Matts Driver Bible TRUCK CO. Full and Final Flashcards

1
Q
    • Before ignition, a fuel has potential _________ energy. When that fuel burns, the chemical energy is converted to kinetic energy in the form of thermal energy (heat) and light. (T21)
A
  1. Chemical
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2
Q
  1. _________________ is a measurement of kinetic energy. (T21)
A
  1. Temperature
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3
Q
  1. _____ is the movement of thermal energy from objects of higher temperature to those of lower temperature. (T21)
A
  1. Heat
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4
Q
  1. F = ( ________ ) ______
A
  1. ( C x 1.8 ) +32
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5
Q
  1. C = ( ________ ) _______
A
  1. ( F – 32 ) ÷ 1.8
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6
Q
  1. In the metric system used in technical literature, the Canadian fire service, and most of the rest of the world, _______ are the unit of measure for heat energy. (T22)
A
  1. Joules
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7
Q
  1. _______________— Unit of work or energy in the International System of Units; the energy (or work) when unit force (1 newton) moves a body through a unit distance (1 meter); takes the place of calorie for heat measurement (1 calorie =______ ). (T22)
A
  1. Joule (J). 4.19 J
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8
Q
  1. It takes ________ joules to raise the temperature of one kilogram (kg) of water one degree Celsius. (T22)
A
  1. 4,186 joules
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9
Q
  1. The U.S. fire service uses the customary system in which the unit of measure for heat energy is the_________________. (T22)
A
  1. British thermal unit (Btu)
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10
Q
  1. One Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. By comparison, 1 Btu equals approximately _________ joules. (T22)
A
  1. 1,100 joules
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11
Q
  1. British Thermal Unit (Btu) — Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. One Btu = ___________________. (T22)
A
  1. 1.055 kilo joules (kJ)
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12
Q
    • A Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1 degree Fahrenheit. When comparing joules and Btu, ________ = 1 Btu. (S11)
A
  1. 1055 J
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13
Q
  1. The _________________ of any fuel determines its heat of combustion and has a significant influence on its energy or heat release rate (HRR). (T23)
A
  1. chemical content
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14
Q
  1. ** ___________________is usually expressed in either kilojoules/gram (kJ/g) or megajoules/kilogram (MJ/kg). (T23)
A
  1. Heat of combustion
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15
Q
  1. ___________________is thermal energy (heat) that could be generated by the combustion (oxidation) reaction if a fuel were completely burned. The _______________ is measured in British Thermal Units (Btu) per pound or calories per gram. (T23)
A
  1. Heat of combustion. Heat of combustion
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16
Q
    • _______________ is the dominant method of heat transfer in the early stages of fire development. However, as the room approaches full involvement, ________________ from flames and the hot gas layer becomes the more dominant method of heat transfer. (T24)
A
  1. Convection, radiation
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17
Q
  1. ________________________has a direct impact on the flow rate necessary for fire control and on whether a compartment fire will reach flashover. (T24)
A
  1. Heat release rate (HRR)
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18
Q
    • _____ is the energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns. This is usually expressed in kilowatts (kW) or megawatts (MW). ______ is dependent on the type, quantity, and orientation of the fuel. (T24)
A
  1. HRR
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19
Q
    • As smoke begins to accumulate in the compartment, it does so in a manner called_______________. _______________is the tendency of gases to stratify according to temperature. Other terms sometimes used to describe this tendency are heat stratification and thermal balance. (T26)
A
  1. thermal layering, Thermal layering
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20
Q
  1. As the fire continues in the growth stage, its __________________ will increase as long as it has sufficient fuel and oxygen. (T26)
A
  1. rate of development
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21
Q
    • When sufficient oxygen is available, fire development is controlled by the _______________ and _________________ of the fuel. A significant factor influencing the rate of development is how the burning fuel is________________________. (T26)
A
  1. characteristics and configuration, oriented relative to horizontal
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22
Q
  1. The __________________ is important to firefighters because it determines how the fire will change when ventilation is increased. When the fire is fuel controlled, increased ventilation will generally _______________ temperatures within the compartment and thereby slow or prevent its progression to flashover.(T26)
A
  1. controlling factor, reduce temperatures
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23
Q
  1. ** The ceiling temperature approaches _____________°F during a rollover and the heat being radiated to the floor may be sufficient to ignite ordinary materials such as newspaper.(T28)
A
  1. 1100
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24
Q
    • As the temperature of fuels within the compartment continues to increase, so does the________________, with unburned decomposition products accumulating in the hot layer of smoke. As temperature and ____________ (heat being absorbed) continue to increase, the compartment may rapidly transition to full involvement – with or without flashover. (T28)
A
  1. rate of pyrolysis, heat flux
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25
Q
  1. ** If the concentration of flammable combustion and pyrolysis products is above the upper flammable limit, the temperature is above 1,100°F or another source of ignition is available, and ventilation is increased, a ____________ may occur. (T30)
A
  1. Back-draft
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26
Q
    • In a compartment fire, the most fundamental fuel characteristics influencing fire development are______ and ____________. (T31)
A
  1. mass and surface area
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27
Q
    • ________________________is the layout of the structure including the number of stories, avenues for fire spread, compartmentation, and barriers to fire spread. (T31)
A
  1. Building configuration
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28
Q
    • The _________________ of a structure are often the most readily available fuel source in a compartment fire.(T31)
A
  1. Contents
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29
Q
    • The _________ of _____________ influences fuel load as some types of building materials are more combustible than others. (T31)
A
  1. type of construction
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30
Q
  1. ____________________is the actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on structural openings, construction type, and building ventilation systems. (T34)
A
  1. Existing ventilation
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31
Q
  1. When a fire starts, ___________________conditions dictate the actual exchange of products of combustion inside the building or compartment with outside air. (T34)
A
  1. existing ventilation
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32
Q
    • __________________include insulation, heat reflectivity, retention, and conductivity. (T35)
A
  1. Thermal properties
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33
Q
    • The ____________________ of fuel influences its heat of combustion (the amount of heat released by a given mass of fuel) and the heat release rate (the rate at which that heat is released). (T36)
A
  1. chemical composition
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34
Q
    • Responsibility for size-up and risk assessment is not limited to fire officers. Everyone on the fireground needs to develop and maintain a high level of situational awareness. One element of situational awareness is recognition of key_________________________. (T36)
A
  1. fire behavior indicators
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35
Q
    • Building features are indicators of potential fire behavior prior to ignition. During pre-incident planning surveys, firefighters should practice __________________under nonfire conditions to identify critical characteristics that are likely to influence fire behavior and structural stability under fire conditions. (T37)
A
  1. reading the building
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36
Q
    • The first of the critical building features is_______________. The type of building involved influences both fire behavior and structural stability under fire conditions. (T37)
A
  1. construction type
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37
Q
    • _______________ or thick smoke contains a high concentration of particulates and is difficult to see through. (T40)
A
  1. Optically dense
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38
Q
    • The term _________________ refers to the buoyancy of the smoke. (T40)
A
  1. physical density
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39
Q
    • Firefighters often gauge the thickness of the ______________ in a compartment by the height of the smoke above the floor. However, the ceiling height must also be considered in this assessment. (T40)
A
  1. hot gas layer
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40
Q
    • Even more important than the height of the hot gas layer are____________________. A sudden rise could indicate that some type of ventilation has occurred – either tactically by firefighters or caused by the fire breaking a window. (T40)
A
  1. changes in its height
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41
Q
    • __________________ of the hot gas layer could indicate deteriorating conditions and increased potential for flashover. (T40)
A
  1. Gradual lowering
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42
Q
    • ______________________could indicate deteriorating conditions caused by flashover in an adjacent compartment. (T40)
A
  1. Sudden lowering
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43
Q
    • _______ refers to the movement of air toward burning fuel and the movement of smoke out of the compartment. (T40)
A
  1. Airflow
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44
Q
    • Airflow is caused by pressure differentials inside and outside the compartment and by ________________ (differences in density between the hot smoke and cooler air). (T40)
A
  1. gravity current
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45
Q
    • Smoke discharge without inward movement of air or bidirectional air flow both indicate that the fire is likely to be______________________. (T42)
A
  1. moving toward the opening
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46
Q
    • __________________(perceptible by touch) include sensing temperature or temperature changes. Firefighters may sense temperature and changes in temperature, but this is limited by the thermal protection provided by their protective clothing and their focus on the task at hand. (T42)
A
  1. Tactile effects
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47
Q
    • If firefighters can see flames in the hot gas layer it may indicate ____________(pockets of flame seen intermittently in the smoke) and impending rollover. (T43)
A
  1. Ghosting
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48
Q
  1. The process of _____________ begins well before ignition with consideration of building factors in both typical occupancies and target hazards.(T43)
A
  1. reading the fire
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48
Q
    • Wildland firefighters refer to high rates of fire spread and heat output that preclude offensive suppression methods as____________________. (T46)
A
  1. extreme fire behavior
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49
Q
  1. ______________ can occur almost instantaneously, and flame spread can move faster than firefighters attempting to escape. The _________________ created by a flashover is not survivable for more than a few seconds – even when wearing full PPE and SCBA – and can result in disorientation as well as thermal burns. (T47)
A
  1. Flashover, heat flux
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50
Q
    • In general, there are two mechanisms that can induce flashover – ____________ and ___________. (T47)
A
  1. radiation and ventilation
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51
Q
  1. _____________ is a heat-driven phenomenon. (T47)
A
  1. Flashover
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52
Q
    • Nearing flashover, ________________becomes the dominant method of heat transfer, and the heat flux is sufficient to quickly raise the temperature of the fuel packages in the compartment to their ignition temperature. (T48)
A
  1. radiant heat
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53
Q
    • NFPA _______ prohibits the use of fuel such as polyurethane mattresses and requires removal of synthetic carpeting and pad due to the high heat of combustion and heat release rate of these types of materials. (T48) (NFPA ______ Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions.)
A
  1. NFPA 1403
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54
Q
  1. An increase in ventilation (such as opening a door or window) can result in a _________________ (explosively rapid combustion) called a_____________. (T51)
A
  1. deflagration, backdraft
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55
Q
  1. To some degree, the violence of backdraft is dependent on the extent to which the________________________________. The more confined the deflagration, the more violent it will be. (T52)
A

fuel/air mixture is confined

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56
Q
    • Unlike ghosting or rollover, a ________________ involves ignition of a mixture of air and flammable combustion products that are already within the flammable range. (T54)
A
  1. smoke explosion
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57
Q
    • It is important to understand the ________________ related to extreme fire behavior such as flashover, backdraft, and smoke explosions. (T55)
A
  1. initiating events
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58
Q
    • The ___________________________________ were developed after reviewing a number of risk management models currently being used in the fire service. The three most prominent models considered were those developed by the Phoenix (AZ) Fire Department, NFPA® 1500, and the Ten Rules of Engagement for Structural Fire Fighting developed by the International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC). (T63)
A
  1. IFSTA Principles of Risk Management
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59
Q
    • Adapted from the British fire service, _________________________can be defined as: A continuous process of identifying hazards and risks and taking steps to eliminate or reduce them in the rapidly changing circumstances of an operational incident. (T63)
A
  1. Dynamic Risk Assessment
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60
Q
  1. The term ____________ is used to describe the ongoing assessment of an ever-changing situation. (T63)
A
  1. dynamic
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61
Q
    • The _______________ of the Dynamic Risk Assessment model has two equally important components: organizational responsibilities and individual responsibilities.
A
  1. safe person element
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62
Q
    • A blue-ribbon committee of the International Association of Fire Chiefs studied a safety system that has been adopted by several industries and the U.S. military. The committee concluded that if the system were adopted by the fire service, the number of firefighter injuries and fatalities could be reduced. This comprehensive program is called______________________________. (T64)
A
  1. Crew Resource Management (CRM)
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63
Q
  1. The _______________ provides better teamwork, improved communication and problem solving, promotes team member input while preserving legal authority, and provides for proactive accident prevention. (T64)
A
  1. CRM program
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64
Q
    • Heavy fire—no progress after _______minutes in wood or ordinary construction. (T70)
A
  1. 10-12 minutes
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65
Q
    • To help reduce the risk of firefighters being inside a burning building when it collapses, it is standard operating procedure in many departments to keep track of the elapsed time after the beginning of the initial attack. For example, in some departments the IC notifies dispatch when the initial attack begins, and dispatch announces the elapsed time at specified intervals — perhaps every _____ minutes. (T71)
A
  1. 5 minutes
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66
Q
    • If significant progress toward control and extinguishment has not been achieved after a specified number minutes, all interior crews are ordered out, the attack mode is changed from offensive to defensive, and a personnel accountability report (PAR) is ordered. Some departments that had previously established _____ minutes as the SOP for ordering all interior crews out have reduced that time significantly based on past experiences. (T71)
A
  1. 20 minutes
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67
Q
  1. Incident Management System = System described in NFPA ________, Standard on Fire Department Incident Management System, that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations. Such systems may also be referred to as Incident Command Systems (ICS). (T71)
A
  1. NFPA 1561
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68
Q
  1. ________________________= System by which facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications are organized to operate within a common organizational structure designed to aid in the management of resources at emergency incidents. (T71)
A
  1. Incident Command System (ICS)
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69
Q
    • Because a _______________________________-compliant incident management system provides a coherent organizational structure and common communications on the fireground, it is easier for fire units and their members to remain oriented and focused on the job at hand. Orientation and focus promote safe and effective fireground operations. (T71)
A
  1. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
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70
Q
  1. A number of different ________________________are used in North America; however, they all have the same purpose — to control movement into and out of a hazardous environment. (T72)
A
  1. accountability systems (Not Hazard or control zone.)
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71
Q
  1. PARs may be requested at the Incident Commander’s (IC) or Incident Safety Officer’s (ISO) discretion, at specified intervals, or due to the occurrence of a________________. (T72)
A
  1. benchmark event
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71
Q
  1. ** The use of an ____________________is required by NFPA® 1500, Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, and NFPA® 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System. (T73)
A
  1. accountability system
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72
Q
  1. _______________= A magnesium silicate mineral that occurs as slender, strong flexible fibers. Breathing of _________dust causes __________and lung cancer. (T74)
A
  1. Asbestos, asbestos, asbestiosis
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73
Q
  1. _______________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of carbon monoxide causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2% _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (T74)
A
  1. Carbon Monoxide
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74
Q
  1. ________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory track and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. ________________ is a suspected carcinogen.(T74)
A
  1. Formaldehyde
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75
Q
  1. _________________ = Reddish brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (T74)
A
  1. Nitrogen dioxide
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76
Q
  1. _______________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and be deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to ______________ can cause eye irritation, respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).
A
  1. Particulates
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77
Q
  1. _______________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. __________ is toxic and corrosive and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (T74)
A
  1. Sulfur dioxide
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78
Q
    • A timely and accurate initial size-up, followed by a succession of subsequent assessments of the fireground situation, are critical safety elements. These practices are sometimes called_________________________ . (T74)
A
  1. Dynamic Risk Assessment
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79
Q
  1. ________________ is one of the most important safety factors on any emergency scene. One of the reasons for keeping a crew intact is to __________________ between individual crew members and between crew members and their supervisor. (T78)
A
  1. Communication, maintain communication
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80
Q
  1. The communication most directly involved in firefighter safety and survival is____________________________________. One aspect of fireground communication related to safety is the use of appropriate______________________. (T78)
A
  1. that which takes place on the fireground, terminology
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81
Q
  1. What makes the two-in/two-out rule work is ______________________— between crew members, between crews, and between operational units (Divisions, Groups) and Command. (T78)
A
  1. communication
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82
Q
  1. Compliance with departmental SOPs can be accomplished in two ways: ___________________ and ___________________. (T79)
A
  1. voluntary compliance and enforcement
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83
Q
  1. _______________________is necessary when there is a lack of voluntary compliance with safety SOPs on the fireground. (T79)
A
  1. Enforcement
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84
Q
  1. ______________________of departmental SOPs regarding fire-fighter safety and survival on the fireground also has two aspects: education and coercive action. (T79)
A
  1. Enforcement
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85
Q
  1. ** While two firefighters may be sufficient to locate a firefighter in distress, it may take a _______________ firefighters to effect the rescue. (T80)
A
  1. A dozen or more
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86
Q
    • Being lost or trapped in a burning building is a very stressful experience — for those in distress as well as those trying to come to their aid. However, if firefighters in this situation have been trained in __________________________ (sometimes called by the misnomer_________) and apply them quickly and calmly, their chances of survival are greatly enhanced. (T82)
A
  1. emergency escape techniques, self-rescue
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87
Q
  1. When firefighters are trapped in a burning building, their first priority is to_________. Their first actions should be to initiate a Mayday (if possible), activate their PASS devices, and___________________. (T82)
A
  1. survive, seek safe refuge
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88
Q
  1. Because the sound of a PASS device can make transmitting and receiving radio messages difficult or impossible, trapped firefighters will have to mute them or turn them off to use their radios. To use their radios, trapped firefighters may have to alternately turn their PASS devices on and off for _______________ intervals to allow them to hear transmissions from the RIC or other emergency traffic. (T83)
A
  1. one-minute
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89
Q
  1. ** Removing the wall between any two adjacent studs will only create an opening approximately ____ inches wide. (T86)
A
  1. 14 inches wide
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90
Q
    • Historically, the work that has come to be known as _______________ at structure fires was originally done by civilian salvage crews hired by fire insurance companies. (T93) (Not salvage or overhaul.)
A
  1. loss control
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91
Q
  1. The purpose of all preincident planning, including that for______________, is to increase incident safety, efficiency, and effectiveness. (T94)
A
  1. loss control
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92
Q
    • For the firefighters assigned to control and extinguish a structure fire, _____________________________helps them make faster and more informed on-scene decisions. (T94)
A
  1. preincident loss control information
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93
Q
  1. ____________________is usually accomplished through an ongoing program of preincident planning surveys. (T95)
A
  1. Risk identification
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94
Q
    • _____________________can make firefighters more likely to miss subtle danger signs in the damaged structure such as creaking, cracking, or other sounds that might otherwise alert them to an impending structural collapse. __________________ reduces strength and coordination and slows reflexes — all of which increase the likelihood of injury while operating tools and equipment. _________ could make the firefighters less capable of reacting to and escaping from any dangerous situation that might suddenly develop. (T102)
A
  1. Mental exhaustion, Physical exhaustion, Fatigue
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95
Q
  1. ____________________— a strong respiratory irritant produced when polyethylene is heated and when items containing cellulose, such as wood and other natural materials smolder. It is used in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, herbicides, and tear gas. (T104)
A
  1. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)
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96
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless but very pungent and irritating gas given off in the thermal decomposition of materials containing chlorine such as polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and other plastics. (T104)
A
  1. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
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97
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless gas with a characteristic almond odor. Twenty times more toxic than CO, it is an asphyxiant and can be absorbed through the skin. _____ is produced in the combustion of natural materials, such as wool and silk, which contain nitrogen. It is also produced when polyurethane foam and other plastics that contain urea burn. The concentrated bulk chemical is also used in electroplating.(T104)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
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98
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless, odorless, and nonflammable gas produced in free-burning fires. While it is nontoxic, ____ can asphyxiate by excluding the oxygen from a confined space. It is also a respiratory accelerant that can increase the intake of other toxic gases. (T104)
A
  1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
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99
Q
  1. _____________________— two toxic and dangerous gases liberated in the combustion of pyroxylin plastics. Because ____________readily converts to ________________in the presence of oxygen and moisture, _______________ is the substance of most concern to firefighters. _______________is a pulmonary irritant that can also have a delayed systemic effect. The vapors and smoke from the _______________have a reddish brown or copper color. (T104)
A
  1. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2), nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), oxides of nitrogen
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100
Q
  1. _____________________— a highly toxic, colorless gas with a disagreeable odor of musty hay. It may be produced when refrigerants, such as Freon, contact flame. ________ can be expected in fires in cold-storage facilities or in fires involving heavy-duty HVAC systems. It is a strong pulmonary irritant, the full harmful effect of which is not evident for several hours after exposure. (T104)
A
  1. Phosgene (CCl2O), phosgene
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101
Q
  1. If there are sufficient on-scene resources, firefighters should start salvage operations on the floor _______________as soon it is safe to do so.(T109)
A
  1. Below the fire
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102
Q
    • To reduce _________________from fires, firefighters should salvage as much of the occupant’s property as possible while overhauling the fire. (T114)
A
  1. economic losses
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103
Q
    • With a departmental commitment to support customer service and loss control, firefighters can reduce the ___________________of the fire on the occupant. (T114)
A
  1. psychological impact
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104
Q
    • ______________________________is a free publication from the U.S. Fire Administration and is a good resource for those who have suffered a fire loss. (T117)
A
  1. After the Fire! Returning to Normal
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105
Q
  1. ** To ensure that ladders are safe to use when needed, firefighters must follow the maintenance procedures recommended by the ladder manufacturer, as prescribed in departmental SOPs, and as specified in NFPA _____, Standard on Use, Maintenance, and Service Testing of In-Service Fire Department Ground Ladders. (T125)
A
  1. NFPA 1932
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106
Q
    • The _________________ of a ladder is always shorter than its actual length because of the safe climbing and working angle. (T125)
A
  1. effective length
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107
Q
  1. ** As discussed in Essentials, the ideal climbing angle for ground ladders is____ degrees from horizontal. (T125)
A
  1. 75 degrees from horizontal
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108
Q
  1. ** At angles less than _____ degrees, the distance between personnel on the ladder should be increased. (T125)
A
  1. Less than 75 degrees
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109
Q
    • The __________________of a ladder in position is the vertical distance above the ground where the ladder contacts the building — not the full length of the ladder. (T126)
A
  1. used length
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110
Q
  1. The ladder selected must not only be long enough to reach the objective at a safe climbing angle, but must also extend ______ to _______ above any parapet or roof eave. (T126)
A
  1. three to five rungs
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110
Q
    • ______________________is needed when raising and extending ladders. (T127)
A
  1. Hand/eye coordination
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111
Q
    • _____________________is critical when calculating required ladder length and when positioning ladders. (T127)
A
  1. Depth perception
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112
Q
  1. Any firefighter fitness program should meet the requirements of the applicable NFPA® standards. ** The most relevant fitness related standards are NFPA______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program and NFPA _______, Standard on Health-Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members.
A
  1. NFPA 1500. NFPA 1583
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113
Q
  1. ** A minimum of _____ firefighters are required to raise a pole ladder, but adding a fifth or sixth firefighter to the team increases both safety and efficiency.
A
  1. Four
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114
Q
  1. ** If the window opening is wide enough to permit the ladder tip to project into it and still allow room beside it to facilitate entry/exit and rescue, the ladder can be placed so that it extends ____ or _____ rungs into the window opening. (T135)
A
  1. Two or three rungs
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115
Q
  1. In the absence of an aerial device, ground ladders are the primary means of gaining access to the roof of structures up to _______ stories in height. (T139)
A
  1. Four stories in height
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116
Q
  1. ** If the gap between the buildings is not more than ________ its length, a single ladder can be laid on the roof of one building and the tip simply slid over to the other building. (T142)
A
  1. One-third
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117
Q
  1. ________________ uses of ladders are those that do not involve climbing up or down the ladder. (T140)
A
  1. Nonstandard
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118
Q
  1. Some ________________uses for fire service ground ladders include mechanical advantage systems, positioning intake strainers, water removal, and bridging. (T140)
A
  1. Nonstandard
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119
Q
  1. While there are other possible uses of ladders in mechanical advantage systems, the most common application is in_________________________________________. (T140)
A
  1. lowering injured victims from points above grade
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120
Q
  1. While ladders can be used to construct a variety of water removal contrivances, they are most often used to construct______________. (T141)
A
  1. water chutes
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121
Q
    • Water chutes are constructed using ______________________ to channel water from upper floors out of the structure. (T142)
A
  1. A-frame ladders
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122
Q
    • If the gap between the buildings is not more than __________its length, a single ladder can be laid on the roof of one building and the tip simply slid over to the other building. (T142)
A
  1. one-third
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123
Q
    • Although it can be described in many different ways, ____________ is simply the process of making careful observations and drawing reasonable conclusions from those observations. (T149)
A
  1. size-up
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124
Q
  1. ** Size-up for a structure fire incident typically starts with the ______________. (T152)
A
  1. Initial dispatch
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125
Q
  1. The ______________ has a number of possible effects on the size-up of a structure fire. This factor may increase or decrease the likelihood of the building being occupied or of a fire being discovered and reported. (T152)
A
  1. time of day
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126
Q
    • Because of differences in response times and differences in occupant loads, the need for laddering buildings and conducting search and rescue operations may increase or decrease because of the ______________________. (T153)
A
  1. day of the week
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126
Q
    • From the standpoint of truck company operations, the size-up recommended by the ______________________________________________is a reasonably good model. (T156)
A
  1. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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127
Q
    • For their own safety and for the effectiveness of fireground operations, fire-fighters must learn to accurately_________________. (T158)
A
  1. analyze smoke
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128
Q
  1. It is vitally important for firefighters to understand the relationship between ________________________and fire behavior. (T160)
A
  1. building construction
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129
Q
  1. The ______ of a burning building can be a very critical factor for firefighters to assess in their size-up of the structure. (T160)
A
  1. age
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130
Q
    • Older _________________________ buildings often trap heat and smoke inside and are sometimes prone to wall collapse. (T160)
A
  1. brick (unreinforced masonry [URM])
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131
Q
  1. Some buildings may have______________________, such as the bowstring or Lamella types, and be covered with many layers of composition roofing or other materials. (T161)
A
  1. unsupported arched roofs
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132
Q
  1. _______________ buildings may resist the effects of fire but add to the risk of wall collapse. (T161)
A
  1. Masonry
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133
Q
  1. _______________ buildings, especially if well insulated, may contain a fire long enough that it can develop into major proportions before it is discovered. (T162)
A
  1. Metal buildings
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134
Q
  1. Frequent _____________ are the best way for firefighters to become familiar with the characteristics of the buildings in their response districts and to keep that knowledge current. (T162)
A
  1. surveys
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135
Q
  1. ** Both residential and commercial buildings constructed before the middle of the twentieth century commonly had high ceilings, some _____ feet or more, but many of them have since had dropped (false) ceilings installed during renovation. (T162)
A
  1. 10 feet or more
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136
Q
  1. ** If a firefighter crawling on the floor of a smoke-filled Victorian-style residence can touch the ceiling with a ___-foot pike pole, there is probably a false ceiling in that room. (T162)
A
  1. 6-foot pike pole
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137
Q
  1. These confined spaces are constructed in various sizes and configurations, and from a wide variety of materials. However, regardless of whether it is the typical small crawl space between the ceiling and roof of a suburban dwelling, the common attic in a strip mall, or the cavernous ___________or interstitial space above a large commercial or manufacturing occupancy, most _________have certain characteristics in common. (T164)
A
  1. cockloft, attics
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138
Q
    • Because they make efficient use of space, a growing number of ____________________ and __________________ can be found in many cities and towns in North America. Most are two- or three-story, wood-frame, multiple-residential buildings that may or may not have _________________separating the units. (T165)
A
  1. townhouse apartments and condominiums, fire walls
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139
Q
    • Because ____________________units often have skylights that incorporate a plastic bubble, the bubble will often melt and fall out, creating a vertical opening through which smoke and heat from a fire on the ground floor can escape from the roof. (T166)
A
  1. townhouse
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140
Q
  1. ** A recent trend in residential construction in North America has been the emergence of extremely large dwellings compared to those built in the middle to late twentieth century. These single-family residences are commonly between ________ and _______ square feet, and some even larger. (T162)
A
  1. 5,000 to 10,000
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141
Q
    • Depending upon when, where, and how _________________buildings were constructed, they have the potential to produce some of the largest and most dangerous structure fires that many firefighters will ever face. (T167)
A
  1. Warehouse
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142
Q
  1. In many interior structure fires, the most serious concerns for firefighters are related more to the ________________________than its construction. Some of these concerns are related to the __________________ while others are related to the nature of the materials that are stored and used in the buildings. (T170)
A
  1. contents of the building, occupant loads
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143
Q
    • While the universal priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation remain the same, ________________________may necessitate different approaches to addressing these priorities. For example, the most common fuel control problem that truck company personnel face is making sure that the gas supply to a burning building is secured. (T179)
A
  1. situational differences
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144
Q
    • The main control valve on heavy-duty gas meters may simply be a larger version of the ____________________________common to residential and light commercial buildings. (T179)
A
  1. quarter-turn crossbar valve
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145
Q
    • Because natural gas is lighter than air, it will tend to rise. Therefore, firefighters need to be most concerned about evacuating everyone and eliminating ignition sources located_______________________________. (T181) (Not down wind)
A
  1. above the point of release
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146
Q
  1. When any LPG tank — regardless of size — is involved in fire, the possibility of a __________________________________________is ever-present. (T181)
A
  1. boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion (BLEVE)
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147
Q
  1. ** Evacuations should be made at least ___ mile away from a LPG tank that has the potential for BLEVE. (T182)
A
  1. At least ½ mile
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148
Q
  1. ____________________ is sometimes stored in underground tanks that are connected to the heating appliance by copper or aluminum tubing. * In multifamily residential buildings, there can be _______________ of gallons (liters) of fuel oil located in the basement. (T183)
A

Heating oil, hundreds

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149
Q
    • Some industrial heaters or boilers use steam or air atomizers, but most residential units use mechanical atomizers. Considering that the oil pressure required for maximum efficiency ranges from _______ to ________ psi, any of these systems may be dangerous to firefighters who are unfamiliar with them. (T184)
A
  1. 600 to 1000 psi
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150
Q
  1. ** The DOT ERG 2008 recommends staging anywhere from ____ to ___ feet from the source of both LPG and natural gas leaks. (T185)
A
  1. 160 to 330 feet
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151
Q
  1. One way to assess a flammable gas leak is by using______________________. These handheld devices not only detect the presence of a combustible gas, they also indicate its concentration. Some of these units express the gas detected in parts per million (ppm) and others as _______________________________. (T186)
A
  1. combustible gas indicators (CGI), a percentage of the lower explosive limit (LEL).
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152
Q
    • Because natural gas is slightly lighter than air, the readings should not be taken near the ground. Instead, they should be taken at______________________. (T186)
A
  1. waist height or higher
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153
Q
  1. ** Since the LEL for natural gas is ____ percent (50,000 ppm), many fire departments establish the perimeter at ____ percent of that figure — 0.5 percent (5,000 ppm). However, because the lower explosive limit for propane is 1.5 percent (15,000 ppm), any reading above 0.15 percent (1500 ppm) may be too dangerous, and it may be advisable to locate control points where readings indicate a lower concentration. (T186)
A
  1. 5 percent. 10 percent
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154
Q
    • When monitoring for LPG, readings should be taken____________________. (T186)
A
  1. close to the ground
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155
Q
  1. Figure 7.15 Readings with the CGI should be taken at____________________. (T187)
A
  1. waist height
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156
Q
  1. Even though banned by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for many years, the oil in some older transformers may contain_________________________________, which are known carcinogens. (T191)
A
  1. polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
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157
Q
    • A common error is to establish a perimeter that is too small. As described in Essentials, the recommended isolation distance is that equal to _________________ between the adjacent poles or towers in all directions from a break in a wire or the point of contact with the ground. (T193)
A
  1. one full span
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158
Q
  1. ________________________ can detect unshielded AC current through snow, ice, and many solid objects. (T194)
A
  1. Alternating current detectors
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159
Q
  1. Under ideal conditions, these devices may be able to detect AC current in a single 120-volt line from as far as ____ feet. However, if the conductor is lying on wet soil, the range may be reduced to as little as _______. With higher potentials, such as those in distribution and transmission lines, the detection range can increase to more than ________ feet. (T194)
A
  1. 15 feet, 1 foot, 500 feet.
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160
Q
    • When power from the normal utility source fails, some emergency generators may start automatically. If these units are not disconnected from the system, the power lines can be reenergized with ______ volts from the generators. (T195)
A
  1. 240 volts
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161
Q
    • _______________ can also be used to detect hidden wires. Electrical current creates heat whenever it encounters _____________ in a circuit, and the heat is created______________________, not throughout the circuit. (T195)
A
  1. Thermal imagers, resistance, at the point of resistance
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162
Q
  1. ** If extinguishing a fire on an upper floor of a 50 × 100-foot building results in 6 inches of water accumulating on the floor, the total weight of that water exceeds ____ tons (68 t). (T195)
A
  1. 75 tons
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163
Q
  1. A growing number of single-family residences have full or partial sprinkler systems installed. As in the larger commercial systems, a separate valve from the one that controls the domestic water supply controls the water supply to the sprinklers. But unlike the commercial systems, the valve controlling the water supply to residential sprinklers may be either a __________________ or the same type of _____________as is used to control the domestic water supply. (T196)
A
  1. small OS&Y valve, gate valve
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164
Q
  1. On most small residential buildings, a single _____________ in the main line between the water meter and the building controls the water supply. (T197)
A
  1. gate valve
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165
Q
  1. On larger, multiple residential and other buildings, the water supply is controlled by a____________________— often found in the sidewalk — between the water main and the building. (T197)
A
  1. subsurface valve
165
Q
    • In some areas where property costs are very high, structures are built extremely close together to maximize land use. These ___________ structures often have a fire-resistive exterior, but prove to be extremely challenging to ladder, ventilate, or force entry. (T205)
A
  1. zero-lot structures
166
Q
  1. Most manually operated gates have a simple latching mechanism, and its operation is usually obvious. If a gate is locked with only a padlock, it may be possible to cut the shackle of the lock with bolt cutters. However, some locks have case hardened shackles that are virtually impossible to cut with bolt cutters — and may even damage the tool. In these instances, it may be possible to cut the_______ on the _________.(T206)
A
  1. staple on the hasp
167
Q
  1. If the gate is locked with a padlock and chain, the ______________________should be cut so that the chain is long enough for the property owner to use again after the incident. (T207)
A
  1. chain link closest to the lock
167
Q
  1. ** While wooden fences are found in many heights and styles, the majority consist of individual vertical boards nailed to horizontal wooden stringers between posts spaced about ____ feet apart. (T211)
A
  1. 8 feet
168
Q
  1. ** Because of personal security concerns, a growing number of upscale homes and even entire housing developments, called gated communities, are enclosed within masonry walls. Most of the walls are about ___ feet high and roughly ___ foot thick. (T211)
A
  1. 6 feet high. 1 foot thick
169
Q
  1. Some____________________, such as automated gates, may slow firefighters attempting to gain access. (T212)
A
  1. security measures
170
Q
  1. ____________________such as barbed wire, razor ribbon, spiked iron fences, and trained guard dogs also have the potential to seriously injure firefighters — and prevent them from completing their assignments. (T212)
A
  1. Security measures
171
Q
  1. Also called concertina wire, ________________represents an even greater threat to firefighters than does barbed wire. (T212)
A
  1. razor ribbon
172
Q
  1. ** Scientifically controlled fire tests conducted by the NFPA® indicate that the time available for escape (TAE) from a burning building can be as little as ___ minutes after ignition due to heat buildup in a confined space such as a bedroom. (T219)
A
  1. 11 minutes after ignition
173
Q
  1. Replace 12-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn down more than the other teeth or when the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade. (T221)
A
  1. 2 or more teeth
174
Q
  1. Replace 24-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn excessively, or the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade. (T221)
A
  1. 8 or more teeth
175
Q
  1. Replace composite concrete or metal cutting blades when they have been worn down sufficiently for the blade to fit inside an ____-inch circle. (T221)
A
  1. 8 inch circle
176
Q
    • A rotary saw equipped with a metal-cutting blade is one of the best tools to use for forcing an inward-swinging metal door set in a metal frame. The blade can be plunged through the ________ or doorstop to cut the deadbolt. Or, the saw can be used to make two intersecting 45-degree cuts around the locking mechanism so that the door is free to open. (T224)
A
  1. Rabbet
177
Q
  1. Forcing doors into burning structures is not always for the purpose of entering the building. Firefighters and others may be trapped inside and need an emergency escape route. It is SOP in some departments to force open all doors into a structure (sometimes called_______________________) when there is significant fire inside. (T228)
A
  1. softening the building
177
Q
  1. In addition to the standard pedestrian doors at the office entrances to industrial and institutional occupancies, these buildings may also have large tilt-slab, roll-up, bi-fold, or telescoping ___________________. ______________________ are found wherever large unobstructed wall openings are needed, such as at loading docks. (T228)
A
  1. service doors, Service doors
178
Q
    • One of the most common types of industrial/institutional service doors that firefighters may have to force open is the___________________. These doors are constructed of dozens of interlocking horizontal steel slats that move up and down in tracks at both sides of the door opening. (T228)
A
  1. steel roll-up door
178
Q
  1. Aircraft hangars often incorporate heavy-duty ____________ doors. (T230)
A
  1. bifold
179
Q
  1. One of the most common methods of cutting through a roll-up or sheet-curtain door is to make a large _____________(sometimes called a_________), in the center of the door. (T231)
A
  1. triangular cut, tepee cut
180
Q
    • The triangular cut is most often made with a rotary saw equipped with a metal-cutting blade. In this type of cut, the base of the triangle is the bottom of the door, and the sides are formed by two 45-degree cuts. The apex of the triangle should be at least ___ feet high in the middle of the door, but the higher the better. (T231)
A
  1. 6 feet
181
Q
    • Triangular cuts are not recommended for ___________________ doors. (T231)
A
  1. Telescoping doors
181
Q
  1. ** If fire conditions inside an exterior roll-up or sheet-curtain door make a single cut in the center unsafe to use, an alternative is to make a horizontal cut across nearly the full width of the door, stopping about ________ from the doorframe on each side. This horizontal cut should be made about ___ feet above the bottom of the door. (T231)
A
  1. 1 foot. 6 feet
182
Q
  1. Many exterior and some interior doors in a variety of different occupancies, including those just discussed, have security devices or systems designed to deny access except to those authorized to enter. Some of these devices are as simple as________________, a horizontally movable scissor gate, an overhead roll-up door, a horizontal security bar in stirrups, or panic hardware on the inside of an exterior door. (T234)
A
  1. several deadbolts
183
Q
  1. If firefighters know that a door has several deadbolts installed, they will also know to cut the door from top to bottom about _________ from the edge on the door handle side. (T235)
A
  1. one foot
184
Q
  1. ** Lexan — Polycarbonate plastic used for windows. It has one-half the weight of an equivalent-sized piece of glass, yet is ___ times stronger than safety glass and ___ times stronger than ordinary glass. It cannot be broken using standard forcible entry techniques. (T239)
A
  1. 30 times. 250 times
185
Q
  1. ** A rotary saw with a _________________carbide-tipped blade is most effective when entry must be made through all types of plastic windows. (T240)
A
  1. medium (40 tooth)
186
Q
    • Double-hung (___________ ) windows.
A
  1. Checkrail
187
Q
    • Hinged (______________) windows.
A
  1. Casement
188
Q
    • Projected (____________) windows.
A
  1. Factory
189
Q
    • Awning and Jalousie windows.
A
  1. Awning and Jalousie windows.
190
Q
    • Hurricane windows.
A
  1. Hurricane windows.
191
Q
    • High-security windows.
A
  1. High-security windows.
192
Q
    • Some of the most common types of window security systems are __________________ attached to the outside of the building. (T238)
A
  1. rigid metal grilles
192
Q
    • Double-course brick walls (also called_________________________) can usually be identified by certain bricks or courses being laid perpendicular to the other courses. In this____________________, which may be every fifth, sixth, or seventh course, the ends of the bricks are visible. (T245)
A
  1. unreinforced masonry [URM], header course
193
Q
  1. Sometimes called_______________, __________________ are large sections of concrete walls that are designed to be removable so that large vehicles or machinery can be brought into or removed from the building. (T246)
A
  1. blowout panels, knockout panels
194
Q
    • Some building types are more vulnerable than others to losing their structural integrity during a fire, making them more prone to early collapse. For example, buildings that have lightweight roof assemblies supporting heavy ____________ may collapse sooner than those with other types of roof construction. (T255)
A
  1. dead loads
195
Q
  1. ** NFPA ___________, Recommended Practice for Pre-Incident Planning. (T255)
A
  1. NFPA 1620
196
Q
  1. Bars, nightclubs, movie theaters, and other public assembly occupancies are most likely to have their heaviest occupancy between ______ and about_________, depending upon local laws. (T256)
A
  1. Noon, 2:00 a.m.
197
Q
  1. When search and rescue operations are necessary in heavily occupied residential or public assembly occupancies, it can be expected that significant numbers of firefighters will be needed. While the time period involved can be a factor in the occupant loads of these occupancies, the other major variable affecting search and rescue operations is the________________________. (T256)
A
  1. fire situation
198
Q
  1. Many fire departments also require their search teams to take a search rope (tag line) with them when they enter the hazard zone. Some of these departments supply their teams with _____________________ that consist of a series of tiny white lights encased in a clear plastic sheath. Available in lengths of up to__________, the rope operates on __________power and is carried in a canvas bag. (T260)
A
  1. lighted search ropes, 300 feet, 120-volt AC
199
Q
  1. ** Most imagers use one of two technologies —_______________technology, or ________________________________technology. (T260)
A
  1. Microbolometer. BST (barium, strontium, titanium)
199
Q
  1. ** Some imagers are designed primarily for locating the seat of a fire by being calibrated to respond to temperatures in excess of ____ °F. (T261)
A
  1. 900 degrees
200
Q
  1. A _______________ occurs when the imager is overwhelmed by the heat signature produced by a very intense fire and the screen suddenly goes white. (T262)
A
  1. whiteout
201
Q
  1. Firefighters create ________________ by closing interior doors to isolate the fire and then remove heat and smoke from uninvolved areas with positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) or hydraulic ventilation. (T263)
A
  1. safe zones
202
Q
  1. When search teams must progress deep into large and complex buildings, their ___________________________must be maintained. This can be done by positioning hose teams at intervals along the line of retreat to cool the hot gas layer and maintain control of the exit corridor. (T264)
A
  1. line of retreat
203
Q
    • ________is used where the fire has cut off the normal means of entry into or egress from some parts of a burning building and credible reports indicate that one or more occupants are trapped in a room that is accessible from the outside. (T266)
A
  1. VES
204
Q
  1. ** Departmental SOPs usually dictate one accepted method of marking; however, all department personnel must be trained to understand and use whatever method is selected. Regardless of the marking method used, the marks should be placed on the ___________of the wall or door so they are more likely to be visible below the smoke layer. (T267)
A
  1. lower third
204
Q
  1. For more information on areas of refuge, refer to NFPA _____, Life Safety Code.
A
  1. NFPA 101
205
Q
  1. ** Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in 29 CFR 1910.134 state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of___________. (T274)
A
  1. Two or more
206
Q
  1. NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
A
  1. NFPA 1500
206
Q
  1. ** When searching large or complex spaces that are filled with smoke, some fire departments employ a primary search system that uses a dedicated search line. The search line consists of _____ feet of _____-inch rope with a Kevlar sheath for maximum abrasion protection and heat resistance. Every ___ feet along its length, a ___-inch steel ring is tied into the search line. The rings also provide an anchor point for lateral tethers. The lateral tethers are ____ foot lengths of _____-inch rope with a _______ sheath. Each tether has a 3⁄4-inch steel ring tied to one end, a knot at the midpoint, and either a nonlocking carabiner or a snap hook on the other end. (T268)
A
  1. 200 feet. 3/8 inch rope. 20 feet. 2 inch steel ring, 20 foot, ¼ inch, Kevlar
207
Q
  1. ** Implementing a primary search using a search line system requires a team with a minimum of _____ firefighters, although more is better. (T268)
A
  1. 3 firefighter
208
Q
  1. ** About ____ feet outside of the entry point (or as close as possible) to the area being searched, the end of the search line is tied to a fixed object about ____ feet above the floor. (T268)
A
  1. 10 feet. 3 feet
209
Q
  1. Some residential and commercial buildings are designed with sheltering in place as part of their life safety plan. The design of these buildings includes what are called_______________. (T271)
A
  1. Areas of refuge
210
Q
    • An _______________ is a protected location in a structure where occupants can gather and wait for assistance. (T271)
A
  1. Area of refuge
211
Q
  1. Both areas of refuge and areas of rescue and assistance must be equipped with_____________________________. (T271)
A
  1. emergency communications systems
212
Q
    • SOP for some departments calls for firefighters to continue to use their SCBA until the atmosphere of the hazardous area is deemed to be within safe limits. As a way of defining what safe limits means in these situations, departments have historically used carbon monoxide (CO) as an_________________. (T272)
A
  1. Index gas
213
Q
    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in ______________________ state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of two or more. (T274)
A
  1. 29 CFR 1910.134
214
Q
  1. ** Under certain conditions, NFPA 1500 allows members of a RIC to perform other duties outside of the hazard zone as long as one member remains at the ___________. (T279)
A
  1. Entry point
215
Q
  1. Typical tasks for RIC members in _______________ include placing ladders for access and egress, forcing doors, removing security features, and making additional openings to the building. This is commonly referred to as__________________. (T279)
A
  1. stand-by mode, softening the building
216
Q
  1. Virtually every fire has some type of naturally occurring ventilation. Factors that contribute to the ventilation of a fire are known as a___________________. (T286)
A
  1. ventilation profile
217
Q
  1. __________________ profiles are composed of factors that occur without outside intervention. (T286)
A
  1. Natural ventilation profiles
218
Q
  1. A fire is often termed ______________if it progresses through the roof or compromises windows on its own. (T286)
A
  1. self vented
218
Q
    • _______________________is a methodical, thought-out approach to changing the ventilation profile of a structure. (T286)
A
  1. Tactical ventilation
219
Q
    • Whenever possible, ________________ should be implemented in concert with existing atmospheric conditions, taking advantage of natural ventilation. However, in some situations – such as with an adverse wind – natural ventilation may be inadequate and may have to be supplemented or increased with______________________. (T287)
A
  1. tactical ventilation, mechanical ventilation
220
Q
  1. Also called__________________, mechanical ventilation involves the use of fans, blowers, nozzles, and other mechanical devices to create or redirect the flow of air within an involved compartment or building. (T287)
A
  1. forced ventilation
221
Q
  1. Ventilation size-up requires an assessment of the ______________ and the potential for extreme fire behavior. (T290)
A
  1. burning regime
221
Q
  1. ______________ and __________. These terms describe how difficult it is to see through the smoke. (T291)
A
  1. Optical density and opacity
222
Q
  1. Smoke containing high concentrations of particulates is both very _______ (thick) and _____________ (not transparent). Therefore, it is virtually impossible to see through. (T291)
A
  1. Dense, opaque
223
Q
  1. _________________. This describes how buoyant the smoke is. (T291)
A
  1. Physical density
224
Q
  1. Among the most positive building construction features are_______________. Whether activated by fusible links or by fire/smoke detection systems, these doors limit the spread of fire on any particular floor by employing the principle of__________________________. (T296)
A
  1. self-closing fire doors, compartmentalization
225
Q
    • __________________that discharge CO2, halogenated agents, or dry-chemical agents have generally the same capabilities as automatic sprinkler systems — but on a more limited scale. (T296)
A
  1. Flooding systems
226
Q
    • From a ventilation standpoint, one of the most helpful features a building can have is____________________________. (T298)
A
  1. automatic smoke vents
227
Q
  1. ________________________________include those that do not resist effects of fire, those that promote fire spread, increase the likelihood of structural collapse, and make entry by firefighters more difficult. (T298)
A
  1. Negative construction features
228
Q
  1. In buildings not protected by automatic sprinklers, __________________act as chimneys to channel convected heat, smoke, and fire upward to the roof. (T298)
A
  1. elevator shafts
229
Q
  • A critically important part of the ventilation size-up of a structure fire is coordinating the ventilation with other fireground operations — particularly with______ and _______. (T299)
A
  1. Rescue and fire attack
230
Q
    • When the IC has decided that ventilation is needed, coordinating the ventilation operation with rescue and fire attack generally involves three components: ________, ________, and ____________. (T299)
A
  1. timing, location, and method
231
Q
  1. In horizontal ventilation, fire and heated gases are released through window openings or doorways. Consequently, there is sometimes a danger that they will ignite the structure above the point where they escape or that they may be drawn into windows above the ventilation opening by___________ , also known as______________. (T303)
A
  1. lapping, autoexposure
232
Q
    • __________________ is a common result of fires in multistory buildings. (T303)
A
  1. Lapping
233
Q
  1. In every interior structure fire, firefighters actually start a form of __________________ when they open doors or windows to make entry for search and rescue or fire attack. (T311)
A
  1. horizontal ventilation
234
Q
  1. Regular _______________________of ventilation tools improves their performance and maximizes their safety. (T312) (Not inspections)
A
  1. preventive maintenance
235
Q
  1. NOTE: For purposes of clarity, in this manual the term __________ refers to any device positioned within the space or in the exit opening to expel or exhaust contaminated air from the space. The term __________ refers to any device positioned outside of a space to blow fresh air in to create a slight positive pressure within. The term _____ will be used interchangeably with blower and ejector. (T312)
A
  1. ejector, blower, fan
235
Q
  1. ______ can be driven by electric motors, gasoline-powered engines, or water (hydraulic) pressure. (T313)
A
  1. Fans
236
Q
    • Fire departments also use flexible ducting that is up to ___________in diameter, and is made of smooth, translucent plastic. This ducting has no steel reinforcement and is kept open by the pressure of the air being forced through it. To expel smoke from a compartment, an electrically driven blower must be positioned inside the compartment. (T313)
A
  1. 24 inches
237
Q
  1. For horizontal ventilation purposes, _________________ are some of the best means of creating the necessary exterior openings. (T316)
A
  1. windows
238
Q
    • ___________________ are often flanked by double-hung or casement windows or are stacked with awning or hopper windows that can be opened.
A
  1. Fixed windows
239
Q
    • ______________ windows have one movable section; in ____________windows, both halves are movable.
A
  1. Single-hung, double-hung
239
Q
    • __________________windows are usually opened and closed using a small hand crank built into the frame. They have one or two side-hinged, outward- swinging sashes, and the screens are on the inside. Double-casement windows may be separated by a fixed pane or simply by a vertical post called a __________________.(T318)
A
  1. Casement, Mullion
240
Q
  1. *______________________________. These windows have two or more sashes, one of which is fixed and the other or others are movable. From the inside, the movable sash can often be lifted out of the frame without damaging the window. (T318)
A
  1. Horizontal-Sliding Windows
241
Q
  1. *_________________. These windows have one or more top-hinged, outward-swinging sashes. ________________windows are often combined with a fixed sash in a larger unit. (T318)
A
  1. Awning Windows, Single-awning
242
Q
  1. *____________________. These windows consist of narrow horizontal panes of glass set in pivoting brackets at each end. The panes overlap in a louver-like fashion. (T318)
A
  1. Jalousie Windows
243
Q
  1. *_____________________. These windows, also known as factory windows, may be hinged at the top or bottom and may swing inward or outward. (T319)
A
  1. Projected Windows
244
Q
    • _____________________ have bottom-hinged, inward-swinging sashes. These windows look like awning windows that have been installed upside down. (T319)
A
  1. Hopper windows
245
Q
  1. Although there are several brands of energy-efficient windows, they are all commonly referred to as___________________. (T319)
A
  1. thermal windows
246
Q
  1. Regardless of its design or location, a door opened for tactical ventilation purposes should be_________________________. (T320)
A
  1. blocked open, but not removed
247
Q
  1. In addition to the most common types of swinging doors described in Essentials, some residential occupancies, care facilities, and hospitals have self-closing, __________________in the interior hallways. These doors may be held open by fusible links as described earlier for sliding fire doors, or they may be held open by _______________ connected to the fire detection system. (T321)
A
  1. rated fire doors, electromagnets
247
Q
  1. Many __________________________ are metal-clad assemblies suspended from slanting tracks mounted on the surface of a rated firewall. In high-traffic areas where it would be impractical to continually open and close a fire door, the door is held in the open position by a cable connected to a _____________located at the top of the doorway opening. (T321)
A
  1. sliding-type interior fire doors, fusible link
248
Q
  1. ** The most significant difference between telescoping doors and other types of service doors is that telescoping doors consist of two layers (skins) separated by at least ____ inches of air space. From the bottom of the door, the space between the inner and outer skins becomes progressively larger toward the top of the door. Depending upon the size of the door, the space between the inner and outer skin can be more than 13 inches. (T323)
A
  1. 2 inches of air space
249
Q
    • To create horizontal ventilation openings in walls safely and efficiently, firefighters must be able to recognize the various types of walls when they see them. To do this, they need to be familiar with the types of walls present in their response districts, and with the types of walls in specific___________________. (T324)
A
  1. target hazards
250
Q
    • Firewalls must extend the entire width of the building and, in most cases, extend up to and above combustible roofs. If these walls have been penetrated with______________________, fire may pass through the openings and spread beyond the occupancy of origin. (T325)
A
  1. unprotected openings
251
Q
  1. ** Exterior masonry walls usually range from ___ to ___ inches or more in thickness, depending upon the material used. (T326)
A
  1. 8 to 12 inches
252
Q
  1. Windowless masonry/concrete walls, regardless of the specific material, are formidable barriers that are so difficult and time-consuming to penetrate they are rarely breached for ventilation purposes. If they must be breached, heavy-duty power equipment such as electric or pneumatic ________________ (_____________________) should be used. (T326)
A
  1. jackhammers (concrete breakers)
253
Q
  1. Tall masonry veneer walls can present a substantial collapse potential because of the way some of them are attached to the studs. Some veneers, such as brick or stone (real or imitation), are attached to the studs with thin, corrugated pieces of sheet-metal called______. (T327)
A
  1. wall ties
254
Q
    • As described in Chapter 11, some buildings have a foam veneer called an exterior insulation and finishing system (EIFS) that is applied to the outside for aesthetic purposes. The EIFS veneer may be as much as ______________ thick. (T326)
A
  1. One foot thick
255
Q
    • Of all the various methods of ventilating burning buildings, ___________________________________ is by far the most often used. (T330)
A
  1. natural horizontal ventilation
255
Q
  1. When windows are opened for tactical ventilation, screens, curtains, drapes, or blinds should be removed because they will hinder airflow. In most cases, the exit opening should be about ________ as large as the inlet opening. (T332)
A
  1. twice
256
Q
  1. Whether in horizontal or vertical ventilation operations, _________________ventilation is primarily a means of supplementing or augmenting natural ventilation. (T333)
A
  1. mechanical (forced)
257
Q
    • When smoke ejectors are placed in doorways, windows, or other exterior openings, they should be positioned near the _________________ because convection causes the majority of the heat and smoke to rise to the top of the compartment. (T333)
A
  1. top of the opening
257
Q
  1. ** For PPV, blowers are set up about ___ feet outside the point of entry into the building so the cone of air they create completely covers the inlet opening. (T333)
A
  1. 6 feet
258
Q
  1. ** Compared with mechanical smoke ejectors, fog streams are capable of removing ____________________ more smoke, depending on the type and size of the nozzle, the angle of the spray pattern, and the location of the nozzle in relation to the ventilation opening. (T336)
A
  1. Two to four times more smoke
259
Q
  1. ** A fog or spray stream directed through a window or doorway with a ___-degree pattern covering ___ to ___ percent of the opening provides the best results for ventilation. The ideal nozzle position will vary, but in most cases it should be about 2 feet inside the room being ventilated. Regardless of the size of the opening, the spray pattern should not exceed 60 degrees because it will lose efficiency at greater angles. (T336)
A
  1. 60 degree pattern. 80 to 90 percent of the opening
259
Q
    • Firefighters must beware of the possibility of falling onto roofs from high parapet walls, of falling off roofs because of tripping over low parapets, and of poor footing on steep roofs. They must also be aware of the potentially dangerous levels of electrical power (up to ____volts DC, at up to ___ amps) inherent in rooftop solar panels. (T347)
A
  1. 600 volts, up to 8 amps
260
Q
    • To ______________ a roof means to observe the roof, construction features, and other indicators that can warn firefighters of potentially unsafe conditions. (T348)
A
  1. Read
260
Q
    • Firefighters should ___________________ the roof (if possible) with the blunt end of a pike pole, rubbish hook, or axe any time they attempt access. (T350)
A
  1. sound
261
Q
  1. A key factor in opening roofs safely and efficiently is knowing the location and extent of the fire and the location and direction of the rafters. * Most roof assemblies employ a parallel rafter system with rafters spaced from __ to ___ inches on center, spanning the shortest distance between structural members or bearing walls. (T354)
A
  1. 12 to 24 inches
262
Q
  1. If a TIC is not available and all other signs indicate that the roof is stable, the roof should be sounded. * If sounding does not reveal the location and direction of the rafters, a diagonal cut through the roof covering can be made with a chain saw or rotary saw at an angle of ______ degrees to any exterior wall.(T354)
A
  1. 45 degrees to any exterior wall
263
Q
  1. ** While departmental SOPs must always be followed, it is recommended that a clear space of at least ___ feet be maintained in all directions from anyone using a cutting tool in vertical ventilation. (T355)
A
  1. 10 feet
264
Q
  1. Because of its versatility and safety when used by a well-trained operator, the ___________________ is the preferred tool for many fireground cutting operations. (T357)
A
  1. chain saw
265
Q
  1. The extent to which firefighters are able to safely and efficiently ventilate a building through its roof will depend to some degree on their knowledge of________________. (T361)
A
  1. roof construction
265
Q
  1. ** A roof that decreases 5 inches vertically for each foot horizontally from the ridge would be described as a ___________roof, which is the most common pitch on residential roofs in areas with mild climates. (T361)
A
  1. Five-in-twelve roof
266
Q
  1. ** A roof designed to withstand a heavy snow load might have a ____________pitch (____-degree angle). (T361)
A
  1. Twelve-in-twelve pitch. 45 degree angle
267
Q
    • The __________ is one of the most common types of roof construction and can be found on many single-family residences and small commercial structures. (T363)
A
  1. gable roof
268
Q
    • All rafters in ___________ run perpendicular to the nearest outside wall. (T363)
A
  1. Hip roofs
269
Q
    • The _____________ roof consists of a high gabled roof with a vertical wall above a downward-pitched shed roof section on either side. (T364)
A
  1. Lantern roof
270
Q
    • The ___________________ roof has a double slope on each of its four sides. (T365)
A
  1. Mansard
271
Q
  1. ** The difference between the mansard and the modern mansard is the way in which the four sides meet in the middle. The _____________ forms a slight hipped peak or ridge. On the other hand, the ______________________ has a flat central portion. (T365)
A
  1. true mansard, modern mansard
272
Q
    • The ______________________ roof includes characteristics of both flat and pitched roofs: four steeply sloped sides rise to meet a flat top called a deck.
A
  1. modern mansard
272
Q
  1. A ________________ roof is most often found on barns and other outbuildings. This roof is essentially a gable type with two different slopes on each side of the peak and with the lower slope being steeper than the upper slope. (T366)
A
  1. gambrel
272
Q
  1. In the past, this type of roof was often used in industrial and institutional buildings to maximize natural light and ventilation but it is rarely seen in modern buildings. The ___________ roof consists of a series of small pitched roofs similar in shape to the teeth of a saw. (T366)
A
  1. sawtooth
273
Q
    • In many areas, flat roofs are more common on mercantile and industrial buildings, multiple dwellings, and apartment complexes than on single-family dwellings. This type of roof ordinarily has a slight slope of _______________ pitch or less from the front toward the rear of the building to allow drainage. (T368)
A
  1. two-in-twelve
274
Q
  1. Wooden deck roofs may present a hazard if lightweight plywood or OSB decking is used. Panels of ______ to _________ thickness offer little fire resistance, but may be difficult to remove for tactical ventilation. (T372)
A
  1. 3⁄8- to 5/8-inch
275
Q
  1. ** Because it is difficult and time consuming to cut concrete roofs that are more than ___ inches thick, they are often designed with built-in access panels that can be lifted out in an emergency. (T374)
A
  1. 4 inches thick
276
Q
    • Poured gypsum roofs consist of bar joists or I-beams with brackets welded to the joists. Gypsum board is placed on the brackets and is covered with a layer of gypsum cement up to ______________ inches thick to which wire mesh reinforcement is added. (T374)
A
  1. 2 ½ inches
276
Q
    • Firefighters preparing to ventilate a flat roof should quickly but carefully _________the roof before stepping onto it. (T375)
A
  1. Observe
277
Q
    • Ventilation holes in _______ roofs should be cut parallel to the rafters and perpendicular to the outside walls of the building. (T378)
A
  1. Flat roofs
278
Q
  1. When cutting the ventilation opening, firefighters should work with the wind at their backs. They should start by making a cut across the ___________ end so that the smoke will blow away from them as they continue to work. This should be followed by making parallel side cuts at least 4 feet apart between the rafters. (T378)
A
  1. Leeward
278
Q
  1. ___________ are typically used to support roofs that must span large, open spaces unsupported by pillars or posts. (T379)
A
  1. Arches
278
Q
  1. ** Typically, arches are spaced at ___ to ___ foot centers. (T379)
A
  1. 16 to 20 foot centers
279
Q
    • _______________ are used to counteract forces placed on the arch. (T380)
A
  1. Buttresses
279
Q
    • The ___________________ roof, commonly found in older buildings housing a variety of commercial or industrial occupancies, uses an arch with a wooden or metal bottom chord. The top chords of these arches are usually laminated 2 × 12-inch or larger lumber. (T380)
A
  1. bowstring truss
280
Q
    • _____________________ with steel tie rods have a history of early and sudden collapse when the tie rods are exposed to fire. (T381)
A
  1. Bowstring arches
281
Q
    • The ______________________ roof uses massive arches of steel, concrete, or laminated wood buttressed into the ground at each end. These arches may be spaced between 16 and 20 feet apart. (T382)
A
  1. trussless arch
282
Q
  1. The ___________________ is another type of trussless arch made up of an interlocking geometric framework on which plank sheathing is laid. The framework is usually constructed of dimensional lumber in which 2 × 12-inch wooden members are bolted together at the intersections with steel gusset plates. (T382)
A
  1. lamella roof
282
Q
    • The lamella roof system shares many characteristics with the bowstring-type roofs, and the same operational and safety considerations apply. However, when ___ to ____ percent of a lamella roof burns away, sudden failure of the remainder of the roof is likely. (T382)
A
  1. 10 to 20 percent
283
Q
  1. ** Panelized roof construction consists of laminated beams of various sizes – commonly ____ × ____ inches – that span the length or width of the building. These beams are supported at their ends by_______________ , wooden or steel posts, or saddles. (T383)
A
  1. 6x36 inches, pilasters
283
Q
  1. The ___________________of parallel chord trusses causes the top chord to always be in compression and the bottom chord in tension. Because parallel chord trusses are capable of spanning large open spaces unsupported, they are used in a variety of applications and occupancies. (T385)
A
  1. bridging effect
284
Q
  1. Wooden/metal trusses. Other parallel chord trusses consist of wooden top and bottom chords that are cross-connected by web members made of steel tubing. The web members are usually made of ____________________________ with the ends pressed flat. (T386)
A
  1. 1-inch cold-rolled steel tubing
285
Q
  1. Also known as_____________ , these extremely strong assemblies often consist of top and bottom chords that are each made of two angle irons set in opposing directions. (T386)
A
  1. bar joists
286
Q
  1. Common pitched roof truss configurations are the _______, _______, and _______ trusses. (T387)
A
  1. Howe, Pratt, and Fink
287
Q
  1. __________________ are normally supported only by the outside bearing walls. In this type of construction, interior partition walls are essentially freestanding walls that do not actually support the truss at any point. However, to provide lateral support for partition walls, metal clips may be nailed to the bottom chord of the truss and to the top plate of a partition wall where the bottom chord crosses the wall. Even without the support of interior walls, spans of up to ________ are possible using 2 × 4-inch components. The most common spacing between these trusses is 2 to 4 feet on center, and 1⁄2-inch plywood or OSB is commonly used as sheathing. (T388)
A
  1. Pitched roof trusses, 55 feet
288
Q
    • Wooden I-beams consist of three main components: a top chord, a bottom chord, and a solid ______ inch plywood or OSB web. (T388) The web is connected to the top and bottom chords by a continuous, glued joint. The chords may be made of 2- × 3-inch lumber, 2- × 4-inch lumber, or a wooden laminate called ________________. Common spacing for this type of beam is 2 feet on center, and the area where the beams rest on the outside walls is the strongest point. (T388)
A
  1. 3/8 inch, micro-lam
289
Q
  1. ________________ are the weather-resistant materials applied over roof decking or sheathing. These coverings usually consist of one or more layers of underlayment (also called________________) as a vapor barrier or insulation over which a waterproof covering is laid. The most common substrate is__________ , also called roofing felt. (T389)
A
  1. Roof coverings, substrate, tar paper
290
Q
  1. ** Roof coverings are classified in NFPA ___, Guidelines on Roof Coverings and Roof Deck Construction.
A
  1. NFPA 203
291
Q
  1. ** Shakes and shingles are usually nailed to wooden 1- × 4-inch or 1- × 6-inch ___________________ with a space of about 1 inch between the planks. (T390)
A
  1. Plank sheathing
292
Q
  1. _________________ roof coverings (also called_________________ ) are very common on flat or nearly flat roofs. They are found on many types of buildings, ranging from single-family residences to large commercial or industrial buildings. During construction, melted roofing tar is hot mopped onto one or more layers of a tar paper substrate over plywood, OSB, or butted plank sheathing. Pea-sized gravel or crushed slag is commonly broadcast onto the melted tar to add durability and weather resistance. (T392)
A
  1. Tar and gravel, built-up roofs
293
Q
    • __________________foams are applied to roofs in two forms. One is in the form of 4 × 8-foot sheets of foam insulation. The other form is called foamed-in-place applications. (T392)
A
  1. Urethane/isocyanate foams
294
Q
  1. Several rubber-like _______________ are applied to new roofs or over existing built-up roofs after the gravel has been removed. These coatings are then sealed with a single layer of any of a variety of approved flexible, water-resistant synthetic membranes (also known as______________________). (T393)
A
  1. liquid elastomers, single-ply roofs
294
Q
  1. ** Concrete, clay, or ceramic tile roofs use tiles that are usually flat, interlocking pieces that hook over 1- × 2-inch __________ (sometimes called_______________) nailed to the sheathing or directly to the rafters. (T393
A
  1. Battens. Furring strips
295
Q
  1. ** Because a 1/4-inch steel plate weighs about _____ pounds per square foot, a 20 × 50-foot roof would have approximately 10,000 pounds added to it. (T395)
A
  1. 10 pounds per square foot
295
Q
  1. __________________ are normally square or rectangular metal-covered hatches that provide an exit from an attic or cockloft onto the roof and are often accessed from the top floor or the attic by a ladder. (T396)
A
  1. Scuttle hatches
295
Q
  1. These structures usually enclose the tops of stairways that terminate on the roof, and they usually have a metal-clad exterior door of standard size. ______________ doors may be forced open in the same manner as other doors of a similar type. (T396)
A
  1. Penthouse (Penthouse a.k.a. Bulkhead)
296
Q
    • __________________ are square or rectangular structures that penetrate the roofs of single-story buildings to provide additional natural light and/or ventilation. (T397)
A
  1. Monitor vents
296
Q
  1. ** The time required to enlarge an opening of inadequate size or to cut several smaller holes is greater than that required to make one large opening. One 8 × 8 foot opening is equal in area to ______ 4 × 4 foot holes. (T400)
A
  1. Four 4x4 foot holes
297
Q
  1. Cutting ___________is often the fastest and most efficient way of opening a roof. (T401)
A
  1. louver vents
298
Q
  1. Unlike large, square ventilation openings, in a ________________ there is always a rafter in the center of the sheathing being cut so that a constant reference point is maintained with the rafters. (T401)
A
  1. louver vent
299
Q
  1. Basically, there are two methods that have proven effective for cutting louver vents in roofs:______________ and _________________. (T401)
A
  1. Center-rafter-cut and Dicing
299
Q
    • In a_____________________, the longer cuts are made parallel to the rafter. (T401)
A
  1. center-rafter cut
300
Q
    • Basically, there are two methods that have proven effective for cutting louver vents in roofs. Both methods employ the center-rafter principle and take advantage of the roof’s construction to facilitate opening the roof. In the first and most common method — the____________________, the longest cuts are made parallel to the rafters. In the other method — known as____________— the longest cuts are made across the rafters. (T401)
A
  1. center-rafter cut, dicing
301
Q
    • A second method of louver venting, sometimes called ___________________, involves making the two longest cuts perpendicular to (across) the rafters. (T402)
A
  1. rolling the rafters (Dicing is a.k.a. rolling the rafters.)
301
Q
    • To quickly and efficiently create a large ventilation exit opening in a lightweight roof, firefighters can use a method some call__________________. This technique requires four firefighters – two with chain saws and two with rubbish hooks – working in unison. (T402)
A
  1. rolling back the roof,

NOTE: Unlike any other roof cut, this method REQUIRES that rafters or sub-purlins be cut. ^^^

302
Q
    • In most cases a ___________(__________) cut is fastest for making a trench vent. (T404)
A
  1. center-rafter (louver) cut
303
Q
  1. Primarily a defensive maneuver, trench ventilation is sometimes referred to as _______________ ventilation. (T403)
A
  1. strip
303
Q
  1. ** Trench ventilation is accomplished by cutting an opening in the roof, at least ___ feet wide, across the entire width of the building. (T400)
A
  1. 4 feet wide
304
Q
  1. Some departments allow their firefighters to use freight elevators to ascend partway to the fire floor and to transport additional equipment when it is deemed safe to do so by the Incident Commander. Departments that allow this do so because these elevators are usually not in blind shafts and the systems are designed to carry heavier loads than ordinary passenger elevators. * A fully equipped firefighter, especially one wearing a full tool belt or carrying spare air tanks, can weigh more than _____ pounds.(T411)
A
  1. 300 pounds
305
Q
    • It is SOP in many fire departments to attack high-rise fires from _____________________ and to concentrate relief crews and spare equipment on the staging floor, ____________________the fire floor. (T410)
A
  1. the floor below the fire, two floors below
305
Q
    • Moving massive amounts of tools and equipment is often coordinated by those assigned to_______________________. (T411)
A
  1. lobby control
306
Q
  1. Fire behavior in high-rise buildings is most affected by _________ and____________. (T412)
A
  1. stack effect, and mushrooming.
307
Q
  1. Although referred to as ceiling jets in technical literature, firefighters have long called this phenomenon_________________; therefore, that is the term that will be used here. (T413)
A
  1. Mushrooming
308
Q
    • If a high-rise building is opened at the roof and at street level, the direction and intensity of airflow within the building depends primarily on the___________________________________. If it is hotter inside than outside, the airflow will be inward at the bottom and outward at the top. But if the outside air is hotter than the air inside, the flow will be reversed. This is known as_________________ . (T412)
A
  1. relative temperature differences. reverse stack effect.
309
Q
  1. _____________________— Formation of smoke into layers as a result of differences in density with respect to height with low density layers on the top and high density layers on the bottom. (T413)
A
  1. Stratification
310
Q
  1. ___________________ — Tendency of heat, smoke, and other products of combustion to rise until they encounter a horizontal obstruction. At this point they will spread laterally until they encounter vertical obstructions and begin to bank downward. (T413)
A
  1. Mushrooming
311
Q
  1. ** Most PPV blowers positioned at street level are effective up to about ______ floors.(T414)
A
  1. Up to 22 floors
312
Q
  1. While many high-rise buildings have more than one interior stairway, few have more than one that____________________________.(T416)
A
  1. terminates on the roof
313
Q
  1. _____________ are the preferred method of roof access in high-rise structures. (T415)
A
  1. Aerial devices
313
Q
  1. ________________ can prevent or reduce mushrooming on the upper floors and does not promote lapping, which is always a danger when horizontally venting multistory buildings below the top floor. (T415)
A
  1. Top ventilation
314
Q
    • In a closed compartment, the point where the interior pressure is equal to the pressure outside the space is called the________________________. (T418)
A
  1. neutral pressure plane. (Not neutral plane)
314
Q
    • In buildings having only one stairwell that terminates on the roof, this natural chimney may be used to ventilate smoke, heat, and fire gases from various floors. The ____________or ____________ door on the roof must be blocked open before the stairway doors on the fire floors are opened. (T417)
A
  1. penthouse, or bulkhead
315
Q
  1. ** Assuming that the structure is closed, with little or no gases being vented to the atmosphere, a neutral pressure plane exists at the level of ambient atmospheric pressure (usually between ____ percent and ____ percent of the building height). (T419)
A
  1. 35 and 50 percent of the building height
315
Q
    • HVAC systems in very old buildings were designed around the demands of controlling the interior environment of high-rise structures under normal conditions. These early systems often contributed to the spread of smoke and fire throughout a building. Modern systems have many improvements including controllable ____________________ that can be selectively opened and closed. (T424)
A
  1. smoke dampers
316
Q
  1. ** The standard that provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke and heat venting equipment, NFPA ______, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, recommends using automatic heat-activated roof vents and curtain boards. (T425)
A
  1. NFPA 204
316
Q
  1. Roof vents and _________________ are most common in large buildings having wide, undivided expanses of floor space. (T425)
A
  1. curtain boards
317
Q
  1. ____________________ are intended to limit the spread of fire within a building by releasing heat and smoke to the outside before the fire mushrooms throughout the building. (T425)
A
  1. Automatic roof vents
318
Q
  1. ________________________ may not open automatically when sprinklers discharge near them because the sprinklers may prevent the fire from developing enough heat to activate the vents. (T425)
A
  1. Heat-activated roof vents

(Not automatic roof vent)

318
Q
  1. __________________are usually square or rectangular structures that penetrate the roofs of single-story buildings, but may be found on older high-rise buildings as well. (T426)
A
  1. Monitor vents
319
Q
  1. _____________ are primarily intended to increase natural light inside these buildings, but may also provide some natural ventilation. (T426)
A
  1. Monitors
320
Q
  1. *____________, also known as draft curtains, are fire-resistive half-walls that extend down from the underside of the roof. They generally extend a distance equal to at least _________percent of the vertical distance from the floor to the roof but not lower than 10 feet above the floor. (T427)
A
  1. Curtain boards, 20 percent
320
Q
  1. Because basements, utility vaults, tunnels, and other underground structures may not provide adequate natural ventilation during fires, ____________ may be required. (T428)
A
  1. forced ventilation
321
Q
    • Usually, but not always, _________ have no windows and __________have small windows between grade level and the first floor of the building. (T428)
A
  1. cellars, basements
322
Q
  1. The absence of exterior openings severely limits the opportunities for horizontal ventilation and increases the likelihood of backdraft conditions developing within these structures. Both of these problems underscore the need for fast and effective vertical ventilation of fires in__________________.(T429)
A
  1. windowless buildings
323
Q
  1. ** In_____, Homeland Security Presidential Directive-___, Management of Domestic Incidents, was issued. (T435)
A
  1. 2003, Presidential Directive 5
324
Q
  1. HSPD-5 directed the U.S. Secretary of Homeland Security to develop and administer a National Response Plan, later renamed the________________________________. (T435-6)
A
  1. National Response Framework
324
Q
  1. When the nature and extent of a structure fire is not obvious on arrival, the first-in officer will need to ______________ as part of the size-up. (T436)
A
  1. Investigate
325
Q
    • In the ___________ mode, the officer maintains command by communicating over a portable radio. (T436)
A
  1. fast attack
325
Q
    • If a structure fire is of such size and complexity or has such spread potential that it is unlikely that the on-scene crew can bring it under control, the first- arriving officer should ____________________ of the incident. (T437)
A
  1. assume command
325
Q
  1. In this context, an ________________ is defined as one that can be handled by a single unit or the resources in the initial (first-alarm) response.
A
  1. initial attack fire
326
Q
  1. In general, an __________________ is probably not beyond what is commonly called a room-and-contents fire.
A
  1. initial attack structure fire
327
Q
  1. There are no universally accepted timelines that differentiate an initial attack fire from a more sustained one. However, for purposes of this discussion, once a structure fire has progressed to the point where the IC decides that the first-alarm resources need to be supplemented, the incident moves into the category of a___________________. (T440)
A
  1. sustained attack fire
328
Q
  1. Companies that are staging must be ready to respond within ____________minutes of being called. In high-rise fires, additional companies and spare equipment are usually staged two floors below the fire floor and their apparatus parked about a block away. (T440)
A
  1. three minutes
328
Q
  1. When a structure fire is such that it continues burning beyond the original operational period, it is considered to be an___________________. An operational period may be ______________ from the time of alarm, the point at which the on-duty crews are scheduled to be relieved, or some other arbitrary point in time.
A
  1. extended attack fire, 12 hours
329
Q
  1. _______________ fires frequently involve mutual aid companies, strike teams, task forces, or other outside assistance.
A
  1. Extended attack
329
Q
  1. ** Extraordinary control measures may be necessary in _____________(those involving large-scale building-to-building spread) that may involve an entire city block, and ______________ (huge fires that cross streets, highways, rivers, or other natural fire breaks) that may engulf entire neighborhoods. (T441)
A
  1. Group fires. Conflagrations (GROUP FIRES! Not deflagrations)
330
Q
  1. (CH2=CHCHO)
A
  1. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)
330
Q
  1. (HCl)
A
  1. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
331
Q
  1. (NO and NO2)
A
  1. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2)
331
Q
  1. (CO2)
A
  1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
331
Q
  1. (HCN)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
332
Q
  1. (CCl2O)
A
  1. Phosgene (CCl2O)
332
Q
  1. FLASH POINT OF GASOLINE IS: _____ degrees F.
A
  1. -45
333
Q
  1. FIRE POINT OF GASOLINE IS: _____ to ______ degrees F.
A
  1. -40 to -35
333
Q
  1. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______ present a significant flammability hazard.
A
  1. 100° F
334
Q
  1. Methane (Natural Gas) vapor density & ignition temp. = ___________.
A
  1. 0.55 & 1,004 F
335
Q
  1. Propane (LPG) vapor density & ignition temp = ______.
A
  1. 1.52 & 842 F
335
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide vapor density and ignition temp = __________.
A
  1. 0.96 & 1,128 F
336
Q
  1. The driver/operator is not protected from the legal consequences of driving with __________________for the safety of others.
A
  1. reckless disregard
337
Q
  1. *____________________— An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any potential consequences of so doing.___________________, while not necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm, is a harsher condition than ordinary negligence.
A
  1. Reckless Disregard, Reckless disregard
338
Q
  1. ___________ is usually found when the driver/operator has been found guilty of a gross violation of standing laws, policies, or ordinances.
A
  1. Negligence
338
Q
  1. *______________— Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances.
A
  1. Negligence
339
Q
  1. Driving under the influence of alcohol is not only an example of____________, but ______________as well.
A
  1. gross negligence but recklessness as well.
340
Q
  1. *____________ — Willful and wanton disregard.
A
  1. Gross Negligence
341
Q
    • The driver/operator is responsible for confirming that all personnel are on board the apparatus with seat belts fastened. Confirmation must be verified __________ before moving the vehicle.
A
  1. verbally
342
Q
  1. ____________________ — Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.
A
  1. Angle of approach
343
Q
  1. *___________________— Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint.
A
  1. Breakover angle
343
Q
  1. *____________________— Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.
A
  1. Angle of departure
344
Q
  1. *In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by ________ or more. (P)
A
  1. 250 feet or more.
344
Q
  1. *At speeds above___________, an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device.
A
  1. 50 mph
345
Q
    • The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is_________________. (P)
A
  1. visual lead time
345
Q
    • The ________________is the distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop. (P)
A
  1. braking distance
346
Q
    • The __________________ is the sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance.
A
  1. total stopping distance
346
Q
    • After perceiving the need to stop the vehicle, the driver/operator’s ____________________is the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal.
A
  1. reaction distance
346
Q
    • _______— To shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus. (P141)
A
  1. Relay

(Different than hose relay.)

347
Q
    • ________ may be established as an area from which large numbers of personnel and quantities of equipment may be deployed. This area serves as the primary point outside the incident area to which responding units report and receive initial orders for action. (not staging area. There is no definition for “Staging Area.”)
A
  1. Base
348
Q
  1. ________ — Location at which the primary Incident Management Logistics functions are coordinated and administered; the Incident Command Post may be co-located with the______. There is only one _____ per incident.
A
  1. Base
349
Q
  1. A series of tubes and hoses supply hydraulic fluid throughout the system. Most manufacturers use steel tubing and aircraft-type, steel-braided hose. Hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least _____ times greater than normal operating pressure. (P548.)
A
  1. Four times greater
349
Q
    • Extinguishing the fire is a natural extension of the ____________tactic. (S207)
A
  1. Confinement
350
Q
  1. Step 20: Note any sounds of air leaking, position of needles. After one minute, air pressure should not drop more than ___ psi for straight-chassis vehicles or ___ psi for tractor-drawn aerial apparatus. (P61)
A
  1. 3 psi, 4psi
351
Q
  1. Step 21: With engine off and master switch on, pump brake pedal continually lowers air tank pressure. Warning light and buzzer should activate before __ psi. (P61)
A
  1. 60 psi
352
Q
  1. Step 22: After step 21 is complete, with parking brake released, continue to pump brake pedal until air brake control sets automatically by the button popping out. NOTE: The button should pop out between ___ and ____ psi. (P61)
A
  1. 20 and 40 psi
353
Q
  1. Step 23: Start engine and let air pressure build up to normal. NOTE: Air pressure should build to _______ psi in __ sec at full engine RPM. (P61)
A
  1. 85 – 100 psi in 45 sec
354
Q
  1. Step 24: When the needle stops climbing, the air compressor has cut out. NOTE: The needle should stop climbing between ___ and ___ psi.
A
  1. 120 and 130 psi
355
Q
  1. Step 25: Apply the brake pedal, lowering the pressure in the tanks by __ to __ psi increments stopping at 85 psi. Ensure that the air gauge needle begins to indicate a pressure increase following the test.
A
  1. 5 to 10 psi
356
Q
    • To minimize the lateral thrust of large quantities of water entering the eye of the impeller, a _______________________ may be used. (P301)
A
  1. double-suction impeller
357
Q
    • The double-suction impeller takes water in from both sides; the reaction of each side being equal and opposite cancels out the ________ thrust. (P301)
A
  1. lateral
358
Q
    • Because the impeller turns at a high rate of speed, a __________ thrust is developed as the water is delivered to the discharge outlet. _______________ in the opposed discharge volutes divert the water into two streams that are 180 degrees apart. Water being removed at two places and traveling in opposite directions cancels the ____________ thrust. (P301)
A
  1. radial thrust, Stripping edges, radial thrust