Matt's Initial Driver Bible

Question 1

1. NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, contains the requirements of pumper design. The standard specifies a minimum pump capacity of ____ gpm and a water tank with a capacity of at least ____ gallons. Pump 14.

Answer 1

1. 750. 300

Question 2

2. Pump capacities larger than 750 gpm increase in increments of ____ gpm with most municipal fire departments operating pumpers of _______ gpm or less. Pump 14.

Answer 2

2. 250. 2000

Question 3

3. The foam proportioning systems commonly found on municipal fire pumpers are scaled down versions of those used for industrial fire pumpers. Likewise, the foam tanks are correspondingly smaller, usually ranging from ___ to ____ gallons. Pump 16.

Answer 3

20 to 100

Question 4

4. TQ** The articulating or telescoping devices most commonly combined with pumpers generally range in height from ____to ____ feet. Pump 16.

Answer 4

4. 50 to 75

Question 5

5. Mini-Pumper. — Small fire apparatus mounted on a pickup-truck-sized chassis, usually with a pump having a rated capacity less than _____ gpm. Its primary advantage is speed and mobility, which enables it to respond to fires more rapidly than larger apparatus. Pump 16.

Answer 5

5. 500

Question 6

6. Midi-Pumper. — Apparatus sized between a mini-pumper and a full-sized fire department pumper, usually with a gross vehicle weight of _______ pounds or greater. The midi-pumper has a fire pump with a rated capacity generally not greater than _____ gpm. Pump 16.

Answer 6

6. 12,000. 1000

Question 7

7. Mobile water supply apparatus, as stated in NFPA® 1901, Chapter 7, are equipped with a tank capacity of at least _______ gallons. Pump 17.

Answer 7

7. 1000

Question 8

8. Specially designed wildland apparatus are often mounted on ______or larger chassis, usually featuring all-wheel drive. Pump 19.

Answer 8

8. one-ton

Question 9

9. Commonly known as brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus, these vehicles often have pump capacities and water tanks of _____ gallons or less. However, some jurisdictions operate larger apparatus with pumps up to 1,000 gpm and water tanks of 1,000 gallons or larger. Pump 19.

Answer 9

9. 500

Question 10

IFSTA does not recommend riding on the outside of the apparatus, and this practice is prohibited by NFPA ______ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

Answer 10

10. NFPA 1500. Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

Question 11

11. Requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in NFPA _______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Fire-Fighting Vehicles. Pump 20.

Answer 11

11. NFPA 414

Question 12

Some fireboats have capacities as high as __________ gpm. Pump 21.

Answer 12

12. 50,000

Question 13

A quint is an apparatus equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders. According to the NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, the vehicle must be equipped with a pump rated at a minimum of _______ gpm and a water tank of at least _______ gallons. Pump 22.

Answer 13

13. 1000, 300

Question 14

Portable generators are available with a variety of power capacities; _________watts is typically the largest capacity. Pump 23.

Answer 14

14. 5,000

Question 15

Rescue apparatus or other specialized units may feature fixed generator systems with capacities of ___________ watts or greater. Pump 23.

Answer 15

15. 50,000

Question 16

Ranging from _______to _______watts, portable lights are advantageous during incidents where illumination is needed some distance away from a piece of apparatus, or where additional lights are required. Pump 23.

Answer 16

16. 300 to 1000

Question 17

17. Driver/ operators in many jurisdictions are required to perform these routine maintenance checks and functions. NFPA _______ also requires that driver/operators be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks. Pump 29.

Answer 17

17. NFPA 1002

Question 18

18. NFPA®___________, Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications, provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus mechanics and fire department maintenance officers. Pump 29.

Answer 18

18. NFPA 1071

Question 19

19. TQ**___________________________— Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in place, clean, and ready for service. Pump 36.

Answer 19

19. Operational Readiness Inspection

Question 20

20. ______________________________— A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition. Pump 36.

Answer 20

20. Pre-trip Road Worthiness Inspection

Question 21

21. ____________________— An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly. Pump 36.

Answer 21

21. Functional Check

Question 22

22. CAUTION: Diesel exhaust may contain up to _______ harmful chemicals and compounds. Pump 37.

Answer 22

22. 100

Question 23

NFPA® 1911 requires that all tires be replaced every _______ years, regardless of their condition. Pump 39.

Answer 23

23. Seven

Question 24

24. In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately _______degrees in either direction. Pump 40.

Answer 24

24. 10

Question 25

25. On a 20-inch diameter steering wheel, the play may be about ______ inches in either direction. Pump 41.

Answer 25

25. 2

Question 26

Per NFPA® 1901 and 1911, a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed ______ percent. Pump 42.

Answer 26

26. Seven

Question 27

27. Most commercial and private vehicles built since 1990 are equipped with____________________________. Pump 42.

Answer 27

27. Anti-Lock Braking Systems

Question 28

28. Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below ______ psi. Pump 43.

Answer 28

28. 80

Question 29

29. In addition to a DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after-treatment system called____________________________. Pump 45.

Answer 29

29. Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR)

Question 30

30. NFPA®_______ , Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver⁄Operator Professional Qualifications, has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/ operators. Pump 79.

Answer 30

30. NFPA 1002

Question 31

A periodic medical evaluation, in accordance with the NFPA_______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, should be administered under the direction of the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) in order to establish and maintain a driver/operator’s fitness for duty. Pump 82.

Answer 31

31. NFPA 1500

Question 32

32. NFPA ________, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments, provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye. Pump 82.

Answer 32

32. NFPA 1582

Question 33

33. NFPA _________ contains a list of frequencies that a driver/ operator must be able to hear and recommends rejecting a candidate who has hearing loss among those frequencies. Pump 82.

Answer 33

33. NFPA 1582

Question 34

34. In a study conducted by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), it was determined that in _____ percent of all collisions, the driver/operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct. Pump 88.

Answer 34

34. 42 percent

Question 35

35. NFPA ________, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, and NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, establish requirements for seat belt use on the apparatus. Pump 90.

Answer 35

35. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1500

Question 36

36. Beginning with engines produced in_________, apparatus began to be equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF). Pump 94.

Answer 36

36. 2007

Question 37

37. After a driver/operator continues to ignore an empty DEF tank, the apparatus may be limited in speed to _______ mph and will need service from the dealer. Pump 95.

Answer 37

37. 5 mph

Question 38

38. TQ** Weigh the apparatus after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that the axle loading is balanced within _______ percent from side to side and within the axle weight ratings front-to-back. Pump 98.

Answer 38

38. 7 percent

Question 39

39. There are ________ locations in the U.S. where there is less than 100 feet following the railroad tracks.

Answer 39

39. 19,824 locations

Question 40

40. It may take ____to ____ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement. Pump 99.

Answer 40

40. 3 to 15 times greater

Question 41

41. At speeds above _____ mph , an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device. Pump 101.

Answer 41

41. 50 mph

Question 42

42. In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by _____ feet or more. Pump 101.

Answer 42

42. 250 feet or more

Question 43

43. *When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel at least ________to _______ feet apart. Pump 101.

Answer 43

43. 300 to 500 feet

Question 44

44. NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _________ lb or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system. Pump 109.

Answer 44

44. 36,000 lb

Question 45

45. TQ** The ____________is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices. Pump 110.

Answer 45

45. Exhaust brake

Question 46

46. ** When preparing to back the apparatus, the spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver/operator, preferably in the left (driver’s side) mirror, approximately ___ to ____ feet behind and slightly to the left of the apparatus. Pump 114.

Answer 46

46. 8 to 10 feet

Question 47

47. At 5 mph, ______feet of hose is pulled out each second. Pump 120.

Answer 47

47. 7 feet

Question 48

48. TQ** NFPA 1901 specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet. The bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force of up to _____ times the equipment’s weight. Pump 120.

Answer 48

48. Ten times

Question 49

49. High pressure hydraulic fluid at pressures as low as _____ psi can penetrate skin. Pump 122.

Answer 49

49. 100 psi

Question 50

50. Apparatus may be equipped with manually applied tire chains or automatic chains featuring short lengths of chain on a rotating hub in front of each drive wheel. The hubs swing down into place upon activation from the cab. The hub with chains attached is driven by the drive wheel and the lengths of chain are spun under the tire by centrifugal force. These chains maybe ineffective in snow deeper than ___to ___ inches depending on consistency of the snow, or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds, or in reverse.

Answer 50

50. 3 to 6 inches

Question 51

51. Depending on the incident, apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within _____ feet of the base of a high-rise fire may need to be protected from falling glass and debris. Pump 139.

Answer 51

51. 200 feet

Question 52

52. In tandem pumping operations apparatus may be located up to _____ feet apart. Pump 146.

Answer 52

52. 300 feet

Question 53

53. NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and the Service Testing of Fire Hose, contains test pressures for various types of fire hose. Pump 146.

Answer 53

53. NFPA 1962

Question 54

54. Because it is not always possible to stop the flow of trains on a track during emergency operations and it may require _____ to _____ miles for a fully loaded train to make a complete stop, fire apparatus should never position on railroad tracks. Pump 154.

Answer 54

54. One to two miles

Question 55

55. Apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least _____ feet from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on the railroad cars. Pump 154.

Answer 55

55. 30 feet

Question 56

56. TQ** Water’s density, or its weight per unit of volume, is measured in pounds per cubic foot. For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh ____lb/ft3 gal or _____ lb/gal. Pump 167.

Answer 56

56. 62.4 lb/ft3 gal or 8.3 lb/gal

Question 57

57. Methylene Chlorides’ specific gravity is _____. Pump 168.

Answer 57

57. 1.33

Question 58

58. Gasoline’s specific gravity is _____-_____. Pump 168.

Answer 58

58. 0.72-0.76

Question 59

At 212°F (100°C), water converted to steam occupies approximately ______ times its original volume, helping to dissipate heat in a well-vented room. Pump 169.

Answer 59

59. 1,700 times

Question 60

60. Shut down the engine immediately if oil pressure gauge does not fall within manufacturers recommendations within ____to _____ seconds. Pump 125.

Answer 60

60. 5 to 10 seconds

Question 61

61. The ________ at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe is determined by the pressure upon that fluid as well as the size of the orifice through which it is flowing. Pump 172.

Answer 61

61. Speed

Question 62

62. ______ principles determine the action or pressure on fluids. Pump 172.

Answer 62

62. Six

Question 63

First Principle.
63. Fluid pressure is __________________to any surface on which it acts.
Pressure exerted by the weight of the water is _____________________ to the walls of the container.

Answer 63

63. Perpendicular, perpendicular

Question 64

Second Principle.
64. Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same ___________ in all directions.
This principle is used in hydrostatic testing.

Answer 64

64. Intensity

Question 65

Third Principle.
65. Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted __________ in all directions.

Answer 65

65. Equally

Question 66

Fourth Principle.
66. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its_________.

Answer 66

66. Depth

Question 67

Fifth Principle.
67. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the ________ of the liquid.

Answer 67

67. Density

Question 68

Sixth Principle.
68. The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is _____________ of the shape of the vessel.

Answer 68

68. Independent

Question 69

69. A common method of measuring atmospheric pressure is by comparing the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of__________. When observing a vertical cylinder, the greater the atmospheric pressure, the taller the column of ______________. A pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about 2.04 inches tall. At sea level, the column of mercury is 2.04 x 14.7, or ______ inches tall. Pump 174.

Answer 69

69. Mercury.
    mercury.
    29.9 inches tall.

Question 70

70. Head — Alternate term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation. For every 1-foot increase in elevation, _______ psi is gained. Also known as Head Pressure. Pump 175.

Answer 70

70. 0.434

Question 71

71. To convert head in feet to head pressure, you must divide the number of feet by ______(the number of feet that 1 psi will raise a one square inch column of water). Pump 175.

Answer 71

71. 2.304

Question 72

72. Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ psi for every 1,000 feet. Pump 176.

Answer 72

72. 0.5 psi

Question 73

73. The friction loss in older hose may be as much as _____ percent greater than that of new hose.

Answer 73

73. 50 percent

Question 74

74. First Principle.
    If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the ______ of the hose or pipe.

Answer 74

74. Length

Question 75

75. Second Principle.
    When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the ___________ of the increase in the velocity of the flow.
    NOTE: Velocity is proportional to flow.

Answer 75

75. Square

Question 76

76. Third Principle.
    For the same discharge, friction loss varies __________ as the ______ power of the diameter of the hose.

Whenever possible the driver/operator, in conjunction with the unit officer, should consider using larger diameter hose sizes to reduce friction loss.

Answer 76

76. Inversely,
    fifth power

Question 77

77. Fourth Principle.
    For a given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the _________ on the water.

Answer 77

77. Pressure

Question 78

78. With water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of _________ psi is required to reduce its volume one percent. Pump 179.

Answer 78

78. 30,000 psi

Question 79

79. The _______________________________is the average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

Answer 79

79. average daily consumption (ADC)

Question 80

80. The _____________________________ is the maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24-hour interval within a 3-year period.

Answer 80

80. maximum daily consumption (MDC)

Question 81

81. The _______________________________is the maximum amount of water used in any 1-hour interval over the course of a day. Pump 188.

Answer 81

81. peak hourly consumption (PHC)

Question 82

82. A fog stream may be produced by_____________________, by_____________________, or a combination of these methods.

Answer 82

82. deflection at the periphery,
    impinging jets of water

Question 83

83. Most constant flow nozzles feature a ____________________stream and are equipped with an adjustable pattern range

Answer 83

83. periphery-deflected stream

Question 84

84. Most constant flow nozzles are designed to operate at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi.

Answer 84

84. 100 psi

Question 85

85. Nozzles for use on handlines may be solid, fog, or broken stream design, ranging in size from a ____inch “booster” nozzle to a nozzle suitable for a ___inch diameter hoseline. Page 199.

Answer 85

85. ¾ inch, 3 inch

Question 86

86. Operating at a pressure of up to _____ psi, high pressure fog nozzles produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery.

Answer 86

86. 800 psi

Question 87

87. Featuring a stream of fast-moving, fine spray, high-pressure fog nozzles may use an impinging stream. These nozzles are best suited for wildland fires and are not recommended for structural fire fighting due to their low water flow of only ____ to _____ gpm.

Answer 87

87. 8 to 15 gpm

Question 88

88. The piercing nozzle is generally designed as ___ to ___ foot hollow steel rod _____ inches in diameter.

Answer 88

88. 3 to 6 foot, 1 ½ inches in diameter

Question 89

89. Flowing only ____ to _____ gpm at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi, the impinging holes of the chimney nozzle produce a very fine mist which turns to steam in the hot interior of the chimney flue. Pump 201.

Answer 89

89. 1.5 to 3 gpm, 100 psi

Question 90

90. As water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure, a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline. This force, called nozzle reaction, illustrates Newton’s ________ Law of Motion: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer 90

90. Third law of motion

Question 91

91. TQ** When two hoselines of equal length are Siamesed to supply a fire stream, friction loss is approximately _____ percent less than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure.

Answer 91

91. 25 percent

Question 92

92. The following are safe and efficient nozzle pressures for common fire streams:
    Solid stream nozzle (handline) = ___ psi
    Solid stream nozzle (master stream) = ___ psi
    Fog nozzle = ____ psi
    Low pressure fog nozzle = ___ or ___ psi.

Answer 92

50
80
100
50 or 75

Question 93

93. Based on the NFPA 1901 standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a pressure gauge shall also be provided. These flowmeters must display flow in increments of _____ gpm or less. Pump 282.

Answer 93

93. 10 gpm

Question 94

94. With proper calibration, a flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus ____ percent.

Answer 94

94. 3 percent

Question 95

95. Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ______ inches of the control valve for that discharge. If a pressure gauge is mounted at the ___-inch location, then the flowmeter must be mounted within _____ inches adjacent to the pressure gauge.

Answer 95

95. 6 inches.
    6 inch.
    2 inches.

Question 96

Driver/operators must be aware of the margin of difference when using the Condensed Q formula. Although sufficient for many fireground calculations, the friction loss results will be ________ percent greater than when using the FL= CQ2L formula.

Answer 96

96. 20 percent greater

Question 97

97. TQ** ___________________are constructed with moveable elements that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used.

Answer 97

97. Rotary Vane pumps

Question 98

98. Pumps used in the fire service constructed with a single impeller are referred to as single-stage centrifugal pumps. These may consist of front-mount pumps, power take off, auxiliary engine driven, and midship pumps that use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to _______ gpm.

Answer 98

98. 2,250 gpm

Question 99

99. When the pump transfer valve is in the _______ position, each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. Each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing _____percent of its rated capacity; therefore, the total amount of water the pump can deliver is equal to the sum of the stages.

Answer 99

99. Volume. 50 percent

Question 100

100. When the transfer valve is set in the ________position, all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller. Depending on the specific pump, the first stage increases the pressure and discharges ____ to ____ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the eye of the second impeller.

Answer 100

100. Pressure position. 50 to 70 percent

Question 101

101. In the parallel mode, the pump will be capable of supplying 100 percent of its rated capacity at _____ psi at _____ feet of lift with ____ feet of suction hose while drafting.

Answer 101

101. 150 psi. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of suction hose

Question 102

102. Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressures as high as _____ psi.

Answer 102

102. 200 psi

Question 103

103. In the past, conventional PTO units were limited to powering pumps up to approximately ____ gpm. However, some manufacturers now provide full torque power take-offs that allow for the installation of pumps as large as ______ gpm. Pump 308.

Answer 103

103. 500 gpm. 1,250 gpm

Question 104

104. With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers will indicate between ____ to ____ mph.

Answer 104

104. 10 to 15 mph

Question 105

105. The piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of ______ psi before being placed into service. Pump 312.

Answer 105

105. 500 psi

Question 106

106. According to NFPA® 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 gpm or less should have piping capable of flowing _____ gpm.

Answer 106

106. 250 gpm

Question 107

107. Pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm should be able to flow at least _____ gpm.

Answer 107

107. 500 gpm

Question 108

108. TQ** Many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump piping as large as ____ inches in diameter.

Answer 108

108. 4 inches

Question 109

109. Pumps rated greater than ______gpm capacity may require more than one large intake connection at each location. Pump 314.

Answer 109

109. 1,500 gpm

Question 110

110. As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of ___ gpm or greater must be equipped with at least ____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharges. Pumps rated less than ____ gpm are required to have only _____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharge.

Answer 110

110. 750 gpm, Two, 750 gpm, one

Question 111

111. A minimum of ______-inch piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1⁄2-, 1 3⁄4-, or 2-inch handlines are attached.

Answer 111

111. 2 inch

Question 112

112. All valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operable at pressures of up to _____ psi.

Answer 112

112. 250 psi

Question 113

113. According to NFPA® 1901, apparatus equipped with tanks of less than 1,000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least _____-inch in diameter. Tanks greater than 1,000 gallons must be provided with at least a _____-inch tank fill line.

Answer 113

113. 1 inch. 2 inch

Question 114

114. NFPA® 1901 requires that all intakes or discharges that are _____ inches or greater be equipped with slow acting valve controls.

Answer 114

114. 3 inches or greater

Question 115

115. TQ** NFPA® 1901 requires some type of pressure control device to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system. This device must operate within _______to ______ seconds after the discharge pressure rises and restricts the pressure from exceeding ______ psi above the set level. Pump 318.

Answer 115

115. 3 to 10 seconds. 30 psi above

Question 116

116. It is generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ psi above the necessary operating pressure.

Answer 116

116. 10 psi above

Question 117

117. The electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below ____ psi. Pump 321.

Answer 117

117. Below 30 psi

Question 118

118. The operator manual supplied by the fire pump manufacturer should specify the preferred engine speed (rpm) for priming but, in general, the range is between ______ to _____ rpm. Activate the primers with the engine at idle speed and then increase the throttle to the specified rpms.

Answer 118

118. 1000 to 1,200 rpm

Question 119

119. The master intake gauge (vacuum or compound gauge) is connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive pressure or a vacuum. This gauge is usually calibrated from ____ to ____ psi of positive pressure and from ____ to ____ inches of mercury (vacuum) on the negative side.

Answer 119

119. 0 to 600 psi, 0 to 30 inches of mercury

Question 120

120. When the vacuum reading approaches _____ inches, the pump is nearing its capacity and is not able to supply additional lines.

Answer 120

120. 20 inches

Question 121

121. Driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi on their master intake gauge at all times during pumping operations.

Answer 121

121. 20 psi

Question 122

122. Water supply systems must maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi within their mains for several reasons; contamination from sources outside the main may occur if the pressure in the main drops too low.

Answer 122

122. 20 psi

Question 123

123. The ability to overcome losses in pressure is limited to atmospheric pressure at sea level (_____ psi or _____ inches Hg). Pump 352.

Answer 123

123. 14.7 psi. or 30 imches Hg

Question 124

124. This pressure (atmospheric pressure) decreases approximately 0.5 psi or 1 inch of Hg for each 1,000 feet of altitude gain. In a city located 5,000 feet above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is _____ psi.

Answer 124

124. 12.2 psi

Question 125

Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately _____ inches of mercury (Hg).

Answer 125

125. 22 inches of mercury

Question 126

126. When using a portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operations, a low-level strainer is the appliance of choice. These strainers are designed to sit directly on the bottom of a tank or pool and allow water to be effectively drafted down to a depth of approximately ___ inches.

Answer 126

126. 2 inches

Question 127

127. Water temperature will also affect drafting operations. Water below ____°F or above ____°F may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity. Pump 356.

Answer 127

127. 35. 90

Question 128

128. __________________to a water source is an important factor in selecting a drafting site. Because drafting is accomplished by evacuating air from the pump and allowing atmospheric pressure to push the water into it, a maximum of ______ psi is available.

Answer 128

128. Accessibility. 14.7 psi

Question 129

129. All fire pumps meeting NFPA and Underwriter’s Laboratories Inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at _____ feet of lift. Pump 357.

Answer 129

129. 10 feet of lift

Question 130

130. A pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of ____ feet.

Answer 130

130. 25 feet

Question 131

131. To create an effective fire stream, a lift of no greater than ______ feet is recommended. Working with this lift, the pump operates at about ______ percent of its rated capacity.

Answer 131

131. 20. 60 percent.

Question 132

132. Most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between ______ and ______ rpm.

Answer 132

132. 1,000 to 1,200 rpm

Question 133

133. The entire priming action typically requires ____ to ____ seconds from start to finish. However, when up to 20 feet of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 vertical feet, it may take as long as ______ seconds (45 seconds in pumps larger than 1250 gpm) to accomplish this.

Answer 133

133. 10 to 15 seconds.
     30 seconds

Question 134

134. When specific information is unavailable, driver/operators should pump ____ psi into the FDC when supporting automatic sprinkler systems.

Answer 134

134. 150 psi

Question 135

135. Add approximately ___ psi for each floor above the fire department connection that will have operating fire streams.

Answer 135

135. 5 psi

Question 136

136. Do not use pump discharge pressures in excess of ______ psi unless the standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressures.

Answer 136

136. 185 psi

Question 137

137. When a standpipe system is known to be equipped with pressure-reducing valves, the elevation pressure used must be based on the_________________________________________________.

Answer 137

137. total height of the standpipe or zone being used

Question 138

138. Pressure-Reducing Valve — Valve installed at standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to a specific pressure, usually _____ psi.

Answer 138

138. 100 psi

Question 139

139. An external standpipe may also be created by hoisting up, or rolling hose down the outside of a building, securing it inside every ______ or ______ floors.

Answer 139

139. Two or three floors

Question 140

140. Theoretical Lift — Theoretical, scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level, this height is _______ feet. The height will decrease as elevation increases. Pump 404.

Answer 140

140. 33.9 feet

Question 141

141. For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately _____psi.

Answer 141

141. 0.5 psi

Question 142

142. In the fire service, _______________ is defined as the greatest height to which any amount of water may be raised through an intake hose to the pump.

Answer 142

142. Maximum lift

Question 143

143. In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately ______feet.

Answer 143

143. 25 feet

Question 144

144. _____________________ — Height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow. Lift may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump, taking into consideration the atmospheric pressure and friction loss within the hard suction hose; ________________ is usually considered to be ______ feet.

Answer 144

144. Dependable lift.
     Dependable lift.
     14.7 feet

Question 145

145. All fire department pumping apparatus are rated when drafting with a minimum lift of ____ feet from the center of a pump intake to the surface of water through ____ feet of hard intake hose. A strainer is submerged at least ___ feet in a water depth of at least ___ feet.

Answer 145

145. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of hose. 2 feet. 4 feet

Question 146

146. As the lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, the water supply capability of the pump decreases. The pump may only deliver about ____ percent of its capacity if lift is increased by 5 feet , to a 15-foot lift, and ____ percent at a 20 foot lift.

Answer 146

146. 70 percent. 60 percent.

Question 147

147. Floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to ____ gpm.

Answer 147

147. 500 gpm

Question 148

148. Although lesser depths may be suitable, ___ feet of water all around a barrel-type strainer is generally considered the minimum for that type of equipment.

Answer 148

148. 2 feet

Question 149

149. Floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as___ foot.

Answer 149

149. 1 foot

Question 150

150. Low-level strainers are most commonly used to draft from portable water tanks. These devices may draw water as shallow as ___ to ___ inches, but generally will not provide the flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus.

Answer 150

150. 1 to 2 inches

Question 151

151. Although they may vary in size, cisterns typically range from ___________ to ________ gallons. Pump 415.

Answer 151

151. 10,000 to 100,000 gallons

Question 152

152. Large Diameter Hose (LDH) — Relay-supply hose of _____ to _____ inches in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel.

Answer 152

152. 3 ½ inch to 6 inches

Question 153

153. TQ** Centrifugal pumps are rated to pump at their maximum volume capacity at __ psi at draft.

Answer 153

153. 150 psi

Question 154

154. As previously mentioned, fire department pumpers are rated to flow their maximum volume at ____psi, 70 percent of their maximum at ____ psi, and 50 percent of their maximum at ____ psi at draft.

Answer 154

154. 150 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

Question 155

155. It is advisable for driver/operators to maintain an intake pressure of ___ to ___ psi as a relay pumper.

Answer 155

155. 20 to 30 psi

Question 156

156. For relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ___ psi above the static pressure of the water system to which it is attached or ___ psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.

Answer 156

156. 10 psi. 10 psi.

Question 157

157. Attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ psi to establish a stable operating condition. Pump 434.

Answer 157

157. 50 and 75 psi

Question 158

158. The driver/operator of the attack pumper should expect small variations in pressure during relay pumping operations. You should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below ___ psi.

Answer 158

158. 20 psi

Question 159

159. Driver/operators should refer to NFPA _____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.

Answer 159

159. NFPA 1962

Question 160

160. In accordance with NFPA® 1901, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ______ gpm so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater.

Answer 160

160. 1,000 gpm

Question 161

161. Vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of _______ gallons.

Answer 161

161. 2,000 gallons

Question 162

162. For apparatus with a capacity greater than _______ gallons , tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers are required.

Answer 162

162. 2,000 gallons

Question 163

163. Tenders featuring pumps of ____ gpm or greater rating are often called pumper/tenders.

Answer 163

163. 750 gpm

Question 164

164. Pumper/tenders have large water tanks and the ability to pump at ____ gpm or greater.

Answer 164

164. 750 gpm

Question 165

165. The vacuum tender is able to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to ______ gpm with a lift of up to ____ feet. These apparatus are also capable of discharging its water tank at a rate up to _______ gpm.

Answer 165

165. 2,000/ 22 feet/ 1,750 gpm

Question 166

166. With a gravity dump, gravity is used to empty water from the tank. These dumps often use ____-inch or larger round or square piping with a valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle.

Answer 166

166. 8 inch

Question 167

167. When possible, a water supply source capable of supplying at least ______ gpm should be chosen in order to match the NFPA® recommended rate at which tenders should be filled. Pump 452.

Answer 167

167. 1000 gpm

Question 168

168. Nurse Tanker — Very large water tanker (generally _______ gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker. Also known as Nurse Tender.

Answer 168

168. 4,000 gallons

Question 169

169. NFPA® 1901 requires all tenders to have the capability to dump at a minimum average flow rate of _______ gpm for the first ___ percent of its tank capacity. Pump 462.

Answer 169

169. 1000 gpm. 90 percent

Question 170

170. A simple dump site may feature the use of one portable tank that is supplied directly by water shuttle tenders. This operation is generally adequate for fire fighting operations that require relatively low flow rates (less than _____ gpm).

Answer 170

170. 300 gpm

Question 171

171. Any tank, regardless of type, should be set up on a surface that is as level as possible and have a capacity at least _____ gallons larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it.

Answer 171

171. 500 gallons

Question 172

172. The dump site pumper should utilize a low-level strainer to allow for continuous drafting to a point of about ___inches.

Answer 172

172. 2 inches

Question 173

173. Incidents that require a flow rate in excess of ____ gpm are best served by a multiple tank operation.

Answer 173

173. 300 gpm

Question 174

174. Most multi-tank operations use from ____ to _____ portable tanks.

Answer 174

174. Two to five portable tanks

Question 175

175. For operations that require more than three tanks and jet siphons and flows over 500 gpm, __________________ should be used to transfer water to the tank supplying the attack pumper.

Answer 175

175. Parallel Jet Siphons

Question 176

176. ( question from fired up: tender fill lines should be pressurized at ____-___ psi at all times.) page 472 in the skill sheets. Place pumper in pump gear and charge tender fill lines, keeping pumper in gear and fill lines charged at all times. Follow local SOPs for discharge pressure, usually between ____ and ____ psi

Answer 176

176. 100-150 psi

Question 177

177. (Hose size between the hydrant and pumper at the fill site is ____ LDH minimum.)

Answer 177

177. One LDH minimum

Question 178

178. Many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ percent solvent additives. Treat these products as polar solvents during emergency operations.

Answer 178

178. 15 percent solvent additives

Question 179

179. Most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ____ to ____ percent water.

Answer 179

179. 94 to 99.9 percent

Question 180

180. Class A foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits established by the manufacturer to achieve specific objectives. These percentages may range from a little as ___ percent to ___ percent.

Answer 180

180. 0.1 to 1 percent

Question 181

181. When bulk storage of foam concentrates is required, some fire departments or industrial facilities may specify ____ gallon containers, called ______. Pump 484.

Answer 181

181. 275 gallon, totes

Question 182

182. Foam concentrate tanks on municipal fire apparatus generally range from ___ to ____ gallons, while foam pumper or tenders may carry _______ gallons or more of concentrate.

Answer 182

182. 20 to 200 gallons. 8,000 gallons

Question 183

183. Available since the 1940s, _________ foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for increasing numbers of structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, and other fires involving deep seated fuels.

Answer 183

183. Class A foam

Question 184

184. The shelf life of properly stored foam solution can be as long as ___years making it an economical choice to purchase in bulk quantities.

Answer 184

184. 20 years

Question 185

185. Class A foam concentrates may be mixed with percentages as little as _____ to ______ percent.

Answer 185

0.1 to 1.0 percent

Question 186

The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam:
186. Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

Answer 186

186. Fire attack, overhaul = 0.2-0.5 percent

Question 187

188. Any application with air aspirating foam nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

Answer 187

188. Aspirating = 0.3-0.7 percent

Question 187

187. Exposure protection with standard fog nozzles — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

Answer 187

187. Exposure protection = 0.5-1.0 percent

Question 188

189. Any application with compressed air foam systems (CAFS) — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

Answer 188

189. CAFS = 0.2-0.5 percent

Question 189

190. Class B foam concentrates should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life: approximately ____ years for protein based foams and ___ to ___ years for synthetic foam.

Answer 189

190. 10 years. 20 to 25 years

Question 190

191. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____ percent.

Answer 190

191. One to 6 percent

Question 191

192. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____.

Answer 191

192. 1% to 6%

Question 192

193. Some foam is formulated for use on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels. These products may be used at different concentrations depending on which fuel is involved. The concentration for hydrocarbon fuels is normally ______ or ____ percent, while ____ or ____ percent is used for polar solvents, based on the manufacturer’s recommendation.

Answer 192

193. One or three percent. Three or six percent

Question 193

For class B foams.
194. Hydrocarbon fuels use ___ or___ percent concentration.

Answer 193

194. 1 or 3 percent.

Question 194

For class B foams.
195. Polar solvents use ___ or ___ percent concentration.

Answer 194

195. 3 or 6 percent

Question 195

196. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to __ parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

Answer 195

196. 20 parts. 20:1 ratio

Question 196

197. Medium expansion foam is commonly used at a rate of ____ up to _____ through hydraulically operated nozzle type delivery devices.

Answer 196

197. 20:1 up to 200:1

Question 197

198. When high expansion foam is used the expansion rate is from ____ to _____.

Answer 197

198. 200:1up to 1000:1

Question 198

199. In order to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle, divide the _______ by the area of the fire.

Answer 198

199. Flow rate

Question 199

200. Regular protein foam generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance. However, it is not as fluid as other low expansion foams when applied to a fuel source. In addition, regular protein foam degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic foam (an approximate ____-year shelf life). Pump 492.

Answer 199

200. 10 year shelf life

Question 200

201. ________________ foam may be made alcohol resistant with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents. The alcohol-resistive properties will be effective for approximately _____ minutes, offering high-water retention and resistance to heat.

Answer 200

201. Flouroprotein. 15 minutes

Question 201

202. Alcohol resistant AFFF concentrate is commonly available for use on polar solvents. This concentrate is generally used at a concentration of ______ or _______ percent, based on manufacturer’s recommendations.

Answer 201

202. Three or six percent

Question 202

203. Alcohol-resistant AFFF may also be used on hydrocarbon fuels at _____ to _____ percent proportion based on the manufacturer’s guidelines.

Answer 202

203. One to six percent

Question 203

204. The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure. This back pressure is determined by adding the nozzle pressure, friction loss in the hose between the eductor and the nozzle, and the elevation pressure.

Answer 203

204. 70 percent

Question 204

205. The concentration of foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct (usually ____-____ psi).

Answer 204

205. 150-200 psi

Question 205

206. The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ feet above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate.

Answer 205

206. Six feet

Question 206

207. Some master stream foam nozzles are capable of delivering _______ gpm.

Answer 206

207. 14,000 gpm

Question 207

208. A jet ratio controller (JRC) is a type of in-line eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream. It allows the foam concentrate supply to be located as far as ________ feet away from a self-educting master stream nozzle. This distance allows firefighters charged with operating the fire pump and maintaining the foam concentrate supply to do so from a considerable distance, as well as an elevation change of up to ___ feet.

Answer 207

208. 3000 feet. 50 feet

Question 208

209. Variable flow variable rate direct injection systems proportion foam concentrate at rates from ____to ____ percent.

Answer 208

209. 0.1 to 3 percent

Question 209

210. Class A foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than ____ hours, making pre-mixing virtually impossible.

Answer 209

210. 24 hours

Question 210

211. CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system. Due to the low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of ___ to ____ percent.

Answer 210

211. 0.1 to 1.0 percent

Question 211

212. Generally, ___ cubic feet per minute of airflow per gallon, per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100 gpm of foam solution. This creates a substantial amount of foam at a 10:1 expansion ratio.

Answer 211

212. 2 cubic feet

Question 212

213. Most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of ____ to ____ ft3/min of foam solution.

Answer 212

213. 0.5 to 1.0 ft/3

Question 213

214. Expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ___ up to ___ range. Pump 504.

Answer 213

214. 2:1 up to 4:1 range

Question 214

215. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to 20 parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

Answer 214

215. 20:1

Question 215

216. The air content of medium expansion foam ranges from ____ to _____.

Answer 215

216. 20:1 to 200:1

Question 216

217. For high expansion foam, the ratio ranges from ______ to ______.

Answer 216

217. 200:1 to 1000:1

Question 217

218. When used on a fire line, durable agents are often applied at ___ to ___ percent.

Answer 217

218. 1 ½ to 2 percent

Question 218

219. For structure protection, the application ratio is ____ to ___ percent. With this application, durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to ___ hours.

Answer 218

219. 2 to 3 percent. 24 hours

Question 219

220. NFPA® _____, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, NFPA _______, Standard for Wildland Fire Apparatus, and NFPA ______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Vehicles are commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications.

Answer 219

220. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1906, NFPA 414

Question 220

221. _____________— Preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road-worthiness of a new vehicle. Pump 516.

Answer 220

221. Road Tests

Question 221

222. The apparatus must accelerate to ____ mph from a standing start within ____ seconds. This test is conducted in two runs in opposite directions over the same course.

Answer 221

222. 35 mph. 25 seconds

Question 222

223. The apparatus must achieve at least a top speed of ____ mph. This requirement may be waived for vehicles not designed for use on public roadways.

Answer 222

223. 50 mph

Question 223

224. The apparatus must come to a full stop from ____ mph within ____ feet.

Answer 223

224. 20 mph. 35 feet

Question 224

225. The pump body as well as the entire intake and discharge piping system, with the exception of the tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves, are subjected to a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ psi for a minimum of ____ minutes.

Answer 224

225. 500 psi. 10 minutes

Question 225

226. In jurisdictions that are higher than ________ feet above sea level, a pumping engine overload test should be performed as part of acceptance testing.

Answer 225

226. 2000 feet above sea level

Question 226

227. The requirements for fire department service testing are contained in NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus.

Answer 226

227. NFPA 1911

Question 227

228. For pumps rated at 1,500 gpm or less, _____ feet is the maximum distance, while 2,000 gpm pumps use a _____ foot maximum lift.

Answer 227

228. 10 feet. 6 feet

Question 228

229. The air temperature when the testing is conducted should be between ___°F and ____° F.

Answer 228

229. 0. 110

Question 229

230. The water temperature should be between ___° F and ____° F.

Answer 229

230. 35. 90

Question 230

231. The barometric pressure should be at least _____ inches of Mercury (Hg) when corrected to sea level. This adjustment is necessary because a 1-inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately 1 foot.

Answer 230

231. 29 inches of mercury

Question 231

232. When conducting the pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated. The minimum diameter hoseline for this purpose is _______-inch hose, although larger diameter hoselines may be employed if so desired.

Answer 231

232. 2 ½ inch hose

Question 232

233. To monitor the continued serviceability of the hose throughout the test, a mark may be scribed where the hose and couplings meet. If the scribe mark is found to have moved away more than _____ of an inch from the coupling, stop the test and replace the hose.

Answer 232

233. 3/8 of an inch

Question 233

234. Performance tests are conducted at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ psi, and ____ psi net pump discharge pressure.

Answer 233

234. 150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

Question 234

235. NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within _____ days of the testing.

Answer 234

235. 60 days

Question 235

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
236. A gauge to determine intake pressure. The gauge should be calibrated to a range of 30 in Hg to zero for a _________ gauge, or 30 in Hg vacuum to 150 psi for a ____________gauge.

Answer 235

236. Vacuum gauge. Compound gauge

Question 236

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
237. A gauge with a range of 0 to at least 400 psi (with + or - _____ % accuracy) to determine pump discharge.

Answer 236

237. 5 % accuracy

Question 237

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
238. A pitot tube with knife edge and air chamber rated from 0 to at least _____ psi is required if a flowmeter is not used.

Answer 237

238. 160 psi

Question 238

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
239. Two 6-foot lengths of ____-inch diameter, ______psi hose with screw fittings and gauges. These gauges are connected to fittings at the pump panel.

Answer 238

239. ¼ inch diameter. 300 psi hose

Question 239

To perform fire pump service testing safely, personnel should:
240. Wear protective head gear, eyewear, gloves, and hearing protection if noise levels have the potential to reach or exceed _____ decibels (dB).

Answer 239

240. 90 decibels

Question 240

241. If it is not running at the correct speed (plus or minus _____ rpm), the apparatus should be evaluated by a qualified mechanic before any further tests are performed. Pump 524.

Answer 240

241. 50 rpm

Question 241

242. According to NFPA® 1911, fire pumps of 1,250 gpm capacity must achieve prime in ____ seconds or less, and those rated at 1,500 gpm must be primed within _____ seconds.

Answer 241

242. 30 seconds or less. 45 seconds

Question 242

243. Pumpers with an onboard tank capacity of 500 gallons or less must be capable of flowing ______ gpm from their onboard tank.

Answer 242

243. 250 gpm

Question 243

244. Pumpers with a capacity of greater than 500 gallons must be capable of flowing at least ____ gpm.

Answer 243

244. 500 gpm

Question 244

245. Any apparatus that achieves results less than _____ percent of its originally rated capabilities has two options for continued use: It may be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities and tested again, or the apparatus may be given a lower rating based on the results of the most recent testing.

Answer 244

245. 90 percent

Question 245

246. The amount of force exerted by the hydraulic fluid depends on the hydraulic system pressure and the piston surface area. The larger the piston area, the more upward force is produced. Normal hydraulic pressure is from ______to ______ psi.

Answer 245

246. 850 to 3000 psi
     (P551)

Question 246

247. In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ____ to ____ ft.

Answer 246

247. 50 to 137 feet

Question 247

248. TQ** The required minimum floor area of a platform is _____ square feet. Each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no opening under the railing greater than ____ inches.

Answer 247

248. 14 sq feet. 24 inches

Question 248

249. TQ** All elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of ____ pounds when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within its normal range of motion, and with no water in the piping system. This load requirement drops to ______ pounds when the water delivery system is charged.

Answer 248

249. 750 pounds. 500 pounds

Question 249

250. The water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least ____ gpm at___ psi nozzle pressure when the aerial device is in any position.

Answer 249

250. 1000 gpm at 100 psi

Question 250

251. Elevating platforms that are 110 feet or shorter should be able to be raised from the bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in _____ seconds or less. There is no time requirement for elevating platforms taller than 110 feet.

Answer 250

251. 150 seconds

Question 251

252. Aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from ____ to ____ feet.

Answer 251

252. 85 to 110 feet

Question 252

253. Common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in use in North America range from __ to ___ feet.

Answer 252

253. 75 to 100 feet

Question 253

254. In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ___ to ____ ft.

Answer 253

254. 50 to 137 feet

Question 254

255. Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___ feet.

Answer 254

255. 55 to 85 feet

Question 255

256. Most water towers are designed so that their fire streams may be deployed at a range of elevations starting from a few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degree from the ground. Common sizes for these devices range from ___ to ____ feet. They are capable of maximum flows ranging from ______ to _____ gpm.

Answer 255

256. 50 to 130 feet. 1000 to 5000 gpm

Question 256

257. The oldest type of pre-piped aerial ladder waterway is the______________, which is a section of pipe, usually 3 or 3 1⁄2 inches in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed (base) section of the aerial ladder.

Answer 256

257. Bed ladder pipe

Question 257

258. Ladders that are _____ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section.

Answer 257

258. 110 feet or shorter

Question 258

259. Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ______ gpm.

Answer 258

259. 1000 gpm

Question 259

260. Detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than ____ gpm.

Answer 259

260. 750 gpm

Question 260

261. Most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ degrees either side of center. Pump 571.

Answer 260

261. 15 degrees

Question 261

262. Because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping on these systems may be larger, and flows of up to ______ gpm are possible on some models.

Answer 261

262. 2,000 gpm

Question 262

263. Some water towers also have an optional piercing nozzle at the end of the aerial device. This hardened steel nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs. Once the nozzle pierces the structure, a broken stream nozzle at its tip may be charged at the operator’s control panel. This stream is capable of flows up to _____ gpm.

Answer 262

263. 300 gpm

Question 263

264. Electrical power cords are needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment. Common recommended lengths should not exceed ____ feet per reel or cord.

Answer 263

264. 200 feet

Question 264

265. Hose distances ______ feet or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.

Answer 264

265. 100 feet

Question 265

266. Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ____ feet or longer to reach fourth-or fifth-story windows that are not accessible with the main aerial device. These ladders are also called “pole” ladders. Due to the extreme weight and awkwardness of this type of ground ladder, these ladders are equipped with “staypoles” or “tormentors” for stability and leverage during the raising of the ladder.

Answer 265

266. 40 feet or longer

Question 266

267. Since the tiller axle is a steering axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed ____” on a 20” wheel, or ____ degrees on any other sized steering wheel.

Answer 266

267. 2 inches. 10 degrees

Question 267

268. TQ** When testing the emergency power unit (EPU), the main hydraulic system should be disengaged and a control valve must be open before turning on the pump to prevent ____________.

Answer 267

268. Deadheading

Question 268

269. Aerial apparatus placement on the fireground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have a fixed maximum length, as opposed to pumpers and other fire apparatus that may carry _______ feet of fire hose and can attach more length if they need to be positioned at a great distance from the fire. Pump 609.

Answer 268

269. 1000 feet

Question 269

270. TQ** Moderate to high winds impose a ___________ on the aerial device and may reduce the overall stability by forcing movement for which the apparatus was not designed.

Answer 269

270. Dynamic load

Question 270

271. Electricity will arc across a gap as large as ____ feet, and all overhead wires or cables should be considered hazardous and dangerous.

Answer 270

271. 10 feet

Question 271

272. The long-standing fire service standard has been to provide 10 feet of clearance between the aerial device and overhead high-voltage lines energized from _____ to ______ volts, and 50 feet of clearance for high-voltage transmission lines over ________ volts.

Answer 271

272. 600 to 50,000 volts. Over 50,000 volts

Question 272

273. Do not work within ____ feet of high-voltage transmission lines.

Answer 272

273. 50 feet

Question 273

274. NOTE: OSHA recently revised their overhead power line clearances for the construction industry. The new standard requires ____ feet between the device and overhead electric lines of less than 350 kilovolts. For high tensions lines of over 350 kilovolts, OSHA requires _____ feet of clearance.

Answer 273

274. 20 feet. 50 feet

Question 274

275. Jack-knifing involves turning the tractor at an angle from the trailer. Greatest stability occurs when this angle is approximately ___° from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle. Good stability occurs at angles up to ___°. Beyond ___° stability decreases rapidly.

Answer 274

275. 60 degrees. 90 degrees. 90 degrees

Question 275

276. The maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___° and ____° from horizontal.

Answer 275

276. 70 degrees and 80 degrees from horizontal

Question 276

277. Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ____ feet from the tracks when possible.

Answer 276

277. 25 feet

Question 277

278. If it becomes absolutely necessary to raise an aerial device across a railroad track, confirm with the railroad company that train traffic has been halted on that set of tracks. Even when a halt confirmation has been received, keep the aerial device at least ____ feet above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.

Answer 277

278. 25 feet

Question 278

279. When parked, with the aerial device in its stowed position, the apparatus has a center of gravity located somewhere along the _____________________ of the chassis, between the front and rear axles.

Answer 278

279. Longitudinal midline

Question 279

280. The type of PTO activation switch varies from manufacturer to manufacturer and may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, or a combination of these three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from _____ to _____ psi air pressure for the PTO to be operated, depending on the manufacturer.

Answer 279

280. 50 to 140 psi

Question 280

281. Correction of lateral unevenness is possible on grades of up to ____ percent (app. 3 degrees), although this can vary depending on the aerial device (check the operators manual for specific vehicle information, for example, some older trucks may be much less than this).

Answer 280

281. 5 percent

Question 281

282. A slope of ____ percent means that there is a rise in terrain height of 5 feet for every run of 100 feet of distance

Answer 281

282. 5 percent

Question 282

283. Check the manufacturer’s requirements for aerial device loading on grades. Most have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as _________ the normal load, and if in the red zone (unsafe load), do not operate the aerial device.

Answer 282

283. One-half

Question 283

284. All operators on an aerial device should be equipped with fall restraint ladder belt and tether. This ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the NFPA _________, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services.

Answer 283

284. NFPA 1983

Question 284

285. Use the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder pipe use: 75 degree elevation, 80 percent extended length, and 80 psi nozzle pressure for a _____-inch tip.

Answer 284

285. 1 ½ inch tip

Question 285

286. Use ladder pipes _______________ to the rungs on older units, with a maximum lateral movement of 15 degrees to either side, if lateral movement is allowed. Many new models offer a 180 degree sweep.

Answer 285

286. Perpendicular

Question 286

287. The limit of ice build-up allowed by NFPA® 1901 is _____ inch on all surfaces.

Answer 286

287. ¼ inch

Question 287

288. 1 cubic inch of ice = _______ lb.

Answer 287

288. 0.03 lb

Question 288

289. Keep aerial device, vehicle, and personnel _____ feet from power lines (if voltage is not known) and _____ feet (____ feet, if possible) from power lines if voltage is 350 Kilovolts or less.

Answer 288

289. 50 feet. 10 feet. 20 feet

Question 289

290. When removing trapped victims from a roof (or other similarly open, flat areas), the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so that at least ______feet extends above the edge of the roof.

Answer 289

290. 6 feet

Question 290

291. Rope and hardware used with the lifting eye(s) should be appropriate for the load being lifted, should comply with NFPA _____, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, and should be rigged by an individual trained in proper rope rescue techniques such as those found in NFPA ______, Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search and Rescue Incidents.

Answer 290

291. NFPA 1983. NFPA 1670

Question 291

292. The best way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream is to try to deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room. Water deflection can be accomplished by positioning the aerial device so that the nozzle is about even with the bottom of the window. This position allows water to enter the area at an angle of about _______ degrees.

Answer 291

292. 30 degrees

Question 292

293. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius is ______ joules. (S11)

Answer 292

293. 4.2 joules

Question 293

294. When comparing joules and Btu, _______ J = 1 Btu. (S11)

Answer 293

294. 1055 J = 1 BTU

Question 294

295. _______________________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of _________________ causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2 percent _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (S15)

Answer 294

295. Carbon monoxide

Question 295

296. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent, irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory tract and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. _______________ is a suspected carcinogen. (S15)

Answer 295

296. Formaldehyde

Question 296

297. ____________________ = Colorless, toxic, and flammable liquid below 79° F, produced by the combustion of nitrogen-bearing substances. It is a chemical asphyxiant that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen. It is commonly encountered in smoke in concentrations lower than carbon monoxide. (S15)

Answer 296

297. Hydrogen cyanide

Question 297

298. _____________________ = Reddish-brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (S15)

Answer 297

298. Nitrogen dioxide

Question 298

299. ___________________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to particulates can cause eye irritation and respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).

Answer 298

299. Particulates

Question 299

300. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. ______________ is toxic and corrosive, and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (S15)

Answer 299

300. Sulfer dioxide

Question 300

301. CO molecules attach to hemoglobin, decreasing the blood’s ability to carry oxygen, as it combines with hemoglobin about __________times more effectively than oxygen.

Answer 300

301. 200 times

Question 301

302. _____________________is a toxic and flammable substance produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen.

Answer 301

302. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

Question 302

303. Smoke frequently contains ______, although at lower concentrations than CO.

Answer 302

303. HCN

Question 303

304. Incomplete combustion of substances that contain nitrogen and carbon produces ____.

Answer 303

304. HCN

Question 304

305. HCN is a significant byproduct of the combustion of ____________________ used in many household furnishings.

Answer 304

305. Polyurethane foam

Question 305

306. HCN is ____ times more toxic than CO.

Answer 305

306. 35 times

Question 306

307. HCN prevents the body from using oxygen at the _________ level.

Answer 306

307. Cellular

Question 307

308. Inhaled __________ enters the bloodstream and prevents the blood cells from using oxygen properly, killing the cells.

Answer 307

308. Inhaled HCN

Question 308

309. CO2 is a product of complete combustion of __________ materials.

Answer 308

309. Organic materials

Question 309

310. CO2 acts as a respiratory _____________.

Answer 309

310. Stimulant

Question 310

311. More than ____________ irritants in smoke have been identified, including hydrogen chloride, formaldehyde, and acrolein.

Answer 310

311. Twenty irritants

Question 311

312. The standard international (SI) unit for power is the ______. One _____ is 1 joule per second (J/s).

Answer 311

312. watt (W).
     watt

Question 312

313. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______° F present a significant flammability hazard.

Answer 312

313. 100 degrees

Question 313

314. Pyrolysis of wood begins at temperatures below ______° F, lower than the temperature required for ignition of the released vapors. (S29)

Answer 313

314. Below 400 degrees

Question 314

315. Normally, air consists of about ___ percent oxygen.

Answer 314

315. 21 percent

Question 315

316. At normal ambient temperatures (68° F), materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as ___ percent.

Answer 315

316. 15 percent

Question 316

317. Typically, an atmosphere having less than _____ percent oxygen is considered oxygen-deficient and presents a hazard to persons not wearing respiratory protection, such as SCBA.

Answer 316

317. 19.5 percent

Question 317

318. When the atmosphere’s oxygen concentration exceeds _____ percent, the atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched and presents an increased fire risk.

Answer 317

318. 23.5 percent

Question 318

319. When placed in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere of approximately _____ percent oxygen, Nomex® ignites and burns vigorously.

Answer 318

319. 31 percent

Question 319

320. When flames reach ____ ft high, radiated heat begins to transfer more heat than convection.

Answer 319

320. 2.5 feet high

Question 320

321. As flashover occurs, the gas temperatures in the room reach ________° F or higher.

Answer 320

321. 1,100 degrees

Question 321

322. During flashover, the volume of burning gases can increase from approximately ____ to _____ of the room’s upper volume to fill the entire volume and extend out of any openings.

Answer 321

322. ¼ to ½ of the rooms upper volume

Question 322

324. WARNING: Wind-driven conditions can occur in any type of structure. Wind speeds as low as ___ mph can create wind-driven fire conditions.

Answer 322

324. 10 mph

Question 323

323. NOTE: The autoignition temperature of CO, the most abundant fuel gas created in most fires, is approximately _________ ° F.

Answer 323

323. 1,100 degrees

Question 324

325. Type 1 Since _______, manufactured homes must meet the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (HUD Code).

Answer 324

325. 1976

Question 325

326. Type II Use of asbestos has decreased dramatically in the U.S. since the ______, but asbestos exposure is still a concern in older buildings.

Answer 325

326. 1970s

Question 326

327. Type I

Answer 326

327. Fire-resistive

Question 327

328. Type II

Answer 327

328. Noncombustible/limited combustible.

Question 328

329. Type III

Answer 328

329. Ordinary.

Question 329

330. Type IV

Answer 329

330. Heavy Timber.

Question 330

331. Type V

Answer 330

331. Wood frame.

Question 331

332. In single-family residential structures, the square footage of houses increased over ____ percent between 1973 and 2008.

Answer 331

332. 150 percent

Question 332

333.For steel trusses, _____° F is the critical temperature of steel — the temperature at which steel begins to weaken.

Answer 332

333. 1000 degrees

Question 333

334. In Type I construction, all structural members consist of _______________ materials with high fire-resistance ratings, unless exempted by the building code.

Answer 333

334. Noncombustible

Question 334

335. NFPA _______, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting.

Answer 334

335. NFPA 1851

Question 335

336. Standard ceilings rise ___ to ___ feet and vaulted or cathedral ceilings may reach higher than ____ feet.

Answer 335

336. 8 to 12 feet. 13 feet

Question 336

337. Compartmentation is typical in _______ residential and commercial structures, office buildings, and schools.

Answer 336

337. Pre-1980

Question 337

338. Ceiling height of a typical basement is approximately ___ to ___ feet, allowing the fire to rise rapidly.

Answer 337

338. 8 to 9 feet

Question 338

339. When exposed to temperatures above _________° F , unprotected steel expands and twists, pushing out walls, and slightly constricts when cooled.

Answer 338

339. 1000 degrees

Question 339

340. Steel expands .06 percent to .07 percent in length for each _____° F rise in temperature.

Answer 339

340. 100 degree rise

Question 340

341. _____ steel is the most commonly used structural steel in the United States.

Answer 340

341. A36 steel

Question 341

342. Steel loses strength at around ____° F.

Answer 341

342. 570 degrees

Question 342

343. After flashover, structural steel supports less than ____ percent of its designed load and could fail at any time.

Answer 342

343. 40 percent

Question 343

344. Lath and plaster construction is generally found in buildings constructed before ____.

Answer 343

344. Before 1950

Question 344

345. ____________________________________— Originally used in the 1970s for insulating walls, this material caused high levels of formaldehyde emissions when improperly installed. It may still appear in some older houses.

Answer 344

345. Urea Formaldehyde Foam Insulation (UFFI)

Question 345

346. ____________________— The term refers to different materials: slag wool and rock wool. Accounting for approximately 80 percent of ___________ produced, slag wool primarily from iron ore blast furnace slag, an industrial waste product. Rock wool is produced from rocks. Prior to the 1960s, ___________ was the most common type of insulation.

Answer 345

346. Mineral wool, mineral wool, mineral wool

Question 346

347. ___________________ — Most comes from approximately 80 percent post-consumer recycled newspaper by weight; the rest is composed of fire-retardant chemicals and acrylic binders in some products. Over time, _______ loses its ability to be fire-retardant. It is also a respiratory irritant.

Answer 346

347. Cellulose

Question 347

348. ___________________ — It consists of 85 percent recycled ______ and 15 plastic fibers treated with borate, the same flame retardant and insect/rodent repellent used in cellulose insulation. It is as effective as fiberglass or cellulose, has fewer documented health risks than fiberglass, and offers easy installation. It costs more than fiberglass and is widely available.

Answer 347

348. Cotton

Question 348

__________________ — Used in the exterior walls of hybrid or natural (green) construction buildings and houses. It can be affected by moisture and may become infested by insects and vermin.

Answer 348

349. Straw

Question 349

350. __________________ — Applied in rigid boards called extruded and expanded polystyrene (EPS) or blown into wall cavities or voids in spray form. Spray ______ can irritate the respiratory system, has a high toxicity level, and adds to the fuel load. ______ blocks are incorporated into building construction.

Answer 349

350. Foam

Question 350

351. In 2011-2015, U.S. fire departments responded to an estimated average of ________ structure fires per year in vacant properties.

Answer 350

351. 30,200 structure fires per year

Question 351

352. Fires in __________ buildings are more likely to be intentionally set and spread beyond the building than fires in other structures.

Answer 351

352. Vacant

Question 352

353. _____ percent of reported structure fires in 2011-2015 were in vacant properties.

Answer 352

353. 6 percent

Question 353

354. Only ___ percent of civilian structure fire deaths and _____ percent of civilian structure fire injuries resulted from fires in vacant properties.

Answer 353

354. 2 percent. 1 percent

Question 354

355. ____________ percent of firefighter injuries at structure fires occurred in or at vacant buildings.

Answer 354

355. Thirteen percent

Question 355

356. NFPA _____, Standard for Pre-Incident Planning.

Answer 355

356. NFPA 1620

Question 356

357. NFPA _____, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke-and-heat venting equipment.

Answer 356

357. NFPA 204

Question 357

359. ____________ — Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizationally located between Section and Division or Group.

Answer 357

359. Branch

Question 358

358. ___________ — Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management includes: — Operations. — Planning. — Logistics. — Finance/Administration. — Information and Intelligence.

Answer 358

358. Section

Question 359

360. ____________ — Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; organizationally between Branch and single resources, task force, or strike team (described in the following section).

Answer 359

360. Division

Question 360

361. Resources assigned to a Division report to that Division ___________.

Answer 360

361. Supervisor

Question 361

362. ____________ — Organizational level, equal to Division, having responsibility for a specified functional assignment (such as ventilation, salvage, water supply) at an incident without regard to a specific geographical area.

Answer 361

362. Group

Question 362

363. ________________ — Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation units, within the Planning Section.

Answer 362

363. Unit

Question 363

364. According to the 2008 NIMS-ICS model, the span-of-control ratio for ICS ranged from ______ to ______ subordinates per supervisor, with ______ being optimal.

Answer 363

364. Three to seven. 5 being optimal

Question 364

365. NIMS 2017 suggests an optimal span of control of one supervisor to _____ subordinates.

Answer 364

365. Five subordinates

Question 365

366. NFPA _____ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program.

Answer 365

366. NFPA 1500

Question 366

367. A modern structural fire can quickly exceed _____° F, creating the potential for flashover (approximately 1,110° F within minutes).

Answer 366

367. 500 degrees

Question 367

368. Deploying a master stream device and the necessary hoselines usually requires a minimum of ____ firefighters.

Answer 367

368. Two

Question 368

369. Winds as slow as ____ mph can affect structure fires, potentially making them wind-driven. (S)

Answer 368

369. 10 mph

Question 369

370. Floor-by-floor smoke control systems are typical in commercial high-rises constructed prior to ______. (S)

Answer 369

370. Prior to 1990

Question 370

371. Fire officers certified to NFPA _____, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, should be able to determine the cause and origin of most fires.
     (S)

Answer 370

371. NFPA 1021

Question 371

372. In the metric system used in technical literature, the Canadian fire service, and most of the rest of the world, _______ are the unit of measure for heat energy. (T22)

Answer 371

372. Joules

Question 372

373. _______________— Unit of work or energy in the International System of Units; the energy (or work) when unit force (1 newton) moves a body through a unit distance (1 meter); takes the place of calorie for heat measurement (1 calorie =______ ). (T22)

Answer 372

373. Joule (J). 4.19 J

Question 373

374. It takes ________ joules to raise the temperature of one kilogram (kg) of water one degree Celsius. (T22)

Answer 373

374. 4,186 joules

Question 374

375. The U.S. fire service uses the customary system in which the unit of measure for heat energy is the_________________. (T22)

Answer 374

375. British thermal unit (Btu)

Question 375

376. One Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. By comparison, 1 Btu equals approximately _________ joules.

Answer 375

376. 1,100 joules

Question 376

377. British Thermal Unit (Btu) — Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. One Btu = _________kilo joules (kJ).

Answer 376

377. 1.055 kilo joules

Question 377

378. ___________________is usually expressed in either kilojoules/gram (kJ/g) or megajoules/kilogram (MJ/kg).

Answer 377

378. Heat of combustion

Question 378

379. ___________________is thermal energy (heat) that could be generated by the combustion (oxidation) reaction if a fuel were completely burned. The _______________ is measured in British Thermal Units (Btu) per pound or calories per gram.

Answer 378

379. Heat of combustion. Heat of combustion

Question 379

380. The ceiling temperature approaches _____________°F during a rollover and the heat being radiated to the floor may be sufficient to ignite ordinary materials such as newspaper.

Answer 379

380. 1,100 degrees

Question 380

381. If the concentration of flammable combustion and pyrolysis products is above the upper flammable limit, the temperature is above 1,100°F or another source of ignition is available, and ventilation is increased, a ____________ may occur.

Answer 380

381. Back-draft

Question 381

382. Incident Management System = System described in NFPA ________, Standard on Fire Department Incident Management System, that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations. Such systems may also be referred to as Incident Command Systems (ICS).

Answer 381

382. NFPA 1561

         (NFPA 1620 is Preincident Planning.)

Question 382

383. ________________________= System by which facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications are organized to operate within a common organizational structure designed to aid in the management of resources at emergency incidents.

Answer 382

383. Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 383

384. The use of an ____________________is required by NFPA® 1500, Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, and NFPA® 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System.

Answer 383

384. Accountability system

Question 384

385. _______________= A magnesium silicate mineral that occurs as slender, strong flexible fibers. Breathing of _________dust causes __________and lung cancer.

Answer 384

385. Asbestos, asbestos, asbestiosis

Question 385

386. _______________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of carbon monoxide causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2% _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness.

Answer 385

386. Carbon Monoxide

Question 386

387. ________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory track and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. ________________ is a suspected carcinogen.

Answer 386

387. Formaldehyde

Question 387

388. _________________ = Reddish brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive.

Answer 387

388. Nitrogen dioxide

Question 388

389. _______________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and be deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to ______________ can cause eye irritation, respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).

Answer 388

389. Particulates

Question 389

390. _______________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. __________ is toxic and corrosive and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes.

Answer 389

390. Sulfur dioxide

Question 390

391. While two firefighters may be sufficient to locate a firefighter in distress, it may take a _______________ firefighters to effect the rescue.

Answer 390

391. A dozen or more

Question 391

392. Removing the wall between any two adjacent studs will only create an opening approximately ____ inches wide.

Answer 391

392. 14 inches wide

Question 392

393. ____________________— a strong respiratory irritant produced when polyethylene is heated and when items containing cellulose, such as wood and other natural materials smolder. It is used in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, herbicides, and tear gas.

Answer 392

393. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)

Question 393

394. ____________________— a colorless but very pungent and irritating gas given off in the thermal decomposition of materials containing chlorine such as polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and other plastics.

Answer 393

394. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)

Question 394

395. ____________________— a colorless gas with a characteristic almond odor. Twenty times more toxic than CO, it is an asphyxiant and can be absorbed through the skin. _____ is produced in the combustion of natural materials, such as wool and silk, which contain nitrogen. It is also produced when polyurethane foam and other plastics that contain urea burn. The concentrated bulk chemical is also used in electroplating.

Answer 394

395. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

Question 395

396. ____________________— a colorless, odorless, and nonflammable gas produced in free-burning fires. While it is nontoxic, ____ can asphyxiate by excluding the oxygen from a confined space. It is also a respiratory accelerant that can increase the intake of other toxic gases.

Answer 395

396. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Question 396

397. _____________________— two toxic and dangerous gases liberated in the combustion of pyroxylin plastics. Because ____________readily converts to ________________in the presence of oxygen and moisture, _______________ is the substance of most concern to firefighters. _______________is a pulmonary irritant that can also have a delayed systemic effect. The vapors and smoke from the _______________have a reddish brown or copper color.

Answer 396

397. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2),
     nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), oxides of nitrogen

Question 397

398. _____________________— a highly toxic, colorless gas with a disagreeable odor of musty hay. It may be produced when refrigerants, such as Freon, contact flame. ________ can be expected in fires in cold-storage facilities or in fires involving heavy-duty HVAC systems. It is a strong pulmonary irritant, the full harmful effect of which is not evident for several hours after exposure.

Answer 397

398. Phosgene (CCl2O), phosgene

Question 398

399. If there are sufficient on-scene resources, firefighters should start salvage operations on the floor _______________as soon it is safe to do so.

Answer 398

399. Below the fire

Question 399

400. To ensure that ladders are safe to use when needed, firefighters must follow the maintenance procedures recommended by the ladder manufacturer, as prescribed in departmental SOPs, and as specified in NFPA _____, Standard on Use, Maintenance, and Service Testing of In-Service Fire Department Ground Ladders.

Answer 399

400. NFPA 1932

Question 400

401. As discussed in Essentials, the ideal climbing angle for ground ladders is____ degrees from horizontal.

Answer 400

401. 75 degrees from horizontal

Question 401

402. At angles less than _____ degrees, the distance between personnel on the ladder should be increased.

Answer 401

402. Less than 75 degrees

Question 402

403. The most relevant fitness related standards are NFPA______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program and NFPA _______, Standard on Health-Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members.

Answer 402

403. NFPA 1500. NFPA 1583

Question 403

404. A minimum of _____ firefighters are required to raise a pole ladder, but adding a fifth or sixth firefighter to the team increases both safety and efficiency.

Answer 403

404. Four

Question 404

405. If the window opening is wide enough to permit the ladder tip to project into it and still allow room beside it to facilitate entry/exit and rescue, the ladder can be placed so that it extends ____ or _____ rungs into the window opening.

Answer 404

405. Two or three rungs

Question 405

406. If the gap between the buildings is not more than ________ its length, a single ladder can be laid on the roof of one building and the tip simply slid over to the other building.

Answer 405

406. One-third

Question 406

407. Size-up for a structure fire incident typically starts with the ______________.

Answer 406

407. Initial dispatch

Question 407

408. Both residential and commercial buildings constructed before the middle of the twentieth century commonly had high ceilings, some _____ feet or more, but many of them have since had dropped (false) ceilings installed during renovation.

Answer 407

408. 10 feet or more

Question 408

409. If a firefighter crawling on the floor of a smoke-filled Victorian-style residence can touch the ceiling with a ___-foot pike pole, there is probably a false ceiling in that room.

Answer 408

409. 6-foot pike pole

Question 409

410. A recent trend in residential construction in North America has been the emergence of extremely large dwellings compared to those built in the middle to late twentieth century. These single-family residences are commonly between ________ and _______ square feet, and some even larger.

Answer 409

410. 5,000 to 10,000

Question 410

411. Evacuations should be made at least ___ mile away from a LPG tank that has the potential for BLEVE.

Answer 410

411. At least ½ mile

Question 411

412. The DOT ERG 2008 recommends staging anywhere from ____ to ___ feet from the source of both LPG and natural gas leaks.

Answer 411

412. 160 to 330 feet

Question 412

413. Since the LEL for natural gas is ____ percent (50,000 ppm), many fire departments establish the perimeter at ____ percent of that figure — 0.5 percent (5,000 ppm).

Answer 412

413. 5 percent. 10 percent

Question 413

414. If extinguishing a fire on an upper floor of a 50 × 100-foot building results in 6 inches of water accumulating on the floor, the total weight of that water exceeds ____ tons (68 t).

Answer 413

414. 75 tons

Question 414

415. While wooden fences are found in many heights and styles, the majority consist of individual vertical boards nailed to horizontal wooden stringers between posts spaced about ____ feet apart.

Answer 414

415. 8 feet

Question 415

416. Because of personal security concerns, a growing number of upscale homes and even entire housing developments, called gated communities, are enclosed within masonry walls. Most of the walls are about ___ feet high and roughly ___ foot thick.

Answer 415

416. 6 feet high. 1 foot thick

Question 416

417. Scientifically controlled fire tests conducted by the NFPA® indicate that the time available for escape (TAE) from a burning building can be as little as ___ minutes after ignition due to heat buildup in a confined space such as a bedroom.

Answer 416

417. 11 minutes after ignition

Question 417

418. Replace 12-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn down more than the other teeth or when the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade.

Answer 417

418. 2 or more teeth

Question 418

419. Replace 24-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn excessively, or the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade.

Answer 418

419. 8 or more teeth

Question 419

420. Replace composite concrete or metal cutting blades when they have been worn down sufficiently for the blade to fit inside an ____-inch circle.

Answer 419

420. 8 inch circle

Question 420

421. If fire conditions inside an exterior roll-up or sheet-curtain door make a single cut in the center unsafe to use, an alternative is to make a horizontal cut across nearly the full width of the door, stopping about ___ foot from the doorframe on each side. This horizontal cut should be made about ___ feet above the bottom of the door.

Answer 420

421. 1 foot. 6 feet

Question 421

422. Lexan — Polycarbonate plastic used for windows. It has one-half the weight of an equivalent-sized piece of glass, yet is ___ times stronger than safety glass and ___ times stronger than ordinary glass. It cannot be broken using standard forcible entry techniques.

Answer 421

422. 30 times. 250 times

Question 422

423. A rotary saw with a _________________carbide-tipped blade is most effective when entry must be made through all types of plastic windows.

Answer 422

423. medium (40 tooth)

Question 423

424. NFPA ___________, Recommended Practice for Pre-Incident Planning.

Answer 423

424. NFPA 1620

Question 424

425. Most imagers use one of two technologies —_______________technology, or ________________________________technology.

Answer 424

425. Microbolometer. BST (barium, strontium, titanium)

Question 425

426. Some imagers are designed primarily for locating the seat of a fire by being calibrated to respond to temperatures in excess of ____ °F.

Answer 425

426. 900 degrees

Question 426

Departmental SOPs usually dictate one accepted method of marking; however, all department personnel must be trained to understand and use whatever method is selected. Regardless of the marking method used, the marks should be placed on the ___________of the wall or door so they are more likely to be visible below the smoke layer.

Answer 426

427. Lower third

Question 427

424. NFPA ___________, Life Safety Code.

Answer 427

428. NFPA 101

Question 428

429. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in 29 CFR 1910.134 state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of___________.

Answer 428

429. Two or more

Question 429

430. NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

Answer 429

430. NFPA 1500

Question 430

431. When searching large or complex spaces that are filled with smoke, some fire departments employ a primary search system that uses a dedicated search line. The search line consists of _____ feet of _____-inch rope with a Kevlar sheath for maximum abrasion protection and heat resistance. Every ___ feet along its length, a ___-inch steel ring is tied into the search line.

Answer 430

431. 200 feet. 3/8 inch rope. 20 feet. 2 inch steel ring

Question 430

432. Implementing a primary search using a search line system requires a team with a minimum of _____ firefighters, although more is better.

Answer 430

432. 3 firefighter

Question 431

433. About ____ feet outside of the entry point (or as close as possible) to the area being searched, the end of the search line is tied to a fixed object about ____ feet above the floor.

Answer 431

433. 10 feet. 3 feet

Question 432

434. Under certain conditions, NFPA 1500 allows members of a RIC to perform other duties outside of the hazard zone as long as one member remains at the ___________.

Answer 432

434. Entry point

Question 433

435. The most significant difference between telescoping doors and other types of service doors is that telescoping doors consist of two layers (skins) separated by at least ____ inches of air space.

Answer 433

435. 2 inches of air space

Question 434

436. Exterior masonry walls usually range from ___ to ___ inches or more in thickness, depending upon the material used.

Answer 434

436. 8 to 12 inches

Question 435

437. For PPV, blowers are set up about ___ feet outside the point of entry into the building so the cone of air they create completely covers the inlet opening.

Answer 435

437. 6 feet

Question 436

438. Compared with mechanical smoke ejectors, fog streams are capable of removing ____________________ more smoke, depending on the type and size of the nozzle, the angle of the spray pattern, and the location of the nozzle in relation to the ventilation opening.

Answer 436

438. Two to four times more smoke

Question 437

439. A fog or spray stream directed through a window or doorway with a ___-degree pattern covering ___ to ___ percent of the opening provides the best results for ventilation.

Answer 437

439. 60 degree pattern. 80 to 90 percent of the opening

Question 438

440. Most roof assemblies employ a parallel rafter system with rafters spaced from __ to ___ inches on center, spanning the shortest distance between structural members or bearing walls.

Answer 438

440. 12 to 24 inches

Question 439

441. If sounding does not reveal the location and direction of the rafters, a diagonal cut through the roof covering can be made with a chain saw or rotary saw at an angle of __ degrees to any exterior wall.

Answer 439

441. 45 degrees to any exterior wall

Question 440

442. While departmental SOPs must always be followed, it is recommended that a clear space of at least ___ feet be maintained in all directions from anyone using a cutting tool in vertical ventilation.

Answer 440

442. 10 feet

Question 441

443. A roof that decreases 5 inches vertically for each foot horizontally from the ridge would be described as a ___________roof, which is the most common pitch on residential roofs in areas with mild climates.

Answer 441

443. Five-in-twelve roof

Question 442

444. A roof designed to withstand a heavy snow load might have a ____________pitch (____-degree angle).

Answer 442

444. Twelve-in-twelve pitch. 45 degree angle

Question 443

445. Because it is difficult and time consuming to cut concrete roofs that are more than ___ inches thick, they are often designed with built-in access panels that can be lifted out in an emergency.

Answer 443

445. 4 inches thick

Question 444

446. Typically, arches are spaced at ___ to ___ foot centers.

Answer 444

446. 16 to 20 foot centers

Question 445

447. Panelized roof construction consists of laminated beams of various sizes – commonly __ × __ inches – that span the length or width of the building.

Answer 445

447. 6x36 inches

Question 446

448. Wooden I-beams consist of three main components: a top chord, a bottom chord, and a solid _____-inch plywood or OSB web.

Answer 446

448. 3/8 inch

Question 447

449. Roof coverings are classified in NFPA ___, Guidelines on Roof Coverings and Roof Deck Construction.

Answer 447

449. NFPA 203

Question 448

450. Shakes and shingles are usually nailed to wooden 1- × 4-inch or 1- × 6-inch ___________________ with a space of about 1 inch between the planks.

Answer 448

450. Plank sheathing

Question 449

451. Concrete, clay, or ceramic tile roofs use tiles that are usually flat, interlocking pieces that hook over 1- × 2-inch __________ (sometimes called_______________) nailed to the sheathing or directly to the rafters.

Answer 449

451. Battens. Furring strips

Question 450

452. Because a 1/4-inch steel plate weighs about _____ pounds per square foot, a 20 × 50-foot roof would have approximately 10,000 pounds added to it.

Answer 450

452. 10 pounds per square foot

Question 451

453. The time required to enlarge an opening of inadequate size or to cut several smaller holes is greater than that required to make one large opening. One 8 × 8 foot opening is equal in area to ______ 4 × 4 foot holes.

Answer 451

453. Four 4x4 foot holes

Question 452

454. Trench ventilation is accomplished by cutting an opening in the roof, at least ___ feet wide, across the entire width of the building.

Answer 452

454. 4 feet wide

Question 453

455. A fully equipped firefighter, especially one wearing a full tool belt or carrying spare air tanks, can weigh more than _____ pounds.

Answer 453

455. 300 pounds

Question 454

456. Most PPV blowers positioned at street level are effective up to about ______ floors.

Answer 454

456. Up to 22 floors

Question 455

457. Assuming that the structure is closed, with little or no gases being vented to the atmosphere, a neutral pressure plane exists at the level of ambient atmospheric pressure (usually between ____ percent and ____ percent of the building height).

Answer 455

457. 35 and 50 percent of the building height

Question 456

458. The standard that provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke and heat venting equipment, NFPA ______, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, recommends using automatic heat-activated roof vents and curtain boards.

Answer 456

458. NFPA 204

Question 457

459. In_____, Homeland Security Presidential Directive-___, Management of Domestic Incidents, was issued.

Answer 457

459. 2003, presidential directive 5

Question 458

460. HSPD-5 directed the U.S. Secretary of Homeland Security to develop and administer a National Response Plan, later renamed the________________________________.

Answer 458

National Response Framework

Question 459

461. Extraordinary control measures may be necessary in _____________(those involving large-scale building-to-building spread) that may involve an entire city block, and ______________ (huge fires that cross streets, highways, rivers, or other natural fire breaks) that may engulf entire neighborhoods.

Answer 459

461. Group fires. Conflagrations

Question 460

(CH2=CHCHO)

Answer 460

462. Acrolein

Question 461

(HCl)

Answer 461

463. Hydrogen chloride

Question 462

(HCN)

Answer 462

464. Hydrogen cyanide

Question 463

(CO2)

Answer 463

465. Carbon dioxide

Question 464

(NO and NO2)

Answer 464

466. Nitrogen oxides

Question 465

(CCl2O)

Answer 465

467. Phosgene