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Matts Driver Bible > Matts Driver Bible TRUCK CO. 1st version > Flashcards

Matts Driver Bible TRUCK CO. 1st version Flashcards

1
Q
    • Before ignition, a fuel has potential _________ energy. When that fuel burns, the chemical energy is converted to kinetic energy in the form of thermal energy (heat) and light. (T21)
A
  1. Chemical
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2
Q
  1. _________________ is a measurement of kinetic energy. (T21)
A
  1. Temperature
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3
Q
  1. _____ is the movement of thermal energy from objects of higher temperature to those of lower temperature. (T21)
A
  1. Heat
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4
Q
  1. In the metric system used in technical literature, the Canadian fire service, and most of the rest of the world, _______ are the unit of measure for heat energy. (T22)
A
  1. Joules
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5
Q
  1. _______________— Unit of work or energy in the International System of Units; the energy (or work) when unit force (1 newton) moves a body through a unit distance (1 meter); takes the place of calorie for heat measurement (1 calorie =______ ). (T22)
A
  1. Joule (J). 4.19 J
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6
Q
  1. It takes ________ joules to raise the temperature of one kilogram (kg) of water one degree Celsius. (T22)
A
  1. 4,186 joules
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7
Q
  1. The U.S. fire service uses the customary system in which the unit of measure for heat energy is the_________________. (T22)
A
  1. British thermal unit (Btu)
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8
Q
  1. One Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. By comparison, 1 Btu equals approximately _________ joules. (T22)
A
  1. 1,100 joules
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9
Q
  1. British Thermal Unit (Btu) — Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. One Btu = _________kilo joules (kJ). (T22)
A
  1. 1.055 kilo joules
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10
Q
  1. The _________________ of any fuel determines its heat of combustion and has a significant influence on its energy or heat release rate (HRR). (T23)
A
  1. chemical content
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11
Q
  1. ** ___________________is usually expressed in either kilojoules/gram (kJ/g) or megajoules/kilogram (MJ/kg). (T23)
A
  1. Heat of combustion
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12
Q
  1. ___________________is thermal energy (heat) that could be generated by the combustion (oxidation) reaction if a fuel were completely burned. The _______________ is measured in British Thermal Units (Btu) per pound or calories per gram. (T23)
A
  1. Heat of combustion. Heat of combustion
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13
Q
  1. ________________________has a direct impact on the flow rate necessary for fire control and on whether a compartment fire will reach flashover. (T24)
A
  1. Heat release rate (HRR)
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14
Q
    • _____ is the energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns. This is usually expressed in kilowatts (kW) or megawatts (MW). HRR is dependent on the type, quantity, and orientation of the fuel. (T24)
A
  1. HRR
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15
Q
    • As smoke begins to accumulate in the compartment, it does so in a manner called_______________. _______________is the tendency of gases to stratify according to temperature. Other terms sometimes used to describe this tendency are heat stratification and thermal balance. (T26)
A
  1. thermal layering, Thermal layering
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16
Q
  1. ** The ceiling temperature approaches _____________°F during a rollover and the heat being radiated to the floor may be sufficient to ignite ordinary materials such as newspaper.
A
  1. 1,100 degrees
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17
Q
  1. ** If the concentration of flammable combustion and pyrolysis products is above the upper flammable limit, the temperature is above 1,100°F or another source of ignition is available, and ventilation is increased, a ____________ may occur. (T30)
A
  1. Back-draft
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18
Q
  1. ____________________is the actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on structural openings, construction type, and building ventilation systems. (T34)
A
  1. Existing ventilation
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19
Q
  1. When a fire starts, ___________________conditions dictate the actual exchange of products of combustion inside the building or compartment with outside air. (T34)
A
  1. existing ventilation
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20
Q
    • Responsibility for size-up and risk assessment is not limited to fire officers. Everyone on the fireground needs to develop and maintain a high level of situational awareness. One element of situational awareness is recognition of key_________________________. (T36)
A
  1. fire behavior indicators
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21
Q
    • Building features are indicators of potential fire behavior prior to ignition. During pre-incident planning surveys, firefighters should practice __________________under nonfire conditions to identify critical characteristics that are likely to influence fire behavior and structural stability under fire conditions. (T37)
A
  1. reading the building
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22
Q
    • The first of the critical building features is_______________. The type of building involved influences both fire behavior and structural stability under fire conditions. (T37)
A
  1. construction type
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23
Q
    • _______ refers to the movement of air toward burning fuel and the movement of smoke out of the compartment. (T40)
A
  1. Airflow
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24
Q
    • Nearing flashover, ________________becomes the dominant method of heat transfer, and the heat flux is sufficient to quickly raise the temperature of the fuel packages in the compartment to their ignition temperature. (T48)
A
  1. radiant heat
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25
Q
    • NFPA _______ prohibits the use of fuel such as polyurethane mattresses and requires removal of synthetic carpeting and pad due to the high heat of combustion and heat release rate of these types of materials. (T48) (NFPA ______ Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions.)
A
  1. NFPA 1403
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26
Q
    • Unlike ghosting or rollover, a ________________ involves ignition of a mixture of air and flammable combustion products that are already within the flammable range. (T54)
A
  1. smoke explosion
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27
Q
    • It is important to understand the ________________ related to extreme fire behavior such as flashover, backdraft, and smoke explosions. (T55)
A
  1. initiating events
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28
Q
    • The ___________________________________ were developed after reviewing a number of risk management models currently being used in the fire service. The three most prominent models considered were those developed by the Phoenix (AZ) Fire Department, NFPA® 1500, and the Ten Rules of Engagement for Structural Fire Fighting developed by the International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC). (T63)
A
  1. IFSTA Principles of Risk Management
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29
Q
    • Adapted from the British fire service, _________________________can be defined as: A continuous process of identifying hazards and risks and taking steps to eliminate or reduce them in the rapidly changing circumstances of an operational incident. (T63)
A
  1. Dynamic Risk Assessment
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30
Q
    • The _______________ of the Dynamic Risk Assessment model has two equally important components: organizational responsibilities and individual responsibilities.
A
  1. safe person element
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31
Q
    • A blue-ribbon committee of the International Association of Fire Chiefs studied a safety system that has been adopted by several industries and the U.S. military. The committee concluded that if the system were adopted by the fire service, the number of firefighter injuries and fatalities could be reduced. This comprehensive program is called______________________________. (T64)
A
  1. Crew Resource Management (CRM)
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32
Q
    • Heavy fire—no progress after _______minutes in wood or ordinary construction. (T70)
A
  1. 10-12 minutes
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33
Q
    • To help reduce the risk of firefighters being inside a burning building when it collapses, it is standard operating procedure in many departments to keep track of the elapsed time after the beginning of the initial attack. For example, in some departments the IC notifies dispatch when the initial attack begins, and dispatch announces the elapsed time at specified intervals — perhaps every _____ minutes. (T71)
A
  1. 5 minutes
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34
Q
    • If significant progress toward control and extinguishment has not been achieved after a specified number minutes, all interior crews are ordered out, the attack mode is changed from offensive to defensive, and a personnel accountability report (PAR) is ordered. Some departments that had previously established _____ minutes as the SOP for ordering all interior crews out have reduced that time significantly based on past experiences. (T71)
A
  1. 20 minutes
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35
Q
  1. Incident Management System = System described in NFPA ________, Standard on Fire Department Incident Management System, that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations. Such systems may also be referred to as Incident Command Systems (ICS). (T71)
A
  1. NFPA 1561
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36
Q
  1. ________________________= System by which facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications are organized to operate within a common organizational structure designed to aid in the management of resources at emergency incidents. (T71)
A
  1. Incident Command System (ICS)
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37
Q
  1. ** The use of an ____________________is required by NFPA® 1500, Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, and NFPA® 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System. (T73)
A
  1. Accountability system
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38
Q
  1. _______________= A magnesium silicate mineral that occurs as slender, strong flexible fibers. Breathing of _________dust causes __________and lung cancer. (T74)
A
  1. Asbestos, asbestos, asbestiosis
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39
Q
  1. _______________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of _____________________ causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2% _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (T74)
A
  1. Carbon Monoxide
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40
Q
  1. ________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory track and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. ________________ is a suspected carcinogen.(T74)
A
  1. Formaldehyde
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41
Q
  1. _________________ = Reddish brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (T74)
A
  1. Nitrogen dioxide
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42
Q
  1. _______________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and be deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to ______________ can cause eye irritation, respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).
A
  1. Particulates
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43
Q
  1. _______________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. __________ is toxic and corrosive and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (T74)
A
  1. Sulfur dioxide
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44
Q
    • A timely and accurate initial size-up, followed by a succession of subsequent assessments of the fireground situation, are critical safety elements. These practices are sometimes called_________________________ . (T74)
A
  1. Dynamic Risk Assessment
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45
Q
  1. ** While two firefighters may be sufficient to locate a firefighter in distress, it may take a _______________ firefighters to effect the rescue. (T80)
A
  1. A dozen or more
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46
Q
  1. ** Removing the wall between any two adjacent studs will only create an opening approximately ____ inches wide. (T86)
A
  1. 14 inches wide
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47
Q
    • Historically, the work that has come to be known as _______________ at structure fires was originally done by civilian salvage crews hired by fire insurance companies. (T93)
A
  1. loss control
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48
Q
    • _____________________can make firefighters more likely to miss subtle danger signs in the damaged structure such as creaking, cracking, or other sounds that might otherwise alert them to an impending structural collapse. __________________ reduces strength and coordination and slows reflexes — all of which increase the likelihood of injury while operating tools and equipment. _________ could make the firefighters less capable of reacting to and escaping from any dangerous situation that might suddenly develop. (T102)
A
  1. Mental exhaustion, Physical exhaustion, Fatigue
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49
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless but very pungent and irritating gas given off in the thermal decomposition of materials containing chlorine such as polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and other plastics. (T104)
A
  1. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
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50
Q
  1. ____________________— a strong respiratory irritant produced when polyethylene is heated and when items containing cellulose, such as wood and other natural materials smolder. It is used in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, herbicides, and tear gas. (T104)
A
  1. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)
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51
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless gas with a characteristic almond odor. Twenty times more toxic than CO, it is an asphyxiant and can be absorbed through the skin. _____ is produced in the combustion of natural materials, such as wool and silk, which contain nitrogen. It is also produced when polyurethane foam and other plastics that contain urea burn. The concentrated bulk chemical is also used in electroplating.(T104)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
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52
Q
  1. ____________________— a colorless, odorless, and nonflammable gas produced in free-burning fires. While it is nontoxic, ____ can asphyxiate by excluding the oxygen from a confined space. It is also a respiratory accelerant that can increase the intake of other toxic gases. (T104)
A
  1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
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53
Q
  1. _____________________— two toxic and dangerous gases liberated in the combustion of pyroxylin plastics. Because ____________readily converts to ________________in the presence of oxygen and moisture, _______________ is the substance of most concern to firefighters. _______________is a pulmonary irritant that can also have a delayed systemic effect. The vapors and smoke from the _______________have a reddish brown or copper color. (T104)
A
  1. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2), nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), oxides of nitrogen
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54
Q
  1. _____________________— a highly toxic, colorless gas with a disagreeable odor of musty hay. It may be produced when refrigerants, such as Freon, contact flame. ________ can be expected in fires in cold-storage facilities or in fires involving heavy-duty HVAC systems. It is a strong pulmonary irritant, the full harmful effect of which is not evident for several hours after exposure. (T104)
A
  1. Phosgene (CCl2O), phosgene
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55
Q
  1. If there are sufficient on-scene resources, firefighters should start salvage operations on the floor _______________as soon it is safe to do so.(T109)
A
  1. Below the fire
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56
Q
    • ______________________________is a free publication from the U.S. Fire Administration and is a good resource for those who have suffered a fire loss. (T117)
A
  1. After the Fire! Returning to Normal
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57
Q
  1. ** To ensure that ladders are safe to use when needed, firefighters must follow the maintenance procedures recommended by the ladder manufacturer, as prescribed in departmental SOPs, and as specified in NFPA _____, Standard on Use, Maintenance, and Service Testing of In-Service Fire Department Ground Ladders. (T125)
A
  1. NFPA 1932
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58
Q
    • The _________________ of a ladder is always shorter than its actual length because of the safe climbing and working angle. (T125)
A
  1. effective length
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59
Q
  1. ** As discussed in Essentials, the ideal climbing angle for ground ladders is____ degrees from horizontal. (T125)
A
  1. 75 degrees from horizontal
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60
Q
  1. ** At angles less than _____ degrees, the distance between personnel on the ladder should be increased. (T125)
A
  1. Less than 75 degrees
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61
Q
    • The __________________of a ladder in position is the vertical distance above the ground where the ladder contacts the building — not the full length of the ladder. (T126)
A
  1. used length
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62
Q
  1. The ladder selected must not only be long enough to reach the objective at a safe climbing angle, but must also extend ______ to _______ above any parapet or roof eave. (T126)
A
  1. three to five rungs
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63
Q
    • ______________________is needed when raising and extending ladders. (T127)
A
  1. Hand/eye coordination
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64
Q
    • _____________________is critical when calculating required ladder length and when positioning ladders. (T127)
A
  1. Depth perception
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65
Q
  1. Any firefighter fitness program should meet the requirements of the applicable NFPA® standards. ** The most relevant fitness related standards are NFPA______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program and NFPA _______, Standard on Health-Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members.
A
  1. NFPA 1500. NFPA 1583
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66
Q
  1. ** A minimum of _____ firefighters are required to raise a pole ladder, but adding a fifth or sixth firefighter to the team increases both safety and efficiency.
A
  1. Four
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67
Q
  1. ** If the window opening is wide enough to permit the ladder tip to project into it and still allow room beside it to facilitate entry/exit and rescue, the ladder can be placed so that it extends ____ or _____ rungs into the window opening. (T135)
A
  1. Two or three rungs
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68
Q
  1. In the absence of an aerial device, ground ladders are the primary means of gaining access to the roof of structures up to _______ stories in height. (T139)
A
  1. Four stories in height
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69
Q
  1. ** If the gap between the buildings is not more than ________ its length, a single ladder can be laid on the roof of one building and the tip simply slid over to the other building. (T142)
A
  1. One-third
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70
Q
  1. ** Size-up for a structure fire incident typically starts with the ______________. (T152)
A
  1. Initial dispatch
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71
Q
    • Because of differences in response times and differences in occupant loads, the need for laddering buildings and conducting search and rescue operations may increase or decrease because of the ______________________. (T153)
A
  1. day of the week
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72
Q
    • From the standpoint of truck company operations, the size-up recommended by the ______________________________________________is a reasonably good model. (T156)
A
  1. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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73
Q
  1. Frequent _____________ are the best way for firefighters to become familiar with the characteristics of the buildings in their response districts and to keep that knowledge current. (T162)
A
  1. surveys
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74
Q
  1. ** Both residential and commercial buildings constructed before the middle of the twentieth century commonly had high ceilings, some _____ feet or more, but many of them have since had dropped (false) ceilings installed during renovation. (T162)
A
  1. 10 feet or more
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75
Q
  1. ** If a firefighter crawling on the floor of a smoke-filled Victorian-style residence can touch the ceiling with a ___-foot pike pole, there is probably a false ceiling in that room. (T162)
A
  1. 6-foot pike pole
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76
Q
  1. ** A recent trend in residential construction in North America has been the emergence of extremely large dwellings compared to those built in the middle to late twentieth century. These single-family residences are commonly between ________ and _______ square feet, and some even larger. (T162)
A
  1. 5,000 to10,000
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77
Q
    • The main control valve on heavy-duty gas meters may simply be a larger version of the ____________________________common to residential and light commercial buildings. (T179)
A
  1. quarter-turn crossbar valve
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78
Q
  1. ** Evacuations should be made at least ___ mile away from a LPG tank that has the potential for BLEVE. (T182)
A
  1. At least ½ mile
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79
Q
    • Some industrial heaters or boilers use steam or air atomizers, but most residential units use mechanical atomizers. Considering that the oil pressure required for maximum efficiency ranges from _______ to ________ psi, any of these systems may be dangerous to firefighters who are unfamiliar with them. (T184)
A
  1. 600 to 1000 psi
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80
Q
  1. ** The DOT ERG 2008 recommends staging anywhere from ____ to ___ feet from the source of both LPG and natural gas leaks. (T185)
A
  1. 160 to 330 feet
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81
Q
  1. ** Since the LEL for natural gas is ____ percent (50,000 ppm), many fire departments establish the perimeter at ____ percent of that figure — 0.5 percent (5,000 ppm). However, because the lower explosive limit for propane is 1.5 percent (15,000 ppm), any reading above 0.15 percent (1500 ppm) may be too dangerous, and it may be advisable to locate control points where readings indicate a lower concentration. (T186)
A
  1. 5 percent. 10 percent
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5
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82
Q
    • A common error is to establish a perimeter that is too small. As described in Essentials, the recommended isolation distance is that equal to _________________ between the adjacent poles or towers in all directions from a break in a wire or the point of contact with the ground. (T193)
A
  1. one full span
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83
Q
    • When power from the normal utility source fails, some emergency generators may start automatically. If these units are not disconnected from the system, the power lines can be reenergized with ______ volts from the generators. (T195)
A
  1. 240 volts
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84
Q
  1. ** If extinguishing a fire on an upper floor of a 50 × 100-foot building results in 6 inches of water accumulating on the floor, the total weight of that water exceeds ____ tons (68 t). (T195)
A
  1. 75 tons
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85
Q
    • In some areas where property costs are very high, structures are built extremely close together to maximize land use. These ___________ structures often have a fire-resistive exterior, but prove to be extremely challenging to ladder, ventilate, or force entry. (T205)
A
  1. zero-lot structures
86
Q
  1. ** While wooden fences are found in many heights and styles, the majority consist of individual vertical boards nailed to horizontal wooden stringers between posts spaced about ____ feet apart. (T211)
A
  1. 8 feet
87
Q
  1. ** Because of personal security concerns, a growing number of upscale homes and even entire housing developments, called gated communities, are enclosed within masonry walls. Most of the walls are about ___ feet high and roughly ___ foot thick. (T211)
A
  1. 6 feet high. 1 foot thick
88
Q
  1. ** Scientifically controlled fire tests conducted by the NFPA® indicate that the time available for escape (TAE) from a burning building can be as little as ___ minutes after ignition due to heat buildup in a confined space such as a bedroom. (T219)
A
  1. 11 minutes after ignition
89
Q
  1. Replace 12-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn down more than the other teeth or when the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade. (T221)
A
  1. 2 or more teeth
90
Q
  1. Replace 24-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn excessively, or the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade. (T221)
A
  1. 8 or more teeth
91
Q
  1. Replace composite concrete or metal cutting blades when they have been worn down sufficiently for the blade to fit inside an ____-inch circle. (T221)
A
  1. 8 inch circle
92
Q
    • A rotary saw equipped with a metal-cutting blade is one of the best tools to use for forcing an inward-swinging metal door set in a metal frame. The blade can be plunged through the ________ or doorstop to cut the deadbolt. Or, the saw can be used to make two intersecting 45-degree cuts around the locking mechanism so that the door is free to open. (T224)
A
  1. Rabbet
93
Q
    • The triangular cut is most often made with a rotary saw equipped with a metal-cutting blade. In this type of cut, the base of the triangle is the bottom of the door, and the sides are formed by two 45-degree cuts. The apex of the triangle should be at least ___ feet high in the middle of the door, but the higher the better. (T231)
A
  1. 6 feet
94
Q
    • Triangular cuts are not recommended for ___________________ doors. (T231)
A
  1. Telescoping doors
95
Q
  1. ** If fire conditions inside an exterior roll-up or sheet-curtain door make a single cut in the center unsafe to use, an alternative is to make a horizontal cut across nearly the full width of the door, stopping about ___ foot from the doorframe on each side. This horizontal cut should be made about ___ feet above the bottom of the door. (T231)
A
  1. 1 foot. 6 feet
96
Q
  1. ** Lexan — Polycarbonate plastic used for windows. It has one-half the weight of an equivalent-sized piece of glass, yet is ___ times stronger than safety glass and ___ times stronger than ordinary glass. It cannot be broken using standard forcible entry techniques. (T239)
A
  1. 30 times. 250 times
97
Q
  1. ** A rotary saw with a _________________carbide-tipped blade is most effective when entry must be made through all types of plastic windows. (T240)
A
  1. medium (40 tooth)
98
Q
    • Double-hung (___________ ) windows.
A
  1. Checkrail
99
Q
    • Hinged (______________) windows.
A
  1. Casement
100
Q
    • Projected (____________) windows.
A
  1. Factory
101
Q
    • Awning and Jalousie windows.
A
  1. Awning and Jalousie windows.
102
Q
    • Hurricane windows.
A
  1. Hurricane windows.
103
Q
    • High-security windows.
A
  1. High-security windows.
104
Q
    • Double-course brick walls (also called_________________________) can usually be identified by certain bricks or courses being laid perpendicular to the other courses. In this____________________, which may be every fifth, sixth, or seventh course, the ends of the bricks are visible. (T245)
A
  1. unreinforced masonry [URM], header course
105
Q
  1. ** NFPA ___________, Recommended Practice for Pre-Incident Planning. (T255)
A
  1. NFPA 1620
106
Q
  1. ** Most imagers use one of two technologies —_______________technology, or ________________________________technology. (T260)
A
  1. Microbolometer. BST (barium, strontium, titanium)
107
Q
  1. ** Some imagers are designed primarily for locating the seat of a fire by being calibrated to respond to temperatures in excess of ____ °F. (T261)
A
  1. 900 degrees
108
Q
  1. Firefighters create ________________ by closing interior doors to isolate the fire and then remove heat and smoke from uninvolved areas with positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) or hydraulic ventilation. (T263)
A
  1. safe zones
109
Q
  1. When search teams must progress deep into large and complex buildings, their ___________________________must be maintained. This can be done by positioning hose teams at intervals along the line of retreat to cool the hot gas layer and maintain control of the exit corridor. (T264)
A
  1. line of retreat
110
Q
  1. ** Departmental SOPs usually dictate one accepted method of marking; however, all department personnel must be trained to understand and use whatever method is selected. Regardless of the marking method used, the marks should be placed on the ___________of the wall or door so they are more likely to be visible below the smoke layer. (T267)
A
  1. lower third
111
Q
  1. NFPA _____, Life Safety Code.
A
  1. NFPA 101
112
Q
  1. ** Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in 29 CFR 1910.134 state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of___________. (T274)
A
  1. Two or more
113
Q
  1. NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
A
  1. NFPA 1500
114
Q
  1. ** When searching large or complex spaces that are filled with smoke, some fire departments employ a primary search system that uses a dedicated search line. The search line consists of _____ feet of _____-inch rope with a Kevlar sheath for maximum abrasion protection and heat resistance. Every ___ feet along its length, a ___-inch steel ring is tied into the search line.
    The rings also provide an anchor point for lateral tethers. The lateral tethers are 20 foot lengths of 1⁄4-inch rope with a KevlarTM sheath. Each tether has a 3⁄4-inch steel ring tied to one end, a knot at the midpoint, and either a nonlocking carabiner or a snap hook on the other end. (T268)
A
  1. 200 feet. 3/8 inch rope. 20 feet. 2 inch steel ring
115
Q
  1. ** Implementing a primary search using a search line system requires a team with a minimum of _____ firefighters, although more is better. (T268)
A
  1. 3 firefighter
116
Q
  1. ** About ____ feet outside of the entry point (or as close as possible) to the area being searched, the end of the search line is tied to a fixed object about ____ feet above the floor. (T268)
A
  1. 10 feet. 3 feet
117
Q
  1. Some residential and commercial buildings are designed with sheltering in place as part of their life safety plan. The design of these buildings includes what are called_______________. (T271)
A
  1. Areas of refuge
118
Q
    • An _______________ is a protected location in a structure where occupants can gather and wait for assistance. (T271)
A
  1. Area of refuge
119
Q
    • SOP for some departments calls for firefighters to continue to use their SCBA until the atmosphere of the hazardous area is deemed to be within safe limits. As a way of defining what safe limits means in these situations, departments have historically used carbon monoxide (CO) as an_________________. (T272)
A
  1. Index gas
120
Q
    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in ______________________ state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of two or more. (T274)
A
  1. 29 CFR 1910.134
121
Q
  1. ** Under certain conditions, NFPA 1500 allows members of a RIC to perform other duties outside of the hazard zone as long as one member remains at the ___________. (T279)
A
  1. Entry point
122
Q
    • A critically important part of the ventilation size-up of a structure fire is coordinating the ventilation with other fireground operations — particularly with_________________. (T299)
A
  1. Rescue and fire attack
123
Q
    • Fire departments also use flexible ducting that is up to ___________in diameter, and is made of smooth, translucent plastic. This ducting has no steel reinforcement and is kept open by the pressure of the air being forced through it. To expel smoke from a compartment, an electrically driven blower must be positioned inside the compartment. (T313)
A
  1. 24 inches
124
Q
    • ___________________ are often flanked by double-hung or casement windows or are stacked with awning or hopper windows that can be opened.
A
  1. Fixed windows
125
Q
    • ______________ windows have one movable section; in ____________windows, both halves are movable.
A
  1. Single-hung, double-hung
126
Q
    • __________________windows are usually opened and closed using a small hand crank built into the frame. They have one or two side-hinged, outward- swinging sashes, and the screens are on the inside. Double-casement windows may be separated by a fixed pane or simply by a vertical post called a __________________.(T318)
A
  1. Casement, Mullion
127
Q
  1. *______________________________. These windows have two or more sashes, one of which is fixed and the other or others are movable. From the inside, the movable sash can often be lifted out of the frame without damaging the window. (T318)
A
  1. Horizontal-Sliding Windows
128
Q
  1. *_________________. These windows have one or more top-hinged, outward-swinging sashes. ________________windows are often combined with a fixed sash in a larger unit. (T318)
A
  1. Awning Windows, Single-awning
129
Q
  1. *____________________. These windows consist of narrow horizontal panes of glass set in pivoting brackets at each end. The panes overlap in a louver-like fashion. (T318)
A
  1. Jalousie Windows
130
Q
  1. *_____________________. These windows, also known as factory windows, may be hinged at the top or bottom and may swing inward or outward. (T319)
A
  1. Projected Windows
131
Q
    • _____________________ have bottom-hinged, inward-swinging sashes. These windows look like awning windows that have been installed upside down. (T319)
A
  1. Hopper windows
132
Q
  1. ** The most significant difference between telescoping doors and other types of service doors is that telescoping doors consist of two layers (skins) separated by at least ____ inches of air space. From the bottom of the door, the space between the inner and outer skins becomes progressively larger toward the top of the door. Depending upon the size of the door, the space between the inner and outer skin can be more than 13 inches. (T323)
A
  1. 2 inches of air space
133
Q
  1. ** Exterior masonry walls usually range from ___ to ___ inches or more in thickness, depending upon the material used. (T326)
A
  1. 8 to 12 inches
134
Q
    • As described in Chapter 11, some buildings have a foam veneer called an exterior insulation and finishing system (EIFS) that is applied to the outside for aesthetic purposes. The EIFS veneer may be as much as ______________ thick. (T326)
A
  1. One foot thick
135
Q
  1. ** For PPV, blowers are set up about ___ feet outside the point of entry into the building so the cone of air they create completely covers the inlet opening. (T333)
A
  1. 6 feet
136
Q
  1. ** Compared with mechanical smoke ejectors, fog streams are capable of removing ____________________ more smoke, depending on the type and size of the nozzle, the angle of the spray pattern, and the location of the nozzle in relation to the ventilation opening. (T336)
A
  1. Two to four times more smoke
137
Q
  1. ** A fog or spray stream directed through a window or doorway with a ___-degree pattern covering ___ to ___ percent of the opening provides the best results for ventilation. The ideal nozzle position will vary, but in most cases it should be about 2 feet inside the room being ventilated. Regardless of the size of the opening, the spray pattern should not exceed _____ degrees because it will lose efficiency at greater angles. (T336)
A
  1. 60 degree pattern. 80 to 90 percent of the opening. 60 degrees
138
Q
    • Firefighters must beware of the possibility of falling onto roofs from high parapet walls, of falling off roofs because of tripping over low parapets, and of poor footing on steep roofs. They must also be aware of the potentially dangerous levels of electrical power (up to ____volts DC, at up to ___ amps) inherent in rooftop solar panels. (T347)
A
  1. 600 volts, up to 8 amps
139
Q
  1. A key factor in opening roofs safely and efficiently is knowing the location and extent of the fire and the location and direction of the rafters. * Most roof assemblies employ a parallel rafter system with rafters spaced from __ to ___ inches on center, spanning the shortest distance between structural members or bearing walls. (T354)
A
  1. 12 to 24 inches
140
Q
  1. If a TIC is not available and all other signs indicate that the roof is stable, the roof should be sounded. * If sounding does not reveal the location and direction of the rafters, a diagonal cut through the roof covering can be made with a chain saw or rotary saw at an angle of ______ degrees to any exterior wall.(T354)
A
  1. 45 degrees to any exterior wall
141
Q
  1. ** While departmental SOPs must always be followed, it is recommended that a clear space of at least ___ feet be maintained in all directions from anyone using a cutting tool in vertical ventilation. (T355)
A
  1. 10 feet
142
Q
  1. ** A roof that decreases 5 inches vertically for each foot horizontally from the ridge would be described as a ___________roof, which is the most common pitch on residential roofs in areas with mild climates. (T361)
A
  1. Five-in-twelve roof
143
Q
  1. ** A roof designed to withstand a heavy snow load might have a ____________pitch (____-degree angle). (T361)
A
  1. Twelve-in-twelve pitch. 45 degree angle
144
Q
    • All rafters in ___________ run perpendicular to the nearest outside wall. (T363)
A
  1. Hip roofs
145
Q
    • The _____________ roof consists of a high gabled roof with a vertical wall above a downward-pitched shed roof section on either side. (T364)
A
  1. Lantern roof
146
Q
  1. ** Because it is difficult and time consuming to cut concrete roofs that are more than ___ inches thick, they are often designed with built-in access panels that can be lifted out in an emergency. (T374)
A
  1. 4 inches thick
147
Q
    • Poured gypsum roofs consist of bar joists or I-beams with brackets welded to the joists. Gypsum board is placed on the brackets and is covered with a layer of gypsum cement up to ______________ inches thick to which wire mesh reinforcement is added. (T374)
A
  1. 2 ½ inches
148
Q
    • Firefighters preparing to ventilate a flat roof should quickly but carefully _________the roof before stepping onto it. (^^Not SOUND^^) (T375)
A
  1. Observe
149
Q
    • Ventilation holes in _______ roofs should be cut parallel to the rafters and perpendicular to the outside walls of the building. (T378)
A
  1. Flat roofs
150
Q
  1. ** Typically, arches are spaced at ___ to ___ foot centers. (T379)
A
  1. 16 to 20 foot centers
151
Q
    • _______________ are used to counteract forces placed on the arch. (T380)
A
  1. Buttresses
152
Q
    • The ___________________ roof, commonly found in older buildings housing a variety of commercial or industrial occupancies, uses an arch with a wooden or metal bottom chord. The top chords of these arches are usually laminated 2 × 12-inch or larger lumber. (T380)
A
  1. bowstring truss
153
Q
    • _____________________ with steel tie rods have a history of early and sudden collapse when the tie rods are exposed to fire. (T381)
A
  1. Bowstring arches
154
Q
    • The ______________________ roof uses massive arches of steel, concrete, or laminated wood buttressed into the ground at each end. These arches may be spaced between 16 and 20 feet apart. (T382)
A
  1. trussless arch
155
Q
    • The lamella roof system shares many characteristics with the bowstring-type roofs, and the same operational and safety considerations apply. However, when ___ to ____ percent of a lamella roof burns away, sudden failure of the remainder of the roof is likely. (T382)
A
  1. 10 to 20 percent
156
Q
  1. ** Panelized roof construction consists of laminated beams of various sizes – commonly ____ × ____ inches – that span the length or width of the building. These beams are supported at their ends by_______________ , wooden or steel posts, or saddles. (T383)
A
  1. 6x36 inches, pilasters
157
Q
  1. Also known as_____________ , these extremely strong assemblies often consist of top and bottom chords that are each made of two angle irons set in opposing directions. (T386)
A
  1. bar joists
158
Q
  1. ** Wooden I-beams consist of three main components: a top chord, a bottom chord, and a solid _____-inch plywood or OSB web. (T388)
A
  1. 3/8 inch
159
Q
  1. ** Roof coverings are classified in NFPA ___, Guidelines on Roof Coverings and Roof Deck Construction.
A
  1. NFPA 203
160
Q
  1. ** Shakes and shingles are usually nailed to wooden 1- × 4-inch or 1- × 6-inch ___________________ with a space of about 1 inch between the planks. (T390)
A
  1. Plank sheathing
161
Q
    • __________________foams are applied to roofs in two forms. One is in the form of 4 × 8-foot sheets of foam insulation. The other form is called foamed-in-place applications. (T392)
A
  1. Urethane/isocyanate foams
162
Q
  1. ** Concrete, clay, or ceramic tile roofs use tiles that are usually flat, interlocking pieces that hook over 1- × 2-inch __________ (sometimes called_______________) nailed to the sheathing or directly to the rafters. (T393
A
  1. Battens. Furring strips
163
Q
  1. ** Because a 1/4-inch steel plate weighs about _____ pounds per square foot, a 20 × 50-foot roof would have approximately 10,000 pounds added to it. (T395)
A
  1. 10 pounds per square foot
164
Q
  1. ** The time required to enlarge an opening of inadequate size or to cut several smaller holes is greater than that required to make one large opening. One 8 × 8 foot opening is equal in area to ______ 4 × 4 foot holes. (T400)
A
  1. Four 4x4 foot holes
165
Q
    • To quickly and efficiently create a large ventilation exit opening in a lightweight roof, firefighters can use a method some call__________________. This technique requires four firefighters – two with chain saws and two with rubbish hooks – working in unison. (T402)
A
  1. rolling back the roof
166
Q
  1. ** Trench ventilation is accomplished by cutting an opening in the roof, at least ___ feet wide, across the entire width of the building. (T400)
A
  1. 4 feet wide
167
Q
  1. ** A fully equipped firefighter, especially one wearing a full tool belt or carrying spare air tanks, can weigh more than _____ pounds.(T411)
A
  1. 300 pounds
168
Q
  1. ** Most PPV blowers positioned at street level are effective up to about ______ floors.(T414)
A
  1. Up to 22 floors
169
Q
  1. ** Assuming that the structure is closed, with little or no gases being vented to the atmosphere, a neutral pressure plane exists at the level of ambient atmospheric pressure (usually between ____ percent and ____ percent of the building height). (T419)
A
  1. 35 and 50 percent of the building height
170
Q
  1. ** The standard that provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke and heat venting equipment, NFPA ______, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, recommends using automatic heat-activated roof vents and curtain boards. (T425)
A
  1. NFPA 204
171
Q
  1. *____________, also known as draft curtains, are fire-resistive half-walls that extend down from the underside of the roof. They generally extend a distance equal to at least _________percent of the vertical distance from the floor to the roof but not lower than 10 feet above the floor. (T427)
A
  1. Curtain boards, 20 percent
172
Q
  1. ** In_____, Homeland Security Presidential Directive-___, Management of Domestic Incidents, was issued. (T435)
A
  1. 2003, presidential directive 5
173
Q
  1. HSPD-5 directed the U.S. Secretary of Homeland Security to develop and administer a National Response Plan, later renamed the________________________________. (T435-6)
A
  1. National Response Framework
174
Q
  1. ** Extraordinary control measures may be necessary in _____________(those involving large-scale building-to-building spread) that may involve an entire city block, and ______________ (huge fires that cross streets, highways, rivers, or other natural fire breaks) that may engulf entire neighborhoods. (T441)
A
  1. Group fires. Conflagrations (GROUP FIRES! Not deflagrations)
175
Q
  1. (CH2=CHCHO)
A
  1. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)
176
Q
  1. (HCl)
A
  1. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
177
Q
  1. (HCN)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
178
Q
  1. (CO2)
A
  1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
179
Q
  1. (NO and NO2)
A
  1. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2)
180
Q
  1. (CCl2O)
A
  1. Phosgene (CCl2O)
181
Q
  1. FLASH POINT OF GASOLINE IS: _____ degrees F.
A
  1. -45
182
Q
  1. FIRE POINT OF GASOLINE IS: ____________ degrees F.
A
  1. -40 to -35
183
Q
  1. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______ present a significant flammability hazard.
A
  1. 100° F
184
Q
  1. Methane (Natural Gas) vapor density & ignition temp. = ___________.
A
  1. 0.55 & 1,004 F
185
Q
  1. Propane (LPG) vapor density & ignition temp = ______.
A
  1. 1.52 & 842 F
186
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide vapor density and ignition temp = __________.
A
  1. 0.96 & 1,128 F
187
Q
  1. The driver/operator is not protected from the legal consequences of driving with __________________for the safety of others.
A
  1. reckless disregard
188
Q
  1. *____________________— An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any potential consequences of so doing. _______________________, while not necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm, is a harsher condition than ordinary negligence.
A
  1. Reckless Disregard, reckless disregard
189
Q
  1. ___________ is usually found when the driver/operator has been found guilty of a gross violation of standing laws, policies, or ordinances.
A
  1. Negligence
190
Q
  1. *______________— Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances.
A
  1. Negligence
191
Q
  1. Driving under the influence of alcohol is not only an example of____________, but ______________as well.
A
  1. gross negligence but recklessness as well.
192
Q
  1. *____________ — Willful and wanton disregard.
A
  1. Gross Negligence
193
Q
  1. ____________________ — Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.
A
  1. Angle of approach
194
Q
  1. *____________________— Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.
A
  1. Angle of departure
195
Q
  1. *___________________— Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint.
A
  1. Breakover angle
196
Q
  1. *At speeds above___________, an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device.
A
  1. 50 mph
197
Q
  1. *In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by ________ or more.
A
  1. 250 feet or more
197
Q
    • The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is_________________.
A
  1. visual lead time
198
Q
    • The ________________is the distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.
A
  1. braking distance
199
Q
    • After perceiving the need to stop the vehicle, the driver/operator’s ____________________is the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal.
A
  1. reaction distance
200
Q
    • The __________________ is the sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance.
A
  1. total stopping distance
201
Q
    • _______— To shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus. (P141)
A
  1. Relay
202
Q
    • ________ may be established as an area from which large numbers of personnel and quantities of equipment may be deployed. This area serves as the primary point outside the incident area to which responding units report and receive initial orders for action.
A
  1. Base
203
Q
  1. ________ — Location at which the primary Incident Management Logistics functions are coordinated and administered; the Incident Command Post may be co-located with the______. There is only one _____ per incident.
A
  1. Base
204
Q
  1. A series of tubes and hoses supply hydraulic fluid throughout the system. Most manufacturers use steel tubing and aircraft-type, steel-braided hose. Hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least _____ times greater than normal operating pressure. (P548.)
A
  1. Four times greater
205
Q
  1. Step 20: Note any sounds of air leaking, position of needles. After one minute, air pressure should not drop more than ___ psi for straight-chassis vehicles or ___ psi for tractor-drawn aerial apparatus. (P61)
A
  1. 3 psi, 4psi
206
Q
    • Extinguishing the fire is a natural extension of the ____________tactic. (S207)
A
  1. Confinement
207
Q
  1. Step 21: With engine off and master switch on, pump brake pedal continually lowers air tank pressure. Warning light and buzzer should activate before __ psi. (P61)
A
  1. 60 psi
208
Q
  1. Step 22: After step 21 is complete, with parking brake released, continue to pump brake pedal until air brake control sets automatically by the button popping out. NOTE: The button should pop out between ___ and ____ psi. (P61)
A
  1. 20 and 40 psi
209
Q
  1. Step 23: Start engine and let air pressure build up to normal. NOTE: Air pressure should build to ____ - _____ psi in __ sec at full engine RPM. (P61)
A
  1. 85 – 100 psi in 45 sec
210
Q
  1. Step 24: When the needle stops climbing, the air compressor has cut out. NOTE: The needle should stop climbing between ___ and ___ psi.
A
  1. 120 and 130 psi
211
Q
  1. Step 25: Apply the brake pedal, lowering the pressure in the tanks by __ to __ psi increments stopping at 85 psi. Ensure that the air gauge needle begins to indicate a pressure increase following the test.
A
  1. 5 to 10 psi

Matts Driver Bible (12 decks)

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