Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Matts Driver Bible > Matt's Driver Bible SRATEGY 1st version > Flashcards

Matt's Driver Bible SRATEGY 1st version Flashcards

1
Q
  1. _____________ describes the meeting point between fire science, materials science, fluid dynamics of gases, and heat transfer. (S9)
A
  1. Fire dynamics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. ** The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius is ______ joules. (S11)
A
  1. 4.2 joules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
    • Fuels hold a certain amount of potential energy before ignition, based on chemical composition. This potential energy available for release in the combustion process is known as the________________________. (S10-11.)
A
  1. heat of combustion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. ** A Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1 degree Fahrenheit. When comparing joules and Btu, _______ J = 1 Btu. (S11)
A
  1. 1055 J = 1 BTU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In the case of_____________, there is no well-defined inlet or outlet, as the air is entrained (drawn in) from all around the burning fuel. (S14)
A
  1. open burning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. _______________________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of _________________ causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2 percent _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (S15)
A
  1. Carbon monoxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent, irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory tract and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. _______________ is a suspected carcinogen. (S15)
A
  1. Formaldehyde
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless, toxic, and flammable liquid below 79° F, produced by the combustion of nitrogen-bearing substances. It is a chemical asphyxiant that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen. It is commonly encountered in smoke in concentrations lower than carbon monoxide. (S15)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. _____________________ = Reddish-brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (S15)
A
  1. Nitrogen dioxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. ___________________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to particulates can cause eye irritation and respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).
A
  1. Particulates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. ______________ is toxic and corrosive, and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (S15)
A
  1. Sulfer dioxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. ** CO molecules attach to hemoglobin, decreasing the blood’s ability to carry oxygen, as it combines with hemoglobin about __________times more effectively than oxygen.
A
  1. 200 times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. ** _____________________is a toxic and flammable substance produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen.
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Smoke frequently contains ______, although at lower concentrations than CO.
A
  1. HCN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Incomplete combustion of substances that contain nitrogen and carbon produces ____.
A
  1. HCN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. ** HCN is a significant byproduct of the combustion of ____________________ used in many household furnishings.
A
  1. Polyurethane foam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. ** HCN is ____ times more toxic than CO.
A
  1. 35 times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
    • HCN acts as a chemical asphyxiant with a different mechanism of action than CO. HCN prevents the body from using oxygen at the _________ level.
A
  1. Cellular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Inhaled __________ enters the bloodstream and prevents the blood cells from using oxygen properly, killing the cells.
A
  1. Inhaled HCN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. CO2 is a product of complete combustion of __________ materials.
A
  1. Organic materials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. CO2 acts as a respiratory _____________.
A
  1. Stimulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. ** More than ____________ irritants in smoke have been identified, including hydrogen chloride, formaldehyde, and acrolein.
A
  1. Twenty irritants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. A working knowledge of fire dynamics requires an understanding of temperature, energy, and power or___________________. (S18)
A
  1. heat release rate (HRR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. _______is the thermal kinetic energy needed to release a fuel’s potential chemical energy. (S18)
A
  1. Heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. ____________energy is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions. (S19)
A
  1. Chemical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. ____________ frequently causes exposure fires. (S24)
A
  1. Radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. ** Power indicates the rate at which energy transfers. Another way to describe power is the rate at which energy converts between forms. The standard international (SI) unit for power is the ______. One _____ is 1 joule per second (J/s). (S25)
A
  1. watt (W). watt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
    • A fuel’s __________influences its heat of combustion and HRR. The fuel’s _____________________ equals the total amount of thermal energy released when a specific amount of that fuel burns. (S25)
A
  1. chemical content, heat of combustion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. ______ represents the energy released per unit of time as a fuel burns, usually expressed in kilowatts (kW) or megawatts (MW). (S25)
A
  1. HRR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. FLASH POINT OF GASOLINE IS: ______ degrees F. (S28)
A
  1. -45 degrees F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. FIRE POINT OF GASOLINE IS: _____ to ____degrees F. (S28)
A
  1. -40 to -35 degrees F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______° F present a significant flammability hazard.(S28)
A
  1. 100 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. ** Pyrolysis of wood begins at temperatures below ______° F, lower than the temperature required for ignition of the released vapors. (S29)
A
  1. Below 400 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
    • Ignition of PUF occurs at ____ F. Auto-ignition of PUF can occur at temperatures in the range of ____ F to ____F. (PUF = Polyurethane Foam) (S30)
A
  1. 698°, 797° to 833°
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. ** Normally, air consists of about ___ percent oxygen. (S31)
A
  1. 21 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. ** At normal ambient temperatures (68° F), materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as ___ percent. (S32)
A
  1. 15 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. ** Typically, an atmosphere having less than _____ percent oxygen is considered oxygen-deficient and presents a hazard to persons not wearing respiratory protection, such as SCBA. (S32)
A
  1. 19.5 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. ** When the atmosphere’s oxygen concentration exceeds _____ percent, the atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched and presents an increased fire risk. (S32)
A
  1. 23.5 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. ** When placed in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere of approximately _____ percent oxygen, Nomex® ignites and burns vigorously. (S32)
A
  1. 31 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Methane FR = ___%-___%
A
  1. Methane FR = 5%-15%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Propane FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Propane FR = 2.1% - 9.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide FR = ___% -___%
A
  1. Carbon Monoxide FR = 12% -75%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Gasoline FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Gasoline FR = 1.4% - 7.4%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Diesel FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Diesel FR = 1.3% - 6%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Ethanol FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Ethanol FR = 3.3% - 19%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Methanol FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Methanol FR = 6% - 35.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. ** A visual indicator that a fire is leaving the incipient stage is flame height. When flames reach ____ ft high, radiated heat begins to transfer more heat than convection.(S36)
A
  1. 2.5 feet high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
    • When the fuel package is not in the middle of the room, the _________________(the area where air is available to feed the fire) expands vertically, and a higher plume results. (S37)
A
  1. combustion zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
    • The appearance of isolated flames is sometimes an immediate indicator of___________________. (S39)
A
  1. flashover
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. ** As flashover occurs, the gas temperatures in the room reach ________° F or higher. (S42)
A
  1. 1,100 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. ** During flashover, the volume of burning gases can increase from approximately ____ to _____ of the room’s upper volume to fill the entire volume and extend out of any openings. (S42)
A
  1. ¼ to ½ of the rooms upper volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. ** NOTE: The autoignition temperature of CO, the most abundant fuel gas created in most fires, is approximately _________ ° F. (S43)
A
  1. 1,100 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. ** WARNING: Wind-driven conditions can occur in any type of structure. Wind speeds as low as ___ mph can create wind-driven fire conditions. (S52)
A
  1. 10 mph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
    • Any open space with no complete, dividing fire barrier is considered a______________. (S58)
A
  1. compartment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. ** In single-family residential structures, the square footage of houses increased over ____ percent between 1973 and 2008. (S58)
A
  1. 150 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. ** For steel trusses, _____° F is the critical temperature of steel — the temperature at which steel begins to weaken. (S60)
A
  1. 1000 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
    • An arched or curved outline often indicates a ______________roof. * Before 1960, the ________________ roof design was one of the most common design types for large commercial and industrial structures. (S61)
A
  1. bowstring truss, bowstring truss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
    • Prefire surveys should provide information on hidden construction features and should be consulted during __________ and operations. (S61)
A
  1. size-up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Type I — _________________.
A
  1. Fire-resistive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Type II —____________________________.
A
  1. Noncombustible/limited combustible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Type III — ________________.
A
  1. Ordinary.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Type IV — ________________.
A
  1. Heavy timber.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Type V — _________________.
A
  1. Wood frame.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. ** In Type I construction, all structural members consist of _______________ materials with high fire-resistance ratings, unless exempted by the building code. (S72)
A
  1. Noncombustible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
    • Type ___ constructions are composed of noncombustible or protected noncombustible materials. (S72)
A
  1. Type II
64
Q
    • Non-wood materials used in Type IV construction must have a fire-resistance rating of at least_____________. (S74.)
A
  1. one hour
65
Q
    • ______________is defined as solid, built-up, panelized, or engineered wood products having minimum dimensions as set forth by the code. (S74)
A
  1. Mass timber
66
Q
  1. *________________, an assembly of two wood flanges connected by a wooden web, are used extensively in residential floor and roof framing. The web is made of 3/8-inch or 7/16-inch plywood. (S76)
A
  1. I-joists (Not I-Beam!)
67
Q
  • Since 2012, the International Residential Code (IRC) has required that _______inch gypsum board or equivalent protection be provided on the underside of floor framing members less than 2 x 10 inches nominal or larger framing members. (S76)
A
  1. 1/2-inch
68
Q
  1. ** Since _______, manufactured homes must meet the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (HUD Code). (S77)
A
  1. 1976
69
Q
    • Unlike manufactured homes, __________homes conform to the same state, local, or regional building codes as site-built homes. (S77)
A
  1. modular homes
70
Q
  1. ** Use of asbestos has decreased dramatically in the U.S. since the ______, but asbestos exposure is still a concern in older buildings.
A
  1. 1970s
71
Q
  1. ** NFPA _______, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting.
A
  1. NFPA 1851
72
Q
  1. ** Standard ceilings rise ___ to ___ feet and vaulted or cathedral ceilings may reach higher than ____ feet.
A
  1. 8 to 12 feet. 13 feet
73
Q
    • Some open office floor plans subdivide by partitions into individual workstations or cubicles. These partitions generally stand __ to __ feet and may not be secured to the floor or to a permanent wall. (S78)
A
  1. 4 to 6 feet
74
Q
  1. ** Compartmentation is typical in _______ residential and commercial structures, office buildings, and schools. (S79)
A
  1. Pre-1980
75
Q
  1. The space between the top floor of a structure and the roof is known as the ______ or ____________. (S80)
A
  1. attic of cockloft
76
Q
    • A __________ is a large, concealed space between the top floor ceiling and the underside of a roof deck in a commercial building or flat roof spaces. This non occupied space is normally 2 to 3 feet in height. (S80)
A
  1. cockloft
77
Q
  1. ** Ceiling height of a typical basement is approximately ___ to ___ feet, allowing the fire to rise rapidly. (S81)
A
  1. 8 to 9 feet
78
Q
    • High-rise buildings and/or any Type I building are not as likely to collapse, making falling glass from windows or ____________ the primary hazard. (S88)
A
  1. curtain walls
79
Q
  1. ** When exposed to temperatures above _________° F , unprotected steel expands and twists, pushing out walls, and slightly constricts when cooled. (S89)
A
  1. 1000 degrees
80
Q
  1. ** Steel expands .06 percent to .07 percent in length for each _____° F rise in temperature. It expands up to 9.5 inches when exposed to temperatures above 1,000° F and fails at ________° F. (S89)
A
  1. 100 degree rise, 1200 F
81
Q
  1. ** _____ steel is the most commonly used structural steel in the United States. (S96)
A
  1. A36 steel
82
Q
  1. ** Steel loses strength at around ____° F. (S96)
A
  1. 570 degrees
83
Q
  1. ** After flashover, structural steel supports less than ____ percent of its designed load and could fail at any time. (S96)
A
  1. 40 percent
84
Q
    • Gypsum’s high water content gives it excellent heat-resistant and fire-retardant properties. It breaks down gradually under fire conditions through______________. (S98)
A
  1. calcination
85
Q
    • ________ gypsum board includes glass fibers that act as reinforcement. The glass fibers provide tensile strength for the inner gypsum core and prevent its deterioration when exposed to fire. (S98)
A
  1. Type X
86
Q
    • ________gypsum board contains vermiculite that expands when exposed to heat.(S98)
A
  1. Type C
87
Q
  1. ** Lath and plaster construction is generally found in buildings constructed before ____. (S98)
A
  1. Before 1950
88
Q
    • NFPA________, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting. (S100)
A
  1. NFPA 1851
89
Q
  1. ____________________________________— Originally used in the 1970s for insulating walls, this material caused high levels of formaldehyde emissions when improperly installed. It may still appear in some older houses. (S100)
A
  1. Urea Formaldehyde Foam Insulation (UFFI)
90
Q
  1. ____________________— The term refers to different materials: slag wool and rock wool. Accounting for approximately 80 percent of ___________ produced, slag wool primarily from iron ore blast furnace slag, an industrial waste product. Rock wool is produced from rocks. Prior to the 1960s, ___________ was the most common type of insulation. (S100)
A
  1. Mineral wool, mineral wool, mineral wool
91
Q
  1. ___________________ — Most comes from approximately 80 percent post-consumer recycled newspaper by weight; the rest is composed of fire-retardant chemicals and acrylic binders in some products. Over time, _______ loses its ability to be fire-retardant. It is also a respiratory irritant. (S100)
A
  1. Cellulose
92
Q
  1. ___________________ — It consists of 85 percent recycled ______ and 15 plastic fibers treated with borate, the same flame retardant and insect/rodent repellent used in cellulose insulation. It is as effective as fiberglass or cellulose, has fewer documented health risks than fiberglass, and offers easy installation. It costs more than fiberglass and is widely available. (S100)
A
  1. Cotton
93
Q

__________________ — Used in the exterior walls of hybrid or natural (green) construction buildings and houses. It can be affected by moisture and may become infested by insects and vermin. (S100)

A
  1. Straw
94
Q
  1. __________________ — Applied in rigid boards called extruded and expanded polystyrene (EPS) or blown into wall cavities or voids in spray form. Spray ______ can irritate the respiratory system, has a high toxicity level, and adds to the fuel load. ______ blocks are incorporated into building construction. (S100)
A
  1. Foam
95
Q
    • The combustion of _____________ produces hydrogen chloride, the gaseous form of hydrochloric acid. (S101)
A
  1. vinyl chloride
96
Q
    • Occupancy types help with ______________ and estimating the fuel load. (S102)
A
  1. rescue profiling
97
Q
    • An assembly occupancy is defined as a building or structure, or any portion thereof, used for the gathering of _________ or more persons, and the occupancy may vary in size and type. (S103)
A
  1. fifty or more persons
98
Q
  1. ** In 2011-2015, U.S. fire departments responded to an estimated average of ________ structure fires per year in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 30,200 structure fire in vacant properties
99
Q
  1. Fires in __________ buildings are more likely to be intentionally set and spread beyond the building than fires in other structures. (S108)
A
  1. Vacant
100
Q
  1. ** _____ percent of reported structure fires in 2011-2015 were in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 6 percent
101
Q
  1. ** Only ___ percent of civilian structure fire deaths and _____ percent of civilian structure fire injuries resulted from fires in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 2 percent. 1 percent
102
Q
  1. ** ____________ percent of firefighter injuries at structure fires occurred in or at vacant buildings. (S108)
A
  1. Thirteen percent
103
Q
    • A residential or commercial property for sale may be considered ___________when an occupant has moved out. (S108)
A
  1. Unoccupied
104
Q
    • __________residential or commercial property may have entrances secured or boarded up. (S108)
A
  1. Vacant
105
Q
    • An _____________ property has been vacant for some time. (S108)
A
  1. abandoned
106
Q
  1. NFPA _____, Standard for Pre-Incident Planning.
A
  1. NFPA 1620
107
Q
  1. ** NFPA _____, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke-and-heat venting equipment. (S118)
A
  1. NFPA 204
108
Q
  • The _____________________ establishes an organizational structure for all emergency incidents. (S127)
A
  1. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
109
Q
    • The ____________________ provides a model for safe and efficient incident scene management. (S127)
A
  1. NIMS-Incident Command System (ICS)
110
Q
    • NIMS-ICS bases incident management and coordination on ____ NIMS Management Characteristics (formerly called ICS Management Characteristics). (S128)
A
  1. 14 NIMS Management Characteristics
111
Q
  1. ___________ — Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management includes: — Operations. — Planning. — Logistics. — Finance/Administration. — Information and Intelligence. (S129)
A
  1. Section
112
Q
  1. ____________ — Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizationally located between Section and Division or Group. (S129)
A
  1. Branch
113
Q
  1. ____________ — Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; organizationally between Branch and single resources, task force, or strike team (described in the following section). (S129)
A
  1. Division
114
Q
  1. Resources assigned to a Division report to that Division ___________.
A
  1. Supervisor
115
Q
  1. ____________ — Organizational level, equal to Division, having responsibility for a specified functional assignment (such as ventilation, salvage, water supply) at an incident without regard to a specific geographical area. (S129)
A
  1. Group
116
Q
  1. ________________ — Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation ____, within the Planning Section. (S129)
A
  1. Unit
117
Q
  1. ** According to the 2008 NIMS-ICS model, the span-of-control ratio for ICS ranged from ______ to ______ subordinates per supervisor, with ______ being optimal. (S131)
A
  1. Three to seven. 5 being optimal
118
Q
  1. ** NIMS 2017 suggests an optimal span of control of one supervisor to _____ subordinates. (S131)
A
  1. Five subordinates
119
Q
    • __________________________________objectives are to provide the IC with access to and control over all available resources. (S132)
A
  1. Comprehensive resource management objectives
120
Q
  1. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) categorizes pumping apparatus and mobile water supply apparatus based on __________(Federal Emergency Management Agency, 2005). (S133)
A
  1. Capability
121
Q
    • ________________________ maintain connectivity, achieve situational awareness, and facilitate information sharing. (S134)
A
  1. Integrated communications
122
Q
    • ICS requires an _____________________system that can send and receive information. (S134)
A
  1. integrated communication
123
Q
    • The __________ acts as the concluding step in the initial size-up decision-making process and leads to the required verbal establishment of command. The fire officer then prepares to utilize the seven components of the Arrival Report, also known as the Initial On-Scene Report or Brief Incident Report (BIR). (S137)
A
  1. 360 Report
124
Q
    • The ICS Form ______ serves as a standard format to record key situational information and document actions taken on an incident. (S138)
A
  1. Form 201
125
Q
    • The IC can use visual aids to help manage and track assigned resources. The visual aid can be as simple as a printed form, called__________________, to sketch the incident scene and the location of units as they arrive. (S142)
A
  1. Tactical Work Sheets
126
Q
    • Position or hold the microphone according to the manufacturer’s recommendations. When transmitting, the radio/microphone goes __ to __ inches from the speaker’s mouth or self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) voice port. (S145)
A
  1. 1 to 2 inches
127
Q
    • The size-up process begins ___________________and continues throughout the incident. (S153)
A
  1. Before an incident gets reported
128
Q
    • The _________________________________follows a logical sequence of identifying the problems, prioritizing the problems, and selecting the best alternatives to solve it. (S157)
A
  1. traditional model of decision-making
129
Q
    • _________________________ provides another way to understand how people make decisions in challenging, real-world settings. NDM challenges the idea that, to make a good decision, people must move from data to information to knowledge to understanding. (S158)
A
  1. Naturalistic Decision-Making (NDM)
130
Q
    • In the 1980s, researcher Gary Klein developed the _________model while studying how fireground commanders make decisions in stressful, time-compressed, and high-risk environments. (S158)
A
  1. RPDM model
131
Q
  1. ICs must move quickly from identifying the problem(s) or incident priorities to determining the strategic goals and implementing the solution.* The strategic goals aim to meet the _______________, which are life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation. (S159)
A
  1. incident priorities
132
Q
    • In fire fighting terms, a decision or strategy becomes a _______when an assignment gets communicated and actions or tasks are employed. (S160)
A
  1. tactic
133
Q
    • _________________serve as specific functions to meet strategic goals. (S160)
A
  1. Tactical objectives
134
Q
    • Without a prefire plan, the _____________________________________may provide the IC with a street view of the address before arrival on scene. (S162)
A
  1. Mobile Data Terminal/Computer (MDT/C)
135
Q
    • Although fire crews consist of leaders and individual members/followers, the group functions best as a cohesive team. * _______________________________works as a program or approach to use resources effectively. (S170)
A
  1. Crew resource management (CRM)
136
Q
  1. NFPA _____ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program.
A
  1. NFPA 1500
137
Q
  1. ** A modern structural fire can quickly exceed _____° F, creating the potential for flashover (approximately 1,110° F within minutes). (S172)
A
  1. 500 degrees
138
Q
    • In 2010, the Safety, Health, and Survival (SHS) Section of the International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) released its initial draft of___________________________________________________________. (S173)
A
  1. Rules of Engagement for Structural Fire Fighting - Increasing Firefighter Survival
139
Q
    • After determining the appropriate level of risk, the IC can decide on an____________________. Traditionally, the fire service uses two types of operation: offensive strategy and defensive strategy. (S184)
A
  1. operational strategy
140
Q
    • ICs must conduct personnel accountability reports (PARs) to check on the welfare of all firefighters at predictable intervals. These reports are conducted on scene every _____ to _________ minutes in accordance with department SOPs. (S186)
A
  1. ten to twenty minutes
141
Q
    • If the incident is large enough to require multiple alarms or agencies for a prolonged period, generally over ____ hours, the IAP should be expanded to a more formal tracking model utilizing standardized ICS forms to record the plan. (S187)
A
  1. 12 hours
142
Q
    • During the initial size-up, the IC must consider the number and type of units responding and the___________, the length of time until they are ready to deploy at the scene. (S191)
A
  1. Flextime
143
Q
    • A wide-area search method employs a dedicated search line to conduct a primary search of a large or complex area filled with smoke. A minimum of ______ team members are required, but larger teams can be more effective. (S201)
A
  1. 3 team members
144
Q
  1. ICs often select ________ as a rescue tactic when there is a credible report of possible victims in survivable areas of a structure. (S202)
A
  1. VEIS
145
Q
    • ______________refers to the tactical operations required to prevent fire spread in the structure. (S206)
A
  1. Confinement
146
Q
    • Vertical ventilation can pull or change the flow path of fire away from victims inside the structure, a tactic also known as________________. (S207)
A
  1. venting for life
147
Q
    • The ________________ technique utilizes a solid or straight stream pattern when attacking the fire in a bidirectional flow path. Firefighters apply water to hot compartment surfaces to cool them and reduce heat radiation. (S212)
A
  1. surface cooling
148
Q
    • The __________________ technique utilizes a fog pattern that creates small water droplets. Firefighters apply water in short bursts to the smoke volume while attempting to avoid hot surfaces. (S212)
A
  1. gas cooling
149
Q
  1. ** Deploying a master stream device and the necessary hoselines usually requires a minimum of ____ firefighters. (S213)
A
  1. two
150
Q
  1. Aerial apparatus, such as quints, aerial ladders, and aerial platforms, commonly deliver elevated master streams and rapid water stream applications (sometimes known as______________________________). (S213)
A
  1. quick hits from the device
151
Q
  1. A ___________from the exterior is intended to have the same effect as a transitional attack. (S123)
A
  1. quick hit
151
Q
  1. ** Winds as slow as ____ mph can affect structure fires, potentially making them wind-driven. (S217)
A
  1. 10 mph
152
Q
    • Firefighters can use high-volume fans to exhaust smoke, heat, and toxic gases to the exterior after fire suppression. This tactic is known as____________________________. (S219)
A
  1. positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)
153
Q
    • Unlike positive pressure attack (PPA), the application of PPV requires less emphasis on the__________________________. (S219)
A
  1. exhaust-to-intake ratio
154
Q
  1. ** Floor-by-floor smoke control systems are typical in commercial high-rises constructed prior to ______. In these buildings, an activated smoke detector can initiate negative pressure fans on the fire floor and positive pressure fans on the floor directly above and below the fire floor. In the early 1990s, the major building codes began requiring pressurized stairwells in lieu of floor-by-floor smoke control. (S223)
A
  1. Prior to 1990
155
Q
    • If the building has only one stairwell, ventilation becomes increasingly complicated. Firefighters should not perform ventilation via the single stairwell until they have searched and cleared the stairwell from the top floor to at least ________floors below the fire floor. (S226)
A
  1. five
156
Q
    • Overhaul operations begin after firefighters have extinguished the main body of the fire. Prior to beginning overhaul, the fire department should make an attempt to determine the cause and point of origin. This is an appropriate time for crews to undergo rehab and_______________________. (S231)
A
  1. medical surveillance
157
Q
  1. ** Fire officers certified to NFPA _____, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, should be able to determine the cause and origin of most fires. (S233)
A
  1. NFPA 1021
158
Q
    • If floor beams have burned ends where they enter a __________ (a load-bearing wall that usually serves as a fire wall), flush the voids in the wall with water. (S233)
A
  1. party wall

Matts Driver Bible (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions