Medicines 16 Flashcards

1
Q

how do you treat molluscum contagiosum

A

Molluscum contagiosum is a common, self-limiting viral skin infection

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2
Q

What counselling points should be given for people taking pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) e.g Creon

As per pancreatic cancer UK

A

more enzymes for larger meals and for fatty foods, as these need more enzymes to digest them.

Take PERT with all meals and snacks. You should also take it with drinks that are more than half milk.

Swallow the capsules whole, with a couple of sips of a cool drink. The enzymes won’t work properly if you take them with hot drinks
Hot food will also cause the enzymes to denature.

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3
Q

What are the treatments for UTIs as per nice guidelines for:
Non pregnant females

Pregnant females

Pyelonephritis

A

Non pregnant females:
1st line:Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim

2nd line:
fosfomycin, pivmecillinam hydrochloride, or amoxicillin

Pregnant females
First-line: Nitrofurantoin (avoid in 3rd trimester) – 100 mg modified-release twice daily for 7 days.
Alternatives:
Amoxicillin (if culture susceptible).
Cefalexin – 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.

Avoid trimethoprim in the 1st trimester unless folate levels are adequate.

Pyelonephritis:
Oral first line:
Cefalexin. If sensitivity known: co-amoxiclav, or trimethoprim. If other first line antibacterials are inappropriate, ciprofloxacin may be used.

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4
Q

How long after taking emergency contraception can a woman breast feed?

A

You can breastfeed 3–4 hours after taking Levonelle

Ella One - wait 7 days (one week)

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5
Q

Which medications are to be avoided using in opioid naive patients?

A

Fentanyl - MHRA alert

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6
Q

Which deficiency can alendronic acid cause?

A

Hypocalcemia:

Alendronic acid inhibits bone resorption by osteoclasts, which reduces calcium release from bones into the bloodstream.
This is particularly relevant in patients with inadequate calcium or vitamin D intake, or pre-existing hypocalcemia.

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7
Q

Can odansetron be used in pregnancy?

A

Manufacturer advises avoid in first trimester—small increased risk of congenital abnormalities such as orofacial clefts

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8
Q

Which medications are contraindicated in antibiotic-associated colitis?

A

Anti-motility agents:

Loperamide, diphenoxylate-atropine (risk of toxic megacolon).
Opioids:

Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, etc. (reduce gut motility, risk of toxic megacolon).
Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs):

Omeprazole, lansoprazole, etc. (increase C. difficile risk, avoid unless essential).
Broad-spectrum antibiotics:

Clindamycin, fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin), cephalosporins (linked to C. difficile).
NSAIDs:

Ibuprofen, naproxen, etc. (exacerbate inflammation, risk of complications).

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9
Q

Why is amlodipine contraindicated in unstable angina?

A

Amlodipine may be appropriate in stable angina or Prinzmetal’s angina (variant angina caused by coronary vasospasm), as its vasodilatory effects can relieve coronary artery spasm.

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10
Q

What is the difference between stable angina and unstable angina?

A

Stable angina is a chronic, manageable condition with predictable symptoms and lower short-term risk of heart attack.

Unstable angina is an acute emergency with unpredictable, severe symptoms and a higher risk of heart attack or death, requiring urgent treatment.

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11
Q

what is Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
and what do elevated levels suggest

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells (erythrocytes) settle in a vertical tube over a specific period (typically 1 hour). It is a non-specific marker of inflammation in the body.

Elevated levels suggest inflammation

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12
Q

As per NICE guidance what is the dosing for ibuprofen in children?

A

Ibuprofen Dosing by Age
1–2 Months:

5 mg/kg 3–4 times/day.
3–5 Months:

50 mg 3 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day.
6–11 Months:

50 mg 3–4 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day.
1–3 Years:

100 mg 3 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day.
4–6 Years:

150 mg 3 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day.
7–9 Years:

200 mg 3 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day or 2.4 g/day.
10–11 Years:

300 mg 3 times/day, max 30 mg/kg/day or 2.4 g/day.
12–17 Years:

Initial: 300–400 mg 3–4 times/day.
Maintenance: 200–400 mg 3 times/day.
Max: 600 mg 4 times/day.
Key Points
Max Dose: 30 mg/kg/day (children), 2.4 g/day (7+ years).
Divide daily dose into 3–4 doses.
Avoid in dehydration, renal impairment, or under 3 months without medical advice.

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13
Q

What is lactational amenorrhoea method and when is it effective?

A

The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is a natural method of birth control that involves breastfeeding after giving birth. It’s effective for the first six months after giving birth.

When you’re exclusively breastfeeding and haven’t had your period since giving birth, your body doesn’t ovulate (release eggs). Without ovulation, you can’t get pregnant.

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14
Q

What is scarlet fever, what are the symptoms and how is it treated?

A

Symptoms of Scarlet Fever
Sore Throat – Often the first symptom.
Fever – High temperature (38°C or higher).
Red Rash – Appears 12–48 hours after fever, feels like sandpaper, starts on the chest and stomach, and spreads.
Flushed Face – Red cheeks with pale skin around the mouth.
Strawberry Tongue – Red and swollen tongue with a white coating in the early stages.
Other Symptoms – Headache, nausea, vomiting, swollen glands, and fatigue.

Scarlet fever should be treated promptly with antibiotics to prevent complications, regardless of the severity of
illness

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15
Q

What is slapped cheek syndrome and what are the rules around keeping the child off school?

A

Slapped cheek syndrome (also called fifth disease) is a mild viral infection caused by parvovirus B19.

Once diagnosed with slapped cheek syndrome, you do not need to keep your child off school because once the rash
appears, they are no longer infectious. It is usually a mild, self-limiting illness.
For children and adults (who are not pregnant) with suspected parvovirus B19 infection, management includes
advice on:
* Symptom relief, such as fluids, analgesia, and rest.
* The need for exclusion from school, nursery, or work (if appropriate). Note: t

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of shingles?

A

Key Signs of Shingles
Pain or Tingling – Burning, stabbing, or tingling sensation in a specific area, often the first symptom.
Red Rash – Appears a few days after the pain, typically on one side of the body or face.
Blisters – Fluid-filled blisters form over the rash, which may burst and scab over.
Itching – The rash can feel very itchy.
Other Symptoms – Fever, headache, fatigue, or sensitivity to light.
The rash follows the path of a nerve (dermatome) and does not cross the midline of the body. Prompt treatment with antivirals can reduce severity and complications.

17
Q

WHich of the gliptins would you give in reduced renal function?

A

no dose adjustments required for linagliptin in
renal impairment.

The rest all have dose adjustments

18
Q

What key monitoring is required for lithium every 6 months?

A

BNF recommends monitoring body weight/BMI, serum electrolyte, eGFR, thyroid function every 6 months

19
Q

How does HRT affect bones?

A

Risk of fragility fracture is DECREASED while taking HRT. This is beneficial, reducing risks of osteoporosis and fracture.

20
Q

what are the 4 main tools used in cardiovascular treatment and when are they used?

A
  1. QRISK
    Use: Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) in non-AF patients.
    Purpose: 10-year risk of cardiovascular events (e.g., heart attack, stroke).
    Applicable to: General population aged 25–84 without prior CVD or AF.
  2. HAS-BLED
    Use: Bleeding risk assessment, mainly in AF patients on anticoagulants.
    Note: May be used off-label for bleeding risk in non-AF anticoagulated patients.
    Not for: General cardiovascular risk in non-AF patients.
  3. ORBIT
    Use: Bleeding risk in AF patients on oral anticoagulants.
    Not for: Non-AF patients unless on anticoagulants for other reasons.
  4. CHA2DS2-VASc
    Use: Stroke risk in AF patients for anticoagulation guidance.
21
Q

Which foods are purine rich foods?

A

purine-rich foods, particularly red meat and seafood, increase the risk of gout as higher purine intake is
associated with higher uric acid levels. For maintenance treatment, the aim is for serum uric acid levels below 300
micromol/L.

22
Q

What behaviours and activities increase the risk of hepatitis B

A

Behaviours and activities which increase the risk of Hepatitis B include:
* unprotected sex.
* exposure to blood or blood products through occupation, such as healthcare work.
* exposure to contaminated needles through injecting drug use, or as a result of accessing medical or dental
care, because of needing emergency treatment or those travelling specifically for medical treatment.
* participation in contact sports.
* adoption of children from risk countries.
* long stay travel.

23
Q

what are some key factors to remember about the hepatitis B vaccine

A

A. An accelerated schedule is possible, which for adults is a 20 mcg dose at zero, one and two months, with a fourth dose at 12 months for those in certain risk categories.

B. Symptoms of hepatitis B may include jaundice, loss of appetite, fever and abdominal pain.

C. The deltoid muscle is the preferred site for the intramuscular injection.

D. The standard immunisation schedule for adults is 20 mcg at zero, one and six months.

24
Q

What are factors that can trigger rosacea?

A

Factors include:
* Increasing age.
* Photosensitive skin types.
* Ultraviolet radiation exposure.
* Smoking.
* Heat or cold ambient temperature.
* Spicy foods and hot drinks.
* Alcohol.
* Emotional stress and exercise.
* Drugs such as calcium-channel blockers (may worsen vasodilatation and flushing) and topical corticosteroids.

25
Q

Which type of cancer do PPIs mask?

A

Particular care is required for patients presenting with any ‘alarm features’ of gastric cancer, due to the ability of
proton pump inhibitors to mask the symptoms of gastric cancer in adults.