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MCQs From Med Chem Flashcards

1
Q

What is Phenoxybenzamine derived from?

A

Beta halo alkyl amine

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2
Q

What is Tamsulosin derived from?

A

Aryl sulphonamide

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3
Q

How does Phenoxybenzamine act?

A

It acts:
1. Directly on alpha receptor
2. Irreversibly blocks alpha receptor
3. Forms Ethylene iminium ion

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4
Q

What is Chlonidine used for?

A

Migraine, glaucoma, opioid withdrawal symptoms

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5
Q

Which selective beta-2 agonist is not metabolised by COMT?

A

Pirbuterol

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6
Q

What is Betaxolol used for?

A

It is a long acting beta blocker that is used for Glaucoma

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7
Q

Name the heterocyclic rings present in Timolol

A

1,2,5 - Thiadiazole and Morpholine

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8
Q

Which is the amino acid that Muscarinic receptor contains as a residue for parasympathetic activity?

A

Aspartic acid

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9
Q

Which is the drug used for the diagnosis of Myesthenia Gravis?

A

Edrophonium

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10
Q

Name a hydrophilic organophosphate drug

A

Ecothiophate

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11
Q

Name a selective novel M3 antagonist

A

Darifenacin

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12
Q

What is Oxotremorin used for?

A

Alzheimer’s disease and Parkinson’s disease

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13
Q

What is the property of Disulfiram?

A

It inhibits DOPA hydroxylase in Nor-adrenaline synthesis

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14
Q

What isomer is Pseudo-ephedrine?

A

Threo isomer

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15
Q

What is the IUPAC name of Testosterone?

A

17 beta hydroxyl androst-4-ene-3-one

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16
Q

What is the starting material of Diethyl stilbestrol?

A

Anesaldehyde

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17
Q

Name 2 drugs having estrogen property

A

Gossypol and Genistein

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18
Q

Name 3 drugs having anti-estrogenic activity

A

BOMT, Coumesterol, Flutamide

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19
Q

Name 2 progesterone antagonizing drugs

A

Gossypol and Mifeprestone

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20
Q

Oxime is used as an antidote for what poisoning?

A

Carbamate and Organophosphate poisoning (except Neostigmine)

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21
Q

Which is the reagent used for the conversion of Hydrocortisone to Cortisone?

A

m - CPBA (meta chloro peroxy benzoic acid)

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22
Q

From what compound is Cimetidine synthesized?

A

Metiamide

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23
Q

Addn of 3C to Pregnolone gives…

A

Bufadienolide

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24
Q

How many OH groups and double bonds does Cholesterol contain?

A

1 OH group and 1 double bond

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25
Q

Which anti-biotic causes Terfenadine cardiotoxicity?

A

Erythromycin

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26
Q

Name a second generation anti-histamine that is also a metabolite of Hydroxyzine

A

Cetrizine

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27
Q

What is the basic ring present in Nizatidine?

A

Thiazole

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28
Q

Absorption of what drug is inhibited by Cimetidine?

A

Ketoconazole

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29
Q

Which drug is given for Athlet’s foot?

A

Clioquinol

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30
Q

What is Athlet’s foot?

A

It is a condition involving fungal infection of the skin in the foot

Also called Tinea pedis

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31
Q

Which is the basic ring present in Cicloprox?

A

2-pyridone

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32
Q

What is the MOA of Chloroquine?

A
  • of DNA and RNA polymerase
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33
Q

What stereoisomer of Quinine is Quinidine?

A

(+) stereoisomer

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34
Q

Which AA is the starting material for the synthesis of Hemoglobin?

A

Glycine

Starting material is (Glycine + succinyl CoA)

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35
Q

Which is the rate limiting enzyme for the synthesis of Haemoglobin?

A

Amino levulenic acid synthase (ALA synthase)

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36
Q

Where does the process of Hemoglobin synthesis occur?

A

Half occurs in MITOCHONDRIA and half in CYTOPLASM

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37
Q

What are 2 types of drugs used for the treatment of HIV?

A

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (they can be Competitive or Non-competitive)

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38
Q

What are the 2 types of Competitive RTIs?

A

They are also called NRTI

N can stand for Nuceoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
OR
Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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39
Q

Examples for Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor

A

Zidovudine
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Didanosine
Abacavir
Zalcitibine

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40
Q

Examples for Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

Tenofovir

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41
Q

Examples for Non-Nucleotide Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

A

They fall under Non-competitive RTIs

*1st generation drugs:
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
Delaviridine (END)

*2nd generation drugs
Rilpirine
Etravirine
Doravirine (RED)

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42
Q

What happens to the fraction of the drug that isn’t bioavailable in the body?

A

It could’ve been unabsorbed or it could’ve gone First Pass Metabolism or pre-systemic metabolism

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43
Q

What are the 3 drugs present in the Universal Antidote?

A

Activated Charcoal : Tannic acid : ZnO/MgO

In the ratio 2:1:1

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44
Q

What is the role of activated charcoal present in the Universal antidote?

A

Adsorbs the poison on the surface
It is given in the qnty - 1g/kg if body wt.

*It is an example for physical or mechanical antidote

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45
Q

What is the role of Tannic acid present in the Universal Antidote?

A

It precipitates alkaloids

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46
Q

What is the role of ZnO/MgO?

A

It either neutralizes the acid or brings about the oxidization of alkaloidal compounds

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47
Q

Causes for Anemia

A
  1. Pb poisoning
  2. Cu, Vit B9, B12 deficiency
  3. Sideroblastic anemia
  4. Thalassemia
  5. Anemia of chronic diseases
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48
Q

Ideal Hematocrit levels

A

For men - less than 0.41
For women - less than 0.38

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49
Q

What is Zero order kinetics?

A

Constant AMOUNT of drugs would be removed

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50
Q

What is First Order kinetics?

A

Constant FRACTION of drugs would be removed

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51
Q

Nucleus present in Nizatidine

A

Thiazole

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52
Q

Nucleus in Sulphadiazine

A

Pyrimidine

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53
Q

Name a few drugs used to treat amoebiasis

A

Ipecac and Glycobiarsol

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54
Q

Few things about Isoniazid

A
  1. Hydrazide of Isonicotinic acid
  2. Structurally similar to Pyridoxine
  3. Inhibits Mycolase synthase
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55
Q

Which isomer of Ethambutol is clinically active

A

Dextro isomer

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56
Q

For which Anti-tubercular drug is a monthly eye exam essential?

A

Ethambutol

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57
Q

Cycloserine is an analogue of which amino acid?

A

D-alanine

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58
Q

Which drug is also called an Ansamycin antibiotic?

A

Rifampin

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59
Q

Which drug has the presence of an orally active phenazine dye?

A

Clofazimine

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60
Q

Name the active metabolite of Rifampin

A

25-desacetylated RMP

61
Q

What are the starting materials for the synthesis of Sulphadiazine?

A

Guanidine and formyl acetic acid

62
Q

Which Flouro quinolone does not contain a cyclopropane group at N-1?

63
Q

Few points about Penicillin

A
  1. Good oral absorption, bt relatively acid labile
  2. Ineffective against gram -ve bacteria
  3. Effective against gram +ve bacteria
64
Q

IUPAC name of Methicillin

A

2,6 - Dimethoxy phenyl penicillin

65
Q

Name an Anti-pseudomonal penicillin

A

Carbenicillin

66
Q

IUPAC name of Penicillin F

A

Pent-2-phenyl penicillin

67
Q

IUPAC name of Penicillin G

A

Benzyl penicillin

68
Q

IUPAC name of Penicillin X

A

p-hydroxy phenyl penicillin

69
Q

IUPAC name of Penicillin V

A

Phenoxy methyl penicillin

70
Q

IUPAC name of Penicillin K

A

n-heptyl penicillin

71
Q

Which is the more clinically active isomer of Ampicillin?

A

L(+) Ampicillin

72
Q

Name a beta-lactamase inhibitor of Clauvulanic acid

A

1-oxapenam structure which has no amino acyl side chain

73
Q

Give some examples of Penam - 1,1 - dioxide

A

Sulbactum, Tazobactam

74
Q

Examples of Monobactam

A

Sulphasezin, Azure onam, Tigemonam

75
Q

Give some points for Rifambutin

A
  1. It inhibits Mycobacterial RNA polymerase
  2. It is very useful in treating Mycobacterium avium complex
76
Q

Starting material of Mebendazole

A

4-chloro benzophenone

77
Q

What ring does Artemether have?

A

Trioxane ring

78
Q

Name some purine based antagonistic drugs

A

Fludrabine, Cladrabine, 6 - mercaptopurine

79
Q

Name some Pyrimidine based antagonistic drugs

A

Cytrabine, Capcitabine, Tegafur

80
Q

What is the name of the 13-hydroxyl metabolite of Doxorubin?

A

Adriamycinol

81
Q

What is the name of the basic ring present in Actinomycin?

A

Phenoxazone

82
Q

Which drug is used as an anti-androgen in prostate cancer?

83
Q

Which drug is used as an SERM in advanced breast cancer?

84
Q

Name 2 enzymes that are used to cure tumors

A

Pegaspargase (WTFF) and L-asparginase

85
Q

Name a COMT inhibitor

86
Q

Name an anti-fungal antibiotic

A

Cycloserine

87
Q

Name a topical sulphonamide

A

Silver sulphadiazine

88
Q

Sulphasalazine is a prodrug which is activated by ______ enzyme

A

Azo-reductase

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT present in Macrolide?
A. A large lactose ring
B. A glycosidically linked amino sugar
C. A spiroketal group
D. A ketone group

A

B. Glycosidically linked amino sugar

90
Q

Rituxumab is a _______ type of monoclonal anti-body

91
Q

What are some ADRs of Rifampin?

A
  1. Flu-like syndrome
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Gives a red orange colour to urine
92
Q

What are some of the ADRs of Isoniazid?

A
  1. Xerostomia
  2. Peripheral neuritis
  3. Hepatotoxicity
93
Q

What is the MOA of Myambutol?

A

It acts by inhibiting Arabinosyl transferase

94
Q

MOA of Pyrizinamide

A

Inhibition of Fatty acids synthase

95
Q

MOA of Rifampin

A

Inhibition of DNA dependant RNA polymerase

96
Q

MOA of Thiacetazone

A

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

97
Q

What ring structure does Clauvulanic acid (beta lactase inhibitor) contain?

A

Oxapenam ring

98
Q

What nucleus does Cloxacillin contain?

99
Q

Which Anti-tubercular drug does not cause Hepatitis?

A

Ethambutol

100
Q

Name the principle alkylator in Cyclophosphamide

A

4 - hydroxy cyclophosphamide

101
Q

Name a second generation Quinolone antibiotic

A

Ciprofloxacin

102
Q

Which anti-tubercular drug is NOT synthetic?

A

Pyrizinamide

103
Q

What is the MOA of PAS?

A

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

104
Q

Name 2 drugs that are effective against Hepatitis C

A

Interferon alpha + Ribavirin

105
Q

Name an anti-fungal drug that has an Imidazole nucleus

A

Butaconazole

106
Q

Starting material of Efavirenz

A

5-chloro anthralinic acid

107
Q

What is Furosemide derived from?

A

Anthralinic acid

108
Q

Because of what bond does Finesteride act as a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?

A

Because of the double bond present between C-1-2

109
Q

What do all naturally occurring tetracycline contain?

A

An alpha - C3/C4 keto enol group

110
Q

Name an anti-biotic with imine functionality

A

Roxithromycin

111
Q

Name a cephalosporin antibiotic with a “cyanomethyl side chain”

A

Cephacetrile

112
Q

Name an ultra-short acting cardioselective beta blocker

113
Q

Name some ADRs of MG COA reductase inhibitors

A
  1. Myalgia
  2. Myositis and Rhamdomylosis
  3. Angioedema
114
Q

Cholestryamine is a polymer of…

A

Di-vinyl benzene and 4° NH3 salt

115
Q

Lovastatin is obtained from…

A

Aspergillus terreus and Monoscus rubber

116
Q

Clofibrate increases the toxicity of…

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Tolbutamide
  3. Coumarin
117
Q

Which drug causes Monday morning sickness?

A

Glyceryl trinitrate

118
Q

What is the metabolite of Spironolactone?

119
Q

Which drug causes the side effect of Hearing loss?

A

Hydrochlorthiazide

120
Q

Which drug is used for the acute attack of Gout?

A

Colchicine

121
Q

What serious ADR does Spironolactone cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

122
Q

Butamide contains a phenoxy group at which position?

A

4th position

123
Q

Name a diuretic which causes Digoxin toxicity

A

Spironolactone

124
Q

Name a diuretic which conjugates with glucouronic acid

A

Furosemide

125
Q

Name an ACE - which is not bound to plasma or is bound 0.1%

126
Q

In what category of diuretics is Gitelman’s syndrome found?

A

Thiazide diuretics

Gitelman’s syndrome is a rare, inherited kidney disorder where it’s ability to REABSORB SALT IS AFFECTED, LEADING YO LOW K+, Mg+ and Ca+

It also leads to increased blood pH

127
Q

Thiazide diuretics cause _____ toxicity

128
Q

Name a di-hydropyridine hypertensive agent which causes CEREBRAL VASOSPASM

A

Isradipine

129
Q

Which type of Ca channel does Nifedipine block?

130
Q

Half-life of Renin

131
Q

What type of peptide is Bradykinin?

A

Nonapeptide

132
Q

Half-life of Angiotensin in tissue

A

15-30 mins

133
Q

Rofecoxib should not be given to a patient who is already taking _____

A

An ACE inhibitor

134
Q

What is the nucleus present in Acetazolamide?

A

1,3,4 - Thiadiazole

135
Q

Which drug is given for Digitalis induced arrythemia?

136
Q

Which is the ring present in Amiodarone?

A

Benzofuran

137
Q

The anti-arrythmic activity of Propefenone is due to __________

A

It’s R and S enantiomer

138
Q

Name 3 drugs that are given for Ventricular arrythmia

A

Lidocaine, Tocainide and Propefenone

139
Q

Verapamil is contraindicated in which condition?

A

Ventricular arrythmia

140
Q

Chemical name of Hydralazine

A

1 - hydralazino pthalazine

141
Q

What drug is contraindicated with Sulpha drug?

A

Procainamide

142
Q

Name 2 Insulin Secretogogues

A

Liraglutide and Exenatide

143
Q

Which Oral Hypoglycemic drug causes Cyanocobalamin deficiency and Lactic acidosis?

144
Q

Name the method used for the synthesis of Minoxidil

A

Chichibabin synthesis

145
Q

Method used for synthesizing Verapamil

A

Hantzch Pyridine synthesis

146
Q

Name 2 amino acids present in Lisnopril

A

Lysine and Proline

147
Q

Name a newer Insulinomimetic agent

A

Vanadium salt

148
Q

A few points about Amiodarone

A
  1. Contains Benzofuran and Benzoyl ring
  2. It is used in supra ventricular tachycardia
  3. Causes a slate gray discolouration of skin
  4. It is a K+ channel blocker

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