Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Derm Surg questions > Medications > Flashcards

Medications Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What is the first line of treatment for pain management following skin surgery.

A

1 gram acetaminophen every eight hours

400mg of Ibuprofen every 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum dose of oxycodone

A

5mg tablets dispense 10 for no longer than 36 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much codeine?

A

18mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much hydrocodone

A

10mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much tramadol

A

25mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much morphine

A

2mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much oxymorphone

A

1.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5mg of oxycodone is equivalent to how much hydromorphone

A

.8mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FDA standard for testing required how much sunscreen applied.

A

2gm per cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much sunscreen for total body application

A

one ounce (a shot glass full)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is uva testing based on.

A

MED minimal pigmenting dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is uva of sunscreen tested?

A

critical wavelength. wave length above 290 where 90% of cumulative absorption occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do chemical sunscreen work?

A

absorb UV and convert to heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the most common uva sunscreen blockers in the US

A

Benzophenones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do inorganic sunscreens work?

A

reflect or scatter radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the inorganic sunscreens work better for UVB.

A

zinc best for UVB

Titanium for UVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What percent of inorganic sunscreens penetrate the stratum corneum.

A

They don’t penetrate the stratum corneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

5FU treatment reduces AKs and SCC by what percent in 1 year.

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

5FU treatment reduces Bcc by what % in one year?

A

0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what percent does oral acitretin lower SCC.

A

60% no effect on existing KAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the dosage of acitretin?

A

20-30gm per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Capecitabine?

A

5FU oral Pro Drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Capecitabine is useful in SCC skin cancer chemoprevention for what reason?

A

Does not cause organ rejection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What two things must you check for before starting Capecitabine?

A
  1. dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency

2. renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how are all the amide anesthetics metabolized

A

CYP450 in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how are all the ester anesthetics metabolized

A

Plasma Pseudocholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List the four ester anesthetics the others are all amides

A

Procaine (Novacaine) teeth
Chloroprocaine nerve
Cocaine nose
Tetracaine eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how long does lidocaine last

A

30 minutes to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the ph of lidocaine

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how do you neutralize the acid of lidocaine.

A

sodium bicarbonate 8.4% one ml per 10ml of 1% lidocaine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the dose recommended for post op pain from complex skin surgery of oxycodone

A

5mg x 10 tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the current pain management guidelines for skin surgery

A

one gram of acetaminophen alternate Q 4hours with 400mg of Ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the bioequivalence for 5mg oxycodone

A

75mg Tramadol
50mg codiene
7.5 mg morphine and hydrocodone
2.5 mg oxy and hydro morphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the three subtypes of minocycline hyperpigmentation.

A

Type 1 in scars only
Type 2 Blue Gray discoloration arms and legs
Type 3 Muddy brown discoloration in sun exposed areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Does Cephalexin have good coverage for MRSA

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name 5 drug classes good for MRSA

A

Clindamycin,
Tetracycline classes,
trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole (Septra, Bactrim)
Linezolid (zyvox)
Vancomycin (given IV oral poor absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what antibiotic do you use in a pt with a valve and you are operating on a mucosal surface.

A

amoxicillin 2gms 30-60 minutes prior to surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the 1/2 life of acitretin/ soriatane

A

48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name a nib that is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor

A

Imatinib (Gleevec) used for DFSP and CML ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why was Ingenol mebutate discontinued?

A

piccata was stopped due to increase risk of SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what has a mechanism of Toll like receptor agonist used to treat bccs and Aks

A

Imiquimod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what can treat superficial bcc and AK that works by blocking pyrimidine

A

5FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does neoadjuvant therapy mean?

A

administering the adjuvant therapy before the main treatment.

44
Q

what are the two first choices for SCC mets

A

cemiplimab and pembrolizumab

45
Q

What does CTLA4 do to the T cell

A

down regulates. Ipilimumab is a IgG1 antibody that attacks the protein stopping the downregulation of the T cell

46
Q

Toll like receptor 7 & 8 is agonized by what drug

A

imiquimod

47
Q

localized Kaposi’s scarcoma can be treated with what list 5

A 
cryosurgery
topical imiquimod
PDT blue light
Alitretinoin (topical)
intralesional Vinblastine
48
Q

What MEK inhibitor used in treatment of melanoma can reduce occurance of SCC

A

trametinib

49
Q

does Vismodegib work with Gorlin syndrome?

A

yes

50
Q

which of these proteins increase apoptosis and which decrease apoptosis

A

BID, BAD, BAK, BAX increase apoptosis

Bcl-2 & Bcl-xL decrease apoptosis

51
Q

what is the mechanism of Imatinib in treatment of DFSP

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

52
Q 
side efffects of immunotherapy include
rash/itch
Diarrhea
Liver toxcity
Hypophysitis (inflammation of the pituitary gland
what time frames do they occur
A

Rash 4 weeks
Diarrhea 6 weeks
Liver 6 weeks
Hypophysitis 4 months

53
Q

If you have a BRAF - met melanoma at one site if you were to do a single drug tx which would it be

A

in order of success
Nivolumab
Pembrolizumab
Ipilimumab

54
Q

what is a wild type BRAF melanoma

A

One that is BRAF -

55
Q

Vismodegib inactivates what in the hedgehog pathway

A

SMO smoothened

56
Q

what can selenium be used for in dermatology

A

binding arsenic or other heavy metals through chelation

57
Q

what fatal side effect of alpha interferon is associated with the treatment of melanoma

A

Rhabdomyolysis

58
Q

How long do you need to be off vismodegib before trying to conceive.

A

3months

59
Q

How long do you need to be off vismodegib before trying to conceive for men and for women.

A

3months men 24months women.

60
Q

the combined treatment for AKs with 5FU and calcipotriol is twice daily for how long?

A

4days

61
Q

Imiquimod may be associated with what type of growths as a side effect.

A

milia and epithelial cysts

62
Q

if a person has a grade 3 to 4 toxicity to Ipilimumab how long should it be discontinued.

A

Permanently

63
Q

toll like 7 receptors bind to what when treatment with aldara

A

single strand RNA

64
Q

what does sonidegib inhibit.

A

smoothened the same as vismodegib

65
Q

what is the mechanism of action for 5FU

A

inhibits Thymidylate synthase enzyme

66
Q

when treating a KA with intralesional 5FU how many weekly injections is typical.

A

6 to 8

67
Q

What injectable works just as well as 5FU in treating KAs

A

Bleomycin

68
Q

what is the response rate to vismodegib in met BCC

A

30%

69
Q

superficial BCCs are treatable by imiquimod 83% and 80% 5FU what has a 98% cure rate

A

excision with 4mm margins

70
Q

What is the response rate of Vismodegib with metastatic BCC and the duration?

A

30% 7 months

71
Q

what are ester anesthesia agents metabolized by?

A

Metabolized by pseudocholinesterase and excreted through the kidney.

72
Q

how are the amide anesthetics metabolized

A

cytochrome p450 in the liver

73
Q

What is the active metabolite of azathioprine an immunosuppressant that is steroid sparing and increases risk of SCC but not BCC

A

6-thioguanine

74
Q

What is the brand name of Retapamulin

A

Altabax binds to the L3 protein on the 50s subunit of the ribosome

75
Q

Isopropyl alcohol works by what mechanism of action?

A

denatures protein and DNA

76
Q

Povido-Iodine works by what mechanism

A

halogenates proteins making salts

77
Q

Chlorhexidine mechanism of action is what?

A

It is a + charged molecule interacts with - charged membrane enters cells and causes precipitation of proteins.

78
Q

Is Hexachlorophene used in derm surgery

A

Not often

79
Q

In order which of these has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum Isopropyl alcohol, Povidone Iodine, Chlorhexidine

A 
Povidone Iodine( best)
Chlorhexidine (2n best)
Isopropyl Alcohol (not great for spores)
80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin and its half life?

A

COX inhibitor half-life 20 minute but platelets can’t make more COX and they last 10 days.

81
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Clopidogrel

A

inhibits binding of ADP to platelets 1/2 life 6 hrs

82
Q

what it the temp of LN2 in C and F

A

-196C -320F

83
Q

What class of drug can increase lidocaine toxicity by inhibition of CYP 450 and decrease liver perfusion

A

Calcium channel blockers (verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem)

84
Q

which of these antiseptics may cause neurotoxicity

Chlorhexidine, Hexachlorophene, Isopropyl Alcohol, Povidone Iodine

A

Hexachlorophene

85
Q

name an immunosuppressive drug that in a kidney transplant patient that may reduce the risk of SCCs

A

Sirolimus

86
Q

what is the dose for chemoprevention of SCC with acitretin?

A

.2mg /Kg

87
Q

What is the half-life of acitretin? Soriatane

A

2days (48 hrs)

88
Q

alcohol can metabolize acitretin into etretinate which has a half life of what?

A

120 days

89
Q

How long should one wait to get pregnant when on acitretin?

A

3 years

90
Q

Penicillin has what mechanism of action

A

bactericidal by inhibiting bacterial cell wall formation

91
Q

What % of people have hypersensitivity rxns to PCN

A

10-15%

92
Q

what kidney problems can PCN cause.

A

acute interstitial nephritis

93
Q

What % of people have true allergy to PCN that report an allergy.

A

10-15%

94
Q

Can PCN cause a delayed hypersensitivity rxn.

A

yes, fever, eosinophilia and serum sickness like rxn.

95
Q

Why was Ingenol Mebutate (picato) taken from the market

A

increased risk for SCC

96
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate

A

In the S phase of the cell cycle it inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

This is not how it works in autoimmune disorders.

97
Q

What are the three most common side effects for vismodegib

A

Dysgeusia #1
Muscle Spasm #2
Alopecia #3

98
Q

what is the best topical antibiotic to use in pregnant women.

A

Mupirocin (class B)

99
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Mupirocin

A

binds tRNA synthetase

100
Q

What is the other topical antibiotic that can be used in pregnancy besides Mupirocin

A

Polymyxin B (but only has gram - coverage

101
Q

how does Polymyxin work

A

detergent like activity disrupts the cell membrane

102
Q

How does Neomycin work

A

binds 30s subunit of ribosome (screws up protein synthesis)

103
Q

how does Silver Sulfadiazine work

A

Binds bacterial DNA directly

104
Q

How does Retapamulin work

A

binds 50s subunit of ribosome (screws with protein synthesis)

105
Q

How does Bacitracin works

A

destroys cell wall by binding C55 phenol pyrophosphatase

106
Q

Which is the most toxic of the topical antibiotics

A

Neomycin (an aminoglycoside) can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

Derm Surg questions (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions