

A

single lumen is one line
most commonly used

72
Q

when is suction needed

A

excessive vomiting and unable to change position on their own; gurgling sounds

73
Q

suctioning in an emergency

A

suctioning is not in our scope of practice

74
Q

tracheostomies

A

used when theres an obstruction and we have to enter through a different way

75
Q

complications of central venous lines

A

one third of CVC lines places incorrectly
central line inserted on the right side should never corss the midline,left side needs to cross the midline and distal tip should not go bas SVC

76
Q

tissue drains

A

drain every 24 hours unless filled before hand

77
Q

ileostomy

A

surgical opening in the small intestine for colitis

78
Q

colostomy

A

surgical opening in the large intestine for various disorders

79
Q

ureteroilstomy

A

section at the end of the small bowl that is surgically removed and relocated as a passageway for urine to pass form the kidneys