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Key Medicine Knowledge > Ai Generated > Flashcards

Ai Generated Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main uses of macrolides like Erythromycin?

A

Respiratory, skin and soft tissue infections; severe pneumonia; eradication of H.pylori

Macrolides serve as alternatives to penicillins.

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2
Q

Which macrolides are CYP inhibitors?

A

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin

These can affect the metabolism of other drugs.

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

This action blocks translocation required for elongation of the polypeptide chain.

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4
Q

What are the common side effects of macrolides?

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, thrombophlebitis, allergy, cholestatic jaundice, QT interval prolongation

High doses can also lead to ototoxicity.

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5
Q

What should be monitored when prescribing macrolides?

A

Resolution of infection, C-reactive protein, white cell count

These markers help assess the effectiveness of treatment.

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6
Q

What are the main uses of penicillins like Benzylpenicillin?

A

Streptococcal infections, clostridial infections, meningococcal infections

Also used for skin and soft tissue infections.

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7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicillins?

A

Inhibit PBP responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycans in bacterial cell walls

This weakens the cell wall leading to bacterial lysis and death.

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8
Q

What are the side effects associated with penicillins?

A

Diarrhea, fever, thrush, skin rash, anaphylaxis, central nervous system toxicity

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction.

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9
Q

Which penicillin is resistant to penicillinase?

A

Flucloxacillin

Effective against penicillin-resistant Staphylococcal infections except MRSA.

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10
Q

What is the recommended way to take Amoxicillin?

A

Can be taken before or after food

It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics.

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11
Q

What are the main uses of cephalosporins?

A

2nd and 3rd line treatment for urinary and respiratory tract infections

IV cephalosporins are used for severe or complicated infections.

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins?

A

Inhibit PBP responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycans in bacterial cell walls

They have a broad spectrum of action and are more resistant to beta-lactamases.

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13
Q

What are common side effects of cephalosporins?

A

GI upset, antibiotic-associated colitis, hypersensitivity reactions, CNS toxicity

More common in 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins.

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14
Q

What are aminoglycosides primarily used for?

A

Severe infections caused by gram-negative aerobes, including pseudomonas aeruginosa

They are typically given via parenteral injection.

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15
Q

Which aminoglycoside is often used for cystic fibrosis?

A

Tobramycin

Administered via inhaler for pseudomonal infection.

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16
Q

What should be avoided in patients with a history of penicillin allergy?

A

Cephalosporins, especially if there was anaphylaxis

Cross-reactivity can occur between beta-lactam antibiotics.

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17
Q

What is a true penicillin allergy characterized by?

A

Immediate rash, anaphylaxis, hives

This requires avoidance of all beta-lactam antibiotics.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: Erythromycin is primarily used for _______.

A

respiratory, skin, and soft tissue infections

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19
Q

True or False: Macrolides are bactericidal.

A

False

Macrolides are bacteriostatic, assisting the immune system.

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20
Q

Which drug class is used to treat severe sepsis?

A

Aminoglycosides

They are effective against gram-negative bacteria.

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21
Q

What is the side effect of cholestatic jaundice associated with?

A

Amoxicillin, Flucloxacillin

Risk increases with duration of treatment.

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22
Q

What is the primary use of GENTAMICIN?

A

Active against pseudomonas aeruginosa

Gentamicin is commonly used for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Bind irreversibly to bacterial ribosomes 30S subunit and inhibit protein synthesis. They are bactericidal.

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24
Q

What is a key side effect of aminoglycosides?

A

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Nephrotoxicity can be reversible, while ototoxicity may lead to irreversible hearing loss.

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25
Q

What is the role of TOBRAMYCIN in cystic fibrosis?

A

Administered via inhaler for pseudomonal infection.

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26
Q

Which aminoglycoside is reserved for treating tuberculosis?

A

STREPTOMYCIN.

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27
Q

Fill in the blank: NEOMYCIN is _______.

A

parenterally toxic; used in bowel sterilization.

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28
Q

What is the significance of monitoring serum aminoglycoside concentrations?

A

To avoid excessive dosage and prevent toxicity.

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29
Q

True or False: Aminoglycosides are effective against anaerobes.

A

False.

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30
Q

What are the contraindications for aminoglycosides?

A

Myasthenia gravis, severe renal impairment, and pregnancy unless necessary.

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31
Q

What should be monitored before starting treatment with aminoglycosides?

A

Renal function.

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32
Q

What is the main use of METRONIDAZOLE?

A

Treatment of anaerobic bacteria.

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33
Q

What mechanism does METRONIDAZOLE use to kill bacteria?

A

Generates a nitroso free radical that binds to DNA, causing degradation and cell death.

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34
Q

List common side effects of METRONIDAZOLE.

A
  • GI upset: nausea, vomiting
  • Neurological adverse effects: peripheral neuropathy, seizures
  • Taste disturbances.
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35
Q

What is a key drug interaction to be aware of with METRONIDAZOLE?

A

Alcohol can cause a disulfiram-like reaction.

36
Q

What is TRIMETHOPRIM primarily used for?

A

1st choice for uncomplicated urinary tract infections.

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of TRIMETHOPRIM?

A

Inhibits bacterial folate synthesis, making it bacteriostatic.

38
Q

What are potential side effects of TRIMETHOPRIM?

A
  • GI upset
  • Skin rash
  • Hyperkalaemia.
39
Q

What should be monitored during long-term use of TRIMETHOPRIM?

A

Blood counts.

40
Q

What is the main use of CHLORAMPHENICOL?

A

Treatment of superficial eye infections.

41
Q

What mechanism does CHLORAMPHENICOL use to inhibit bacterial growth?

A

Binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit and blocks peptidyl transferase activity.

42
Q

Fill in the blank: RIFAMPICIN is commonly used for _______.

A

treatment and prevention of tuberculosis.

43
Q

What side effect is associated with RIFAMPICIN?

A

Orange-red discoloration of tears and urine.

44
Q

What should be monitored in patients taking RIFAMPICIN?

A

Liver function tests and blood counts.

45
Q

What are common symptoms associated with infections like fever?

A

Fever, chills, bone pain

These symptoms may indicate various infections that require further investigation.

46
Q

How does rifampicin affect hormonal contraception?

A

Effectiveness of hormonal contraception is reduced

Alternative family planning advice should be offered, such as using condoms.

47
Q

What teratogenic risks are associated with high doses of rifampicin during pregnancy?

A

Very high doses are teratogenic in the first trimester and risk of neonatal bleeding may be increased in the third trimester.

48
Q

What is the recommended daily limit of rifampicin for patients with hepatic impairment?

A

Avoid or do not exceed 8 mg/kg daily.

49
Q

What precautions should be taken for patients with renal impairment when using rifampicin?

A

Use with caution if the dose is above 600mg daily.

50
Q

What drug interactions are known with rifampicin?

A

Accelerated metabolism reduces concentration of:
* Aminophylline
* Theophylline
* Benzodiazepines
* Bisoprolol
* Chloramphenicol
* Ciclosporin
* Tacrolimus
* Cimetidine
* Clozapine
* Codeine
* Diclofenac
* Diltiazem, verapamil, nifedipine
* Digoxin
* Eplerenone
* Fentanyl, morphine
* Fluconazole
* Haloperidol
* Itraconazole
* Ketoconazole
* Simvastatin
* Terbinafine
* Trimethoprim
* Corticosteroids
* Coumarins
* Oestrogens, progestogens.

51
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of vancomycin?

A

Inhibits growth and cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains inhibiting synthesis of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.

52
Q

What are the side effects of vancomycin?

A

Side effects include:
* Pain and inflammation of the vein
* Red man syndrome
* Nephrotoxicity
* Ototoxicity
* Blood disorders.

53
Q

What is a significant caution for using vancomycin in elderly patients?

A

Dose reduction is necessary due to increased risk of hearing impairment.

54
Q

What are the main uses of clindamycin?

A

Most frequently associated with antibiotic-associated colitis, especially in middle-aged, elderly women.

55
Q

What should patients do if they develop diarrhea while taking clindamycin?

A

STOP! and see GP.

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of antifungals like nystatin?

A

Bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes creating a polar pore which allows intracellular ions to leak out.

57
Q

What are common side effects of fluconazole?

A

GI upset, headache, hepatitis, skin rash, life-threatening reactions.

58
Q

What is an important caution when prescribing fluconazole?

A

Caution in liver disease due to risk of hepatotoxicity.

59
Q

What is the primary use of terbinafine?

A

Treatment of tinea pedis (athlete’s foot), corporis (ringworm), cruris (jock itch).

60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of terbinafine?

A

Inhibits the enzyme squalene epoxidase, which inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol.

61
Q

What are the side effects of mebendazole?

A

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, flatulence, dizziness, rash, hepatitis.

62
Q

What precautions should be taken when using mebendazole?

A

Avoid in pregnancy and not suitable for children under 2 years.

63
Q

What is a critical counseling point for patients taking antifungals like clotrimazole?

A

If symptoms do not improve within seven days, speak with your doctor.

64
Q

Fill in the blank: Rifampicin may discolour soft contact lenses, urine and other bodily fluids – don’t _______.

A

worry

65
Q

True or False: Ketoconazole should be prescribed orally due to its effectiveness.

A

False

Ketoconazole shouldn’t be prescribed orally as it can cause severe hepatotoxicity.

66
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving high doses of medication?

A

Blood counts

67
Q

What is the maximum single dose of Mebendazole for treating enterobiasis in adults and children over 2 years?

A

100 mg

68
Q

What is the maximum amount of Mebendazole that can be supplied in a package?

A

800 mg

69
Q

What hygiene practice is crucial to prevent re-infection of enterobiasis?

A

Wash hands and scrub nails after visiting the toilet and before eating

70
Q

True or False: Mebendazole kills the eggs of the parasite.

A

False

71
Q

What is the primary use of Aciclovir?

A

Herpes simplex infection

72
Q

For how many days is Aciclovir usually used for Herpes simplex infections?

A

5 days

73
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Aciclovir?

A

Inactivates DNA polymerase and causes chain termination in viral DNA synthesis

74
Q

What are common side effects of systemic use of Aciclovir?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Fatigue
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Photosensitivity
  • Pruritus, rash
75
Q

In which condition should the frequency and dose of Aciclovir be reduced?

A

Renal impairment

76
Q

What should be monitored while using Aciclovir?

A

Renal function

77
Q

What are the main uses of Proguanil?

A

Prophylaxis of malaria

78
Q

What is the recommended dosage of Proguanil for malaria prophylaxis?

A

200 mg OD

79
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Proguanil?

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with folic acid synthesis and DNA replication

80
Q

What are common side effects of Proguanil?

A
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
  • Mild gastric intolerance
  • Cholestasis
  • Hair loss
  • Skin reactions
  • Mouth ulcers, stomatitis
81
Q

What should be ensured for pregnant women taking Proguanil?

A

Adequate folate supplements

82
Q

What should be monitored when taking Proguanil?

A
  • Renal function
  • Symptoms of malaria up to one year after returning
83
Q

Fill in the blank: Proguanil should be started _______ before entering a malaria endemic area.

A

one week

84
Q

What measures should be taken to avoid mosquito bites during malaria prophylaxis?

A
  • Wear long loose fitting clothing
  • Use permethrin or DEET insecticide sprays
  • Avoid traveling outdoors after sunset
  • Use a mosquito net when sleeping outdoors
85
Q

What should be done if a person falls ill within a year after returning from a malaria endemic area?

A

Immediately visit the doctor

Key Medicine Knowledge (40 decks)

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