Med Chem Flashcards

1
Q

Where is M1 present?

A

Gastric cells

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2
Q

Where is M2 present?

A

Heart

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3
Q

Where is M3 present?

A

Eyes, lungs, GIT, urinary bladder, glands

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4
Q

Which is the starting material for the biosynthesis of Acetylcholine?

A

Serine

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5
Q

What is the process of biosynthesis of Acetylcholine?

A

Serine (decarboxylation) - Ethanol amine (SAM, NMT) - Choline + Acetyl choline (CAT) - Acetylcholine

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6
Q

What does Hemicolinium do?

A

Inhibits the uptake of choline

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7
Q

What does Vesamicol do?

A

Inhibits the storage of Ach

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8
Q

What does Botulinium toxin do?

A

Inhibits the release of Ach in the synapse

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9
Q

What are the uses of Pilocarpine?

A
  1. Glaucoma
  2. Can be used for dry mouth
  3. Sjogrem’s syndrome (dry mouth, throat, esophagus)
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10
Q

What is the use of Bethanicol?

A

Atonic bladder

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11
Q

Use of Methacholine

A

Tachycardia and Tachyarrythmia

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12
Q

Use of Physostigmine

A
  1. Can be given for Atropine poisoning
  2. Glaucoma
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13
Q

Which is the drug that is given for Methanol poisoning

A

Fomepizole

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14
Q

What bond do Organophosphates make with the Ach enzyme?

A

Covalent bond

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15
Q

Give examples for natural anti-cholinergic drugs

A

Atropine, Hyoscine (scopolamine)

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16
Q

What can Ipratropium bromide be used for?

A

COPD, asthma, PRE-ANESTHETIC med

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17
Q

Uses of Cyclopentolate

A
  1. Midriatic agent
  2. Cyclopegic agent
  3. Treatment of Uveitis
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18
Q

Uses of Glycopyrrolate

A

Pre-anesthetic medication

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19
Q

Uses of Tropicamide

A
  1. Midriatic agent
  2. Cyclopegic agent
  3. For the fundoscopic examination of eye
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20
Q

Uses of Isopropamide

A

For peptic ulcers

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21
Q

D.O.C for Parkinson’s

A

Benzhexol, Bipyriden, Benztropin

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22
Q

Name some tocolytics

A

Salbutamol, Terbutaline, Ritodrine

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23
Q

Name some Nasal decongestants

A

Xylomethazoline, Oxymethazoline, Naphazoline

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24
Q

Anorectants

A

Sibutramine, Fenfluramine

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25
What are the uses of Adrenaline?
1. Local anesthetic 2. Pre-anesthetic 3. Cardiac shock (1:10,000 or 0.01%)
26
What is the D.O.C of anaphylactic shock?
Adrenaline (sub-cutaneous, intra-muscular)
27
Which form of Nor-adrenaline is most potent?
Levo form
28
What are the conditions in which Dopamine is used?
Olego urea shock
29
Which drug is used for Hypertension in pregnancy?
Methyl DOPA
30
Salbutamol is... A. Levo B. Dextro C. Racemic
Racemic
31
What is the use of R(-)Salbutamol?
Pharmacological activity
32
What is the use of S(+)Salbutamol?
Prevents elimination
33
Which is the prodrug of Colterol?
Bitolterol
34
Name some CNS stimulants
Amphetamine, Hydroxyamphetamine, Methamphetamine
35
Which drug can be given for ADHD?
Amphetamine
36
Name 2 mixed acting sympathomimetic drug
Ephedrine, Metarminol
37
What are the uses of Phenoxybenzamine?
Pheochromacytoma
38
What are the uses of Tolazoline?
1. Cheese reaction 2. Chlonidine withdrawal symptoms
39
Which is the fastest acting General Anesthetic?
Xenone or Desflourane
40
Slowest acting general anesthetic
N2O
41
What is Halothane preserved in?
Thymol
42
Isoflourane is the isomer of...
Enflourane
43
Which is the most potent GA?
Methoxyflourane
44
Which is the DOC for anesthesia for children?
Ketamine
45
What are the ADRs of Ketamine?
1. Cannot be used for brain surgery (because of increased intra-cranial pressure) 2. Not preffered for glaucoma due to increased intra ocular pr
46
Why is Thiopentone Na+ short and fast acting?
Due to rapid redistribution in the body
47
What is the IUPAC name of Codeine?
3-methyl morphine
48
What is the IUPAC name of Heroin?
3,6 - diacetyl morphine It is also called brown sugar
49
Name 2 opioid drugs that are used to induce diarrhoea in non-infectious cases?
Diphenoxalate and Loperamide
50
Which is the drug used for de-addiction of Opiods?
Methadone
51
DOC for Morphine poisoning
Naloxone
52
Which isomer of Dextropropoxyphen has anti-tussive activity?
Dextro isomer
53
Name some pure antagonists?
Naloxone (IV) and Naltrexone (oral)
54
What is the basic nucleus of all steroids?
Cyclo pentane perhydro phenanthrene ring (Stearane ring)
55
What is meant by alpha configuration?
The substitutions are present below the plane of the nucleus
56
What is beta configuration?
The substitutions are present above the plane of the nucleus
57
Steroids, on dehydrogenation with Se at 360°C yield...
Diel's hydrocarbon
58
Steroids, upon dehydrogenation with Se at 420°C yield...
Chrysene and Picene
59
Which is the parent carbon of Testosterone?
Androstane
60
How many carbon atoms does Testosterone have?
19 C
61
Parent carbon of Estrogen
Estrane
62
How many carbon atoms does Estrogen have?
18 C
63
Parent carbon of progesterone and adenocorticol hormones
Pregnane
64
How many carbon atoms does Pregnane have?
21 C
65
Which salt form of Cortisone is most in use?
Cortisone Acetate
66
IUPAC name of Estrone
3-hydroxy estra-1,3,5-(10)-trien-17-one
67
Synonym of Hydrocortisone
Cortisol
68
Structure of Dexamethasone
16 alpha isomer of Betamethasone
69
Name some natural Estrogens
Estradiol, Estrone, Estriol
70
Semi-synthetic estrogens
Ethinyl estradiol, Mestranol
71
Synthetic estrogens
Stilbesterol, Dienosterol
72
Capreomycin is a mixture of what polypeptides?
Capreomycin is a mixture of IA, IB, IIA and IIB Out of this, Capreomycin IA and IB ARE CLINICALLY USRD
73
What is Rifampin derived from?
It is a semi-synthetic drug derived from Streptomyces mediterrani
74
Which isomer of Ethambutol is more potent?
Dextro isomer is more potent than the levo isomer bu 200 or 500 times
75
Is Rifampin a broad or narrow spectrum antibiotic?
Broad spectrum
76
What drug is the Primary choice for treating tuberculosis?
Isoniazid
77
What drug is first line for treating short term tuberculosis?
Pyrizinamide because of its LOW SHORT TERM TOXICITY
78
Which drug is effective against tubercle bacilli resistant to Isoniazid and Streptomycin?
Ethambutol
79
What are quinolones generally used for?
Ocular infections, skin infections and mostly for UTIs
80
Which quinolone drug is used for prophylaxis infections after trans-urethral surgery?
Lomefloxacin (also called Maxaquine)
81
What is the general MOA of Quinolones?
Interrupting the synthesis of DNA by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV