Medicines 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of inhalers can cause dry mouth symptoms?

A

Antimuscarinics - LAMA, SAMA - “Can’t shit, Can’t spit”

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2
Q

What monitoring is required with Unfractionated heparins?

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Platelet counts should be measured just before treatment with unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin, and regular monitoring of platelet counts may be required if given for longer than 4 days. See the British Society for Haematology’s Guidelines on the diagnosis and management of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia: second edition. Br J Haematol 2012; 159: 528–540.

Hyperkalaemia
Plasma-potassium concentration should be measured in patients at risk of hyperkalaemia before starting the heparin and monitored regularly thereafter, particularly if treatment is to be continued for longer than 7 days.

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3
Q

How long can a beclometasone nasal spray be used for?

A

3 months as per EMC

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4
Q

What are the key things to remember regarding mebendazole?

A

if reinfection occurs can be given 14 days after initial dose.
treat all family members
Licensed for 2 years+

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5
Q

What age is chloramphenicol not licensed for sale?

A

below 2 years old

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6
Q

Why shouldnt you give buprenorphine patches and fentanyl patches together?

A

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the mu-opioid receptor and has a high receptor affinity. This means it binds tightly to opioid receptors but activates them less strongly than full agonists like fentanyl.
When given alongside fentanyl (a full agonist), buprenorphine can displace fentanyl from the receptors due to its higher affinity, reducing the analgesic effect of fentanyl and potentially causing withdrawal symptoms in patients who are opioid-tolerant.

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7
Q

What are key things to remember with Isotretinoin?

A
  • Weight based dosing!
  • Pregnancy prevention plan
  • reports of erectile dysfunction and decreased libido
  • Neuropsychiatric reactions
  • Prescription valid for 7 days

Cautions For isotretinoin
Avoid blood donation during treatment and for at least 1 month after treatment

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8
Q

What is the dose of bisphosphonates in a male vs female?

A

Alendronic Acid - Adult (female)
10 mg once daily, alternatively 70 mg once weekly.

Adult (male)
10 mg once daily.

Risedronate
Adult (female)
5 mg daily, alternatively 35 mg once weekly.

Adult (male)
35 mg once weekly.

Ibandronic
Adult (female)
150 mg once a month, alternatively (by intravenous injection) 3 mg every 3 months, to be administered over 15–30 seconds.

Zoledronic acid
Adult
5 mg once yearly as a single dose, in patients with a recent low-trauma hip fracture, the dose should be given at least 2 weeks after hip fracture repair; before first infusion give 50 000–125 000 units of vitamin D.

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9
Q

How often is routine mamogram testing done and on what age groups under the NHS

A

The NHS Breast Screening Programme invites all women from the age of 50 to 70 registered with a GP for screening every 3 years.

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10
Q

Which of the SSRIs is associated with less withdrawal side effects?

A

Fluoxetine is associated with a lower risk of withdrawal symptoms
if stopped abruptly due to longer half-life.

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11
Q

What monitoring is required with minocycline?

A

If treatment continued for longer than 6 months, monitor every 3 months for hepatotoxicity, pigmentation and for systemic lupus erythematosus—discontinue if these develop or if pre-existing systemic lupus erythematosus worsens.

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12
Q

what is the max dose of the different SSRIs in over 65s?

A

Citalopram 20 mg once daily Higher doses increase the risk of QT prolongation.

Escitalopram 10 mg once daily Risk of QT prolongation increases with doses above 10 mg in older adults.

Fluoxetine 60 mg once daily Long half-life; lower doses are often effective.

Sertraline 200 mg once daily Generally well-tolerated in older adults.

Paroxetine 40 mg once daily More prone to cause anticholinergic effects (e.g., confusion).

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13
Q

What are key monitoring to remember about antipsychotic medication?

A

Weight should be measured at the start of therapy with antipsychotic drugs, then weekly for the first 6 weeks, then at 12 weeks, at 1 year, and then yearly.

Fasting blood glucose, HbA1c, and blood lipid concentrations should be measured at baseline, at 12 weeks, at 1 year, and then yearly. Prolactin concentrations should also be measured at baseline.

Before initiating antipsychotic drugs, an ECG may be required, particularly if physical examination identifies cardiovascular risk factors (e.g. high blood pressure), if there is a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or if the patient is being admitted as an inpatient.

Blood pressure monitoring is advised before starting therapy, at 12 weeks, at 1 year and then yearly during treatment and dose titration of antipsychotic drugs.

Expert sources advise to monitor full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests at the start of therapy with antipsychotic drugs, and then yearly thereafter.

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14
Q

What is the difference between most antipsychotics?

A

There is little difference in efficacy between each of the antipsychotic drugs (other than clozapine), and response and tolerability to each antipsychotic drug varies.

Both first-generation and second-generation antipsychotic drugs are associated with side-effects that are common and contribute significantly to non-adherence and treatment discontinuation.

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15
Q

What are some key side effects to note with antipsychotics?

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms

Hyperprolactinaemia - increase in prolactin

Sexual dysfunction

Cardiovascular side-effects
tachycardia, arrhythmias, and hypotension

Hypotension

Hyperglycaemia and diabetes

Weight gain - Clozapine and olanzapine commonly cause weight gain

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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16
Q

Which medication is used to treat withdrawals from alcohol

A

Benzodiazepines are the only pharmacological agents that have been shown to reduce alcohol withdrawal signs and
symptoms, prevent alcohol-related seizures, and reduce Delirium Tremens. All benzodiazepines appear to be equally
effective in treating withdrawal symptoms

Clomethiazole is a potential alternative

17
Q

Name some antimuscarinics and the risk associated with them

A

Oxybutynin
Solifenacin
Trospium
Darifenacin
Tolterodine
Fesoterodine

“Can’t Shit, can’t spit, can’t see, cant pee” , confusion also possible in elderly

18
Q

What are the different treatments given in Alcoholism?

A

Alcohol dependence (Helps reduce cravings) - Acamprosate calcium or oral naltrexone hydrochloride can be used in combination with a psychological intervention. (start after assisted withdrawal) - - - - - - - -

  • Disulfiram given as alternative if others unsuitable - Leads to unpleasant symptoms if alcohol is consumed.

Thiamine (Vit B1) - Suspected Wernicke’s Encalopathy (confusion Ataxia, Eye paralysis), or malnourishment

Nalmefene - blocks opioid receptors reducing rewards associated with alcohol consumption

19
Q

What are the main contraindications with oral diclofenac ?

A
  • History of GI ulceration/bleeding/haemorrhage
  • ischaemic heart disease; mild to severe heart failure; peripheral arterial disease
20
Q

WHat is the safest analgesic to use in alcoholic liver disease and liver cirrhosis?

A

Paracetamol
Rationale:
Although paracetamol is metabolized by the liver, studies have shown that it is less hepatotoxic than other analgesics when used appropriately, even in those with liver dysfunction.

Why not NSAIDs or Opioids?
NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen)
Generally avoided due to:
Risk of gastrointestinal bleeding (especially in cirrhosis with portal hypertension).
Risk of renal impairment and hepatorenal syndrome.
Potential to worsen ascites by reducing renal perfusion.

Opioids (e.g., codeine, morphine, tramadol)
Use with caution and at lower doses, due to:
Reduced hepatic metabolism leading to drug accumulation.
Increased risk of hepatic encephalopathy in liver cirrhosis.

21
Q

What monitoring of patient parameters is required with Lithium?

A

Before treatment initiation, assess body-weight or BMI, renal and thyroid function, urea and electrolytes (including calcium levels), and a full blood count. An ECG is recommended in patients with cardiovascular disease or risk factors for it.

Body-weight or BMI, renal and thyroid function, and urea and electrolytes (including calcium levels) should be monitored at least every 6 months during treatment, and more often if there is evidence of impaired renal or thyroid function, raised calcium levels, or an increase in mood symptoms that might be related to impaired thyroid function or altered calcium levels. Specialists may recommend regular monitoring of cardiac function for some patients.

22
Q

What does a high TSH and low T4 suggest?

A

When a patient has high TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), it typically indicates primary hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive and not producing enough thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). As a result, the pituitary gland increases TSH production to stimulate the thyroid gland.

Might require levothyroxine (T4)

23
Q

What side effects can loop diuretics such as furosemide have?

A

Dehydration
Hypotension
Dizziness
Low electrolyte state: hyponatraemia, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis
At high doses: hearing loss and tinnitus

24
Q
A