Matt's Driver Bible PUMPING Full & Final

Question 1

1. Fire apparatus are classified according to the ___________for which they are designed. (P13)

Answer 1

1. primary function

Question 2

2. NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, contains the requirements of pumper design. The standard specifies a minimum pump capacity of ____ gpm and a water tank with a capacity of at least ____ gallons. (P14)

Answer 2

2. 750. 300

Question 3

3. Pump capacities larger than 750 gpm increase in increments of ____ gpm with most municipal fire departments operating pumpers of _______ gpm or less. (P14)

Answer 3

3. 250. 2000

Question 4

4. The foam proportioning systems commonly found on municipal fire pumpers are scaled down versions of those used for industrial fire pumpers. Likewise, the foam tanks are correspondingly smaller, usually ranging from ___ to ____ gallons. (P16)

Answer 4

4. 20 to 100

Question 5

5. TQ** The articulating or telescoping devices most commonly combined with pumpers generally range in height from ____to ____ feet. (P16)

Answer 5

5. 50 to 75

Question 6

6. Mini-Pumper. — Small fire apparatus mounted on a pickup-truck-sized chassis, usually with a pump having a rated capacity less than _____ gpm. Its primary advantage is speed and mobility, which enables it to respond to fires more rapidly than larger apparatus. (P16)

Answer 6

6. 500

Question 7

7. Midi-Pumper. — Apparatus sized between a mini-pumper and a full-sized fire department pumper, usually with a gross vehicle weight of _______ pounds or greater. The midi-pumper has a fire pump with a rated capacity generally not greater than _____ gpm. Pump 16.

Answer 7

7. 12,000. 1000

Question 8

8. Mobile water supply apparatus, as stated in NFPA® 1901, Chapter 7, are equipped with a tank capacity of at least _______ gallons. Pump 17.

Answer 8

8. 1000

Question 9

9. Specially designed wildland apparatus are often mounted on ______or larger chassis, usually featuring all-wheel drive. Pump 19.

Answer 9

9. one-ton

Question 10

10. Commonly known as brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus, these vehicles often have pump capacities and water tanks of _____ gallons or less. However, some jurisdictions operate larger apparatus with pumps up to 1,000 gpm and water tanks of 1,000 gallons or larger. (P19)

Answer 10

10. 500

Question 11

IFSTA does not recommend riding on the outside of the apparatus, and this practice is prohibited by NFPA ______ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

Answer 11

11. NFPA 1500. Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

Question 12

12. Requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in NFPA _______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Fire-Fighting Vehicles. (P20)

Answer 12

12. NFPA 414

Question 13

13. **Some fireboats have capacities as high as __________ gpm. Pump 21.

Answer 13

13. 50,000

Question 14

14. ** A quint is an apparatus equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders. According to the NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, the vehicle must be equipped with a pump rated at a minimum of _______ gpm and a water tank of at least _______ gallons. (P22)

Answer 14

14. 1000, 300

Question 15

15. **Portable generators are available with a variety of power capacities; _________watts is typically the largest capacity. (P23)

Answer 15

15. 5,000

Question 16

16. **Rescue apparatus or other specialized units may feature fixed generator systems with capacities of ___________ watts or greater. (P23)

Answer 16

16. 50,000

Question 17

17. **Ranging from _______to _______watts, portable lights are advantageous during incidents where illumination is needed some distance away from a piece of apparatus, or where additional lights are required. (P23)

Answer 17

17. 300 to 1000

Question 18

18. Driver/ operators in many jurisdictions are required to perform these routine maintenance checks and functions. NFPA® _______ also requires that driver/operators be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks. (P29)

Answer 18

18. NFPA 1002

Question 19

19. NFPA®___________, Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications, provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus mechanics and fire department maintenance officers. (P29)

Answer 19

19. NFPA 1071

Question 20

20. Every fire department should develop standard operating procedures (SOPs) that provide for a ______________________that complies with applicable NFPA® standards.

Answer 20

20. systematic apparatus maintenance program

Question 21

21. TQ**___________________________— Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in place, clean, and ready for service. (P36)

Answer 21

21. Operational Readiness Inspection

Question 22

22. **______________________________— A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition.(P36)

Answer 22

22. Pre-trip Road Worthiness Inspection

Question 23

23. ____________________— An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly. (P36)

Answer 23

23. Functional Check

Question 24

*____________________— A specific inspection to an area of a chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit is operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design. (P48)

Answer 24

24. Post-Maintenance/Repair Inspection

Question 25

25. CAUTION: Diesel exhaust may contain up to _______ harmful chemicals and compounds. (P37)

Answer 25

25. 100

Question 26

26. ** NFPA® 1911 requires that all tires be replaced every _______ years, regardless of their condition. (P39)

Answer 26

26. Seven

Question 27

27. • Newer apparatus may be equipped with electrical ____________________that are intended to prevent an overload of a vehicle’s electrical generation system. (P40)

Answer 27

27. load management systems

Question 28

28. The _________ “watches” the system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system. (P40)

Answer 28

28. load monitor

Question 29

29. If an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent the overload. This is referred to as___________________. (P40)

Answer 29

29. load shedding

Question 30

30. _____________________— When an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload. (P40)

Answer 30

30. Load Shedding

Question 31

31. _________________________ — An electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level. (P40)

Answer 31

31. Load Management System

Question 32

32. In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately _______degrees in either direction. (P40)

Answer 32

32. 10

Question 33

33. On a 20-inch diameter steering wheel, the play may be about ______ inches in either direction. (P41)

Answer 33

33. 2

Question 34

34. **Per NFPA® 1901 and 1911, a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed ______ percent. (P42)

Answer 34

34. Seven

Question 35

35. Most commercial and private vehicles built since 1990 are equipped with__________________________.(P42)

Answer 35

35. Anti-Lock Braking Systems

Question 36

36. **Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below ______ psi. (P43)

Answer 36

36. 80

Question 37

37. In addition to a DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after-treatment system called____________________________. (P45)

Answer 37

37. Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR)

Question 38

38. NFPA®_______ , Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver⁄Operator Professional Qualifications, has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/ operators. (P79)

Answer 38

38. NFPA 1002

Question 39

39. NOTE: A periodic medical evaluation, in accordance with the NFPA_______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, should be administered under the direction of the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) in order to establish and maintain a driver/operator’s fitness for duty. (P82)

Answer 39

39. NFPA 1500

Question 40

40. NFPA ________, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments, provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye. (P82)

Answer 40

40. NFPA 1582

Question 41

41. NFPA _________ contains a list of frequencies that a driver/ operator must be able to hear and recommends rejecting a candidate who has hearing loss among those frequencies. (P82)

Answer 41

41. NFPA 1582

Question 42

42. In a study conducted by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), it was determined that in _____ percent of all collisions, the driver/operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct. (P88)

Answer 42

42. 42 percent

Question 43

43. NFPA ________, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, and NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, establish requirements for seat belt use on the apparatus. (P90)

Answer 43

43. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1500

Question 44

44. Beginning with engines produced in_________, apparatus began to be equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF). (P94)

Answer 44

44. 2007

Question 45

45. After a driver/operator continues to ignore an empty DEF tank, the apparatus may be limited in speed to _______ mph and will need service from the dealer. (P95)

Answer 45

45. 5 mph

Question 46

46. TQ** Weigh the apparatus after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that the axle loading is balanced within _______ percent from side to side and within the axle weight ratings front-to-back. (P98)

Answer 46

46. 7 percent

Question 47

47. There are ________ locations in the U.S. where there is less than 100 feet following the railroad tracks.

Answer 47

47. 19,824 locations

Question 48

48. It may take ____to ____ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement. (P99)

Answer 48

48. 3 to 15 times greater

Question 49

49. *At speeds above _____ mph , an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device. (P101)

Answer 49

49. 50 mph

Question 50

50. *In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by _____ feet or more. (P101)

Answer 50

50. 250 feet or more

Question 51

51. *When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel at least ________to _______ feet apart. (P101)

Answer 51

51. 300 to 500 feet

Question 52

52. • The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is____________________. (P105)

Answer 52

52. visual lead time

Question 53

53. • The ____________________is the distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop. (P105)

Answer 53

53. braking distance

Question 54

54. • After perceiving the need to stop the vehicle, the driver/operator’s ______________is the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal. (P105)

Answer 54

54. reaction distance

Question 55

55. • The _____________________is the sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance. (P105)

Answer 55

55. total stopping distance

Question 56

56. **NFPA® 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _________ lb or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system. (P109)

Answer 56

56. 36,000 lb

Question 57

57. • _______________________ and ______________________provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes. (P110)

Answer 57

57. Transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders

Question 58

58. TQ** The ____________is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices. (P110)

Answer 58

58. Exhaust brake

Question 59

59. • An __________________brake is an electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train. (P110)

Answer 59

59. engine compression

Question 60

60. • _____________________dissipate heat through cooling vanes into the surrounding air. (P110)

Answer 60

60. Electromagnetic retarders

Question 61

61. • ________________________will experience some loss of effectiveness at high temperatures. (P110)

Answer 61

61. Electromagnetic retarders

Question 62

62. • _______________________ can provide high braking capacity but are limited in high ambient environments by the capacity of the vehicle cooling system. (P110)

Answer 62

62. Transmission retarders

Question 63

63. ** When preparing to back the apparatus, the spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver/operator, preferably in the left (driver’s side) mirror, approximately ___ to ____ feet behind and slightly to the left of the apparatus. (P114)

Answer 63

63. 8 to 10 feet

Question 64

64. NFPA ________ provides specific directions on driver/operator candidate’s evaluation. (P118)

Answer 64

64. 1002

Question 65

65. • All fire apparatus training and testing should follow NFPA®__________, Standard for a Fire and Emergency Service Vehicle Operations Training Program. (Not 1002) (P118)

Answer 65

65. NFPA 1451

Question 66

66. Certain aerial apparatus may carry hose on the top of the body under the aerial ladder. These apparatus have a “_______” or “______” to guide the hose around the ladder turntable on its way out the back of the truck. (P120)

Answer 66

66. trough or chute

Question 67

67. At 5 mph, ______feet of hose is pulled out each second. (P120)

Answer 67

67. 7 feet

Question 68

68. Travelling more than _____ mph is likely to cause a hose jam in the hose chute. (P120)

Answer 68

68. 5 mph

Question 69

69. TQ** NFPA 1901 specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet. The bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force of up to _____ times the equipment’s weight. (P120)

Answer 69

69. Ten times

Question 70

70. ** High pressure hydraulic fluid at pressures as low as _____ psi can penetrate skin. (P122)

Answer 70

70. 100 psi

Question 71

71. Apparatus may be equipped with manually applied tire chains or automatic chains featuring short lengths of chain on a rotating hub in front of each drive wheel. The hubs swing down into place upon activation from the cab. The hub with chains attached is driven by the drive wheel and the lengths of chain are spun under the tire by centrifugal force. These chains maybe ineffective in snow deeper than ___to ___ inches depending on consistency of the snow, or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds, or in reverse.

Answer 71

71. 3 to 6 inches

Question 72

72. • __________________________and district familiarization will assist the driver/operator to make informed decisions regarding apparatus positioning. (P136)

Answer 72

72. Preincident planning

Question 73

73. • Incident _____________ determines the most advantageous position for the attack pumper. (P136)

Answer 73

73. scene size-up

Question 74

74. **Depending on the incident, apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within _____ feet of the base of a high-rise fire may need to be protected from falling glass and debris. (P139)

Answer 74

74. 200 feet

Question 75

75. • ______________ pumping operations may also be used in situations where the attack pumper is located a relatively short distance from the water source, but a great distance from the fire.

Answer 75

75. Tandem

Question 76

76. ** In tandem pumping operations apparatus may be located up to _____ feet apart. (P146)

Answer 76

76. 300 feet

Question 77

77. ** Relay pumping is generally used to increase the ________of water available at a fire scene, while tandem pumping (another form of relay) is most often undertaken to increase water__________. (P146)

Answer 77

77. volume, pressure

Question 78

78. ** NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and the Service Testing of Fire Hose, contains test pressures for various types of fire hose. (P146)

Answer 78

78. NFPA 1962

Question 79

79. ** Because it is not always possible to stop the flow of trains on a track during emergency operations and it may require _____ to _____ miles for a fully loaded train to make a complete stop, fire apparatus should never position on railroad tracks. (P154)

Answer 79

79. One to two miles

Question 80

80. ** CAUTION: Apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least _____ feet from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on the railroad cars. (P154)

Answer 80

80. 30 feet

Question 81

81. TQ** Water’s density, or its weight per unit of volume, is measured in pounds per cubic foot. For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh ____lb/ft3 gal or _____ lb/gal. (P167)

Answer 81

81. 62.4 lb/ft3 gal or 8.3 lb/gal

Question 82

82. Methylene Chlorides’ specific gravity is _____. (P168)

Answer 82

82. 1.33

Question 83

83. Gasoline’s specific gravity is _____-_____. (P168)

Answer 83

83. 0.72-0.76

Question 84

84. ** At 212°F (100°C), water converted to steam occupies approximately ______ times its original volume, helping to dissipate heat in a well-vented room. (P169)

Answer 84

84. 1,700 times

Question 85

85. Shut down the engine immediately if oil pressure gauge does not fall within manufacturers recommendations within ____to _____ seconds. (P125)

Answer 85

85. 5 to 10 seconds

Question 86

86. • Driver/operators should not attempt to ________ streams with a vehicle unless it has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions. (P148)

Answer 86

86. ford

Question 87

87. • __________ Staging is often used on any multiunit response of two or more units. (P150)

Answer 87

87. Level I

Question 88

88. • __________Staging is implemented when numerous units are responding to operate at the same incident, particularly those that require mutual aid or result in the transmittal of multiple alarms. (P150)

Answer 88

88. Level II

Question 89

89. • _______ may be established as an area from which large numbers of personnel and quantities of equipment may be deployed. (P150)

Answer 89

89. Base

Question 90

90. • The _________________________________________________________________ advises that emergency vehicle warning lights should be used as necessary to reach the incident, but once on scene their use should be reduced as much as possible. (P151)

Answer 90

90. U.S. Department of Transportation Manual of Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD)

Question 91

91. __________— Force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in pounds per square inch (psi) or kilopascals (kPa). (P170)

Answer 91

91. Pressure

Question 92

92. • ___________ is a simple measure of weight and is expressed in pounds or Newtons. (P170)

Answer 92

92. Force

Question 93

93. _____________— Simple measure of weight, usually expressed in pounds or kilograms. (P170)

Answer 93

93. Force

Question 94

94. **The ________ at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe is determined by the pressure upon that fluid as well as the size of the orifice through which it is flowing. (P172)

Answer 94

94. Speed

Question 95

95. ______ principles determine the action or pressure on fluids. (P172)

Answer 95

95. Six

Question 96

96. ** Fluid pressure is __________________to any surface on which it acts.
    Pressure exerted by the weight of the water is ______________________ to the walls of the container.

Answer 96

96. Perpendicular, perpendicular

Question 97

97. **Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same ___________ in all directions.
    This principle is used in hydrostatic testing.

Answer 97

97. Intensity

Question 98

98. **Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted __________ in all directions.

Answer 98

98. Equally

Question 99

99. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its_________.

Answer 99

99. Depth

Question 100

100. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the ________ of the liquid.

Answer 100

100. Density

Question 101

101. The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is _____________ of the shape of the vessel.

Answer 101

101. Independent

Question 102

102. **A common method of measuring atmospheric pressure is by comparing the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of__________. When observing a vertical cylinder, the greater the atmospheric pressure, the taller the column of mercury. A pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about 2.04 inches tall. At sea level, the column of mercury is 2.04 x 14.7, or ______ inches tall. (P174)

Answer 102

102. Mercury. 29.9 inches tall

Question 103

103. **Head — Alternate term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation. For every 1-foot increase in elevation, _______ psi is gained. Also known as Head Pressure. (P175)

Answer 103

103. 0.434

Question 104

104. To convert head in feet to head pressure, you must divide the number of feet by ______(the number of feet that 1 psi will raise a one square inch column of water). (P175)

Answer 104

104. 2.304

Question 105

105. • The water flow definition of __________pressure is stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose, and adapters. (P175)

Answer 105

105. static

Question 106

106. • The pressure found in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands is considered the__________________________. (P176)

Answer 106

106. normal operating pressure

Question 107

107. • _________________is the portion of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, or adapters. _______________ is the remainder or that which is left. (P176)

Answer 107

107. Residual pressure, residual

Question 108

108. ** While water is flowing from a discharge opening, the forward velocity pressure is considered_________________________. (P176)

Answer 108

108. flow pressure

Question 109

109. **Use a Pitot tube and gauge to measure the forward velocity of____________. (P176)

Answer 109

109. flow pressure

Question 110

110. • ___________________refers to the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level. (P176)

Answer 110

110. Elevation

Question 111

111. __________— Height of a point above sea level or some other reference point.

Answer 111

111. Elevation

Question 112

112. • __________ is the position of an object in relation to sea level

Answer 112

112. Altitude

Question 113

113. ________________— Geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level. The location may be either above, below, or at sea level.

Answer 113

113. Altitude

Question 114

114. • _______________impacts the production of fire streams because atmospheric pressure drops as height above sea level increases.

Answer 114

114. Altitude

Question 115

115. **Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ psi for every 1,000 feet. (P176)

Answer 115

115. 0.5 psi

Question 116

116. **The friction loss in older hose may be as much as _____ percent greater than that of new hose.

Answer 116

116. 50 percent

Question 117

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the ______ of the hose or pipe.

Answer 117

117. Length

Question 118

When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the ___________ of the increase in the velocity of the flow.
NOTE: Velocity is proportional to flow.

Answer 118

118. Square

Question 119

For the same discharge, friction loss varies __________ as the ______ power of the diameter of the hose.
Whenever possible the driver/operator, in conjunction with the unit officer, should consider using larger diameter hose sizes to reduce friction loss.

Answer 119

119. Inversely, fifth

Question 120

For a given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the _________ on the water.

Answer 120

120. Pressure

Question 121

121. Newton’s ______________ Law of Motion: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer 121

121. Third Law of Motion

Question 122

122. • Valves in private fire protection systems are usually of the ________________. (P186)

Answer 122

122. indicating type

Question 123

123. • Control valves in public water distribution systems are generally___________. (P187)

Answer 123

123. gate valves

Question 124

124. **With water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of _________ psi is required to reduce its volume one percent. (P179)

Answer 124

124. 30,000 psi

Question 125

125. The _______________________________is the average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

Answer 125

125. average daily consumption (ADC)

Question 126

126. The _____________________________ is the maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24-hour interval within a 3-year period.

Answer 126

126. maximum daily consumption (MDC)

Question 127

127. The _______________________________is the maximum amount of water used in any 1-hour interval over the course of a day. (P188)

Answer 127

127. peak hourly consumption (PHC)

Question 128

128. **A fog stream may be produced by_____________________, by_____________________, or a combination of these methods.

Answer 128

128. deflection at the periphery, impinging jets of water

Question 129

129. **Most constant flow nozzles feature a ____________________stream and are equipped with an adjustable pattern range

Answer 129

129. periphery-deflected stream

Question 130

130. **Most constant flow nozzles are designed to operate at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi.

Answer 130

130. 100 psi

Question 131

131. ** Operating at a pressure of up to _____ psi, high pressure fog nozzles produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery.

Answer 131

131. 800 psi

Question 132

132. **Featuring a stream of fast-moving, fine spray, high-pressure fog nozzles may use an impinging stream. These nozzles are best suited for wildland fires and are not recommended for structural fire fighting due to their low water flow of only ____ to _____ gpm.

Answer 132

132. 8 to 15 gpm

Question 133

133. **Nozzles for use on handlines may be solid, fog, or broken stream design, ranging in size from a ____inch “booster” nozzle to a nozzle suitable for a ___inch diameter hoseline. (P199)

Answer 133

133. ¾ inch, 3 inch

Question 134

134. **The piercing nozzle is generally designed as ___ to ___ foot hollow steel rod _____ inches in diameter.

Answer 134

134. 3 to 6 foot, 1 ½ inches in diameter

Question 135

135. **Flowing only ____ to _____ gpm at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi, the impinging holes of the chimney nozzle produce a very fine mist which turns to steam in the hot interior of the chimney flue. (P201)

Answer 135

135. 1.5 to 3 gpm, 100 psi

Question 136

136. **As water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure, a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline. This force, called nozzle reaction, illustrates Newton’s ________ Law of Motion: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer 136

136. Third law of motion

Question 137

137. TQ** When two hoselines of equal length are Siamesed to supply a fire stream, friction loss is approximately _____ percent less than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure.

Answer 137

137. 25 percent

Question 138

138. The following are safe and efficient nozzle pressures for common fire streams:
     * Solid stream nozzle (handline) = ____psi
     * Solid stream nozzle (master stream) = ___ psi
     * Fog nozzle = ____ psi
     * Low pressure fog nozzle = ___ or ___ psi.

Answer 138

138. Solid stream nozzle (handline) = 50 psi.
     Solid stream nozzle (master stream) = 80 psi
     Fog nozzle = 100 psi
     Low pressure fog nozzle = 50 or 75 psi.

Question 139

139. ** Based on the NFPA 1901 standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a pressure gauge shall also be provided. These flowmeters must display flow in increments of _____ gpm or less. (P282)

Answer 139

139. 10 gpm

Question 140

140. ** With proper calibration, a flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus ____ percent.

Answer 140

140. 3 percent

Question 141

141. ** Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ______ inches of the control valve for that discharge. If a pressure gauge is mounted at the ___-inch location, then the flowmeter must be mounted within _____ inches adjacent to the pressure gauge.

Answer 141

141. 6 inches. 6 inch, 2 inches

Question 142

142. NOTE: Driver/operators must be aware of the margin of difference when using the Condensed Q formula. Although sufficient for many fireground calculations, the friction loss results will be ________ percent greater than when using the FL= CQ2L formula.

Answer 142

142. 20 percent greater

Question 143

143. Although no longer used as high-capacity pumps, some are still in service for high pressure stream fire fighting. These multicylinder, PTO-driven pumps can provide pressures up to ________ psi for high-pressure fog lines, or to inject foam concentrate into a water line or manifold at a higher pressure than the water pump is creating. (P296) (Piston Pumps)

Answer 143

143. 1,000 psi

Question 144

144. TQ** ___________________are constructed with moveable elements that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used.

Answer 144

144. Rotary Vane pumps

Question 145

145. ** Pumps used in the fire service constructed with a single impeller are referred to as single-stage centrifugal pumps. These may consist of front-mount pumps, power take off, auxiliary engine driven, and midship pumps that use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to _______ gpm.

Answer 145

145. 2,250 gpm

Question 146

146. ** When the pump transfer valve is in the _______ position, each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. Each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing _____percent of its rated capacity; therefore, the total amount of water the pump can deliver is equal to the sum of the stages.

Answer 146

146. Volume. 50 percent

Question 147

147. ** When the transfer valve is set in the ________position, all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller. Depending on the specific pump, the first stage increases the pressure and discharges ____ to ____ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the eye of the second impeller.

Answer 147

147. Pressure position. 50 to 70 percent

Question 148

148. If there is any question as to the correct position for the transfer valve, it is best to operate in parallel (volume) rather than series (pressure). ** In the parallel mode, the pump will be capable of supplying 100 percent of its rated capacity at _____ psi at _____ feet of lift with ____ feet of suction hose while drafting. (P303)

Answer 148

148. 150 psi. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of suction hose

Question 149

149. ** Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressures as high as _____ psi.

Answer 149

149. 200 psi

Question 150

150. *________ driven fire pumps are most common to initial attack, wildland, or mobile water supply applications. (P307) (Pretty sure this was a TQ.)

Answer 150

150. PTO

Question 151

151. ** In the past, conventional PTO units were limited to powering pumps up to approximately ____ gpm. However, some manufacturers now provide full torque power take-offs that allow for the installation of pumps as large as ______ gpm. (P308)

Answer 151

151. 500 gpm. 1,250 gpm

Question 152

152. • Most fire departments operate pumpers that feature the pump mounted ____________________________ behind the engine and transmission. Power is supplied to the pump through the use of a _______________ gear case (transfer case) located in the drive line between the transmission and the rear axle.

Answer 152

152. laterally across the frame, split shaft gear case

Question 153

153. ** With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers will indicate between ____ to ____ mph.

Answer 153

153. 10 to 15 mph

Question 154

154. ** The piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of ______ psi before being placed into service. (P312)

Answer 154

154. 500 psi

Question 155

155. ** According to NFPA® 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 gpm or less should have piping capable of flowing _____ gpm.

Answer 155

155. 250 gpm

Question 156

156. ** Pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm should be able to flow at least _____ gpm.

Answer 156

156. 500 gpm

Question 157

157. TQ** Many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump piping as large as ____ inches in diameter.

Answer 157

157. 4 inches

Question 158

158. ** Pumps rated greater than ______gpm capacity may require more than one large intake connection at each location. (P314)

Answer 158

158. 1,500 gpm

Question 159

159. ** As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of ___ gpm or greater must be equipped with at least ____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharges. Pumps rated less than ___ gpm are required to have only _____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharge.

Answer 159

159. 750 gpm, Two, 750gpm, one

Question 160

160. ** A minimum of ______-inch piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1⁄2-, 1 3⁄4-, or 2-inch handlines are attached.

Answer 160

160. 2 inch

Question 161

161. All valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operable at pressures of up to _____ psi.

Answer 161

161. 250 psi

Question 162

162. ** According to NFPA® 1901, apparatus equipped with tanks of less than 1,000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least _____-inch in diameter. Tanks greater than 1,000 gallons must be provided with at least a _____-inch tank fill line.

Answer 162

162. 1 inch. 2 inch

Question 163

163. *The ______________ valve is connected to the discharge side of the pump and enables water to be dumped into the tank or outside the tank onto the ground. (P316)

Answer 163

163. circulator valve

Question 164

164. Some pumps are equipped with a ________________ valve (also called a bypass valve) that serves the same function as a circulator valve by diverting a portion of the discharge water into the tank. (P316)

Answer 164

164. booster line cooling valve

Question 165

165. ____________ and _____________ valves are piped with small-diameter copper tubing with a very limited flow capability. (P316)

Answer 165

165. Circulator and booster line cooling valves

Question 166

166. ** NFPA® 1901 requires that all intakes or discharges that are _____ inches or greater be equipped with slow acting valve controls.

Answer 166

166. 3 inches or greater

Question 167

167. TQ** NFPA® 1901 requires some type of pressure control device to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system. This device must operate within _______to ______ seconds after the discharge pressure rises and restricts the pressure from exceeding ______ psi above the set level. (P318)

Answer 167

167. 3 to 10 seconds. 30 psi above

Question 168

168. • Although there are several types available, the most common relief valve uses a ______________________________ valve. (P319)

Answer 168

168. spring-controlled pilot valve

Question 169

169. ** It is generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ psi above the necessary operating pressure. (P320)

Answer 169

169. 10 psi above

Question 170

170. • Newer pumpers are often equipped with electronic governors. These devices use a pressure sensing element (__________________) that is connected to the discharge manifold. (P321)

Answer 170

170. pressure transducer

Question 171

171. ** The electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below ____ psi. (P321)

Answer 171

171. Below 30 psi

Question 172

172. ** The operator manual supplied by the fire pump manufacturer should specify the preferred engine speed (rpm) for priming but, in general, the range is between ______ to _____ rpm. Activate the primers with the engine at idle speed and then increase the throttle to the specified rpms.

Answer 172

172. 1000 to 1,200 rpm

Question 173

173. **The master intake gauge (vacuum or compound gauge) is connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive pressure or a vacuum. This gauge is usually calibrated from ____ to ____ psi of positive pressure and from ____ to ____ inches of mercury (vacuum) on the negative side.

Answer 173

173. 0 to 600 psi, 0 to 30 inches of mercury

Question 174

174. ** When the vacuum reading approaches _____ inches, the pump is nearing its capacity and is not able to supply additional lines. (For drafting.)

Answer 174

174. 20 inches

Question 175

175. • The ___________________ is inserted into one of the hoses used in the engine cooling system so that the engine coolant must travel through it as it circulates through the system. The cooler features a number of small tubes surrounded by a water jacket that is connected to the discharge of the fire pump. (P329)

Answer 175

175. marine cooler

Question 176

176. • The ____________________________ is mounted in a similar manner as the marine type, with the radiator coolant passing through the body of the cooler. In the ________ system, the water supplied by the fire pump passes through a coil or tubing mounted inside the cooler so that it is _______________ in the coolant.(P329)

Answer 176

176. immersion type auxiliary cooler, immersion, immersed

Question 177

177. *Making a fire pump operational, commonly referred to as “putting the pump into gear” begins after the apparatus is properly positioned and the____________________________. (P336) (Pretty sure this was a previous TQ.)

Answer 177

177. parking brake has been set

Question 178

178. ** Driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi on their master intake gauge at all times during pumping operations.

Answer 178

178. 20 psi

Question 179

179. **Water supply systems must maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi within their mains for several reasons; contamination from sources outside the main may occur if the pressure in the main drops too low.

Answer 179

179. 20 psi

Question 180

180. • Load the hose with a male coupling to come out of the bed first when using hose with threaded couplings for a_____________ . (P344)

Answer 180

180. reverse lay

Question 181

181. • Use double female adapters at the hydrant and double male adapters at the pump panel to execute a reverse lay using hose with threaded couplings if the hose bed has been set up for a _______________. (P344)

Answer 181

181. forward lay

Question 182

182. • When completing a reverse lay, it is not necessary to use a ____________________. (P344)

Answer 182

182. four-way hydrant valve

Question 183

183. To use the ___________ method, first calculate the drop in pressure as a percentage. (P348)

Answer 183

183. percentage method

Question 184

184. • The ______________method is a quick and easy way to calculate available water using psi and gpm.

Answer 184

184. first-digit method

Question 185

185. • When using the _________________ method, the driver/operator must note the static pressure of the water system before any pump discharges are open or know the usual static pressure in the water supply system under normal circumstances. (P350)

Answer 185

185. squaring-the-lines method

Question 186

186. As the water begins to move through the pump, additional pressure losses are encountered. Any hose or appliance creates a certain amount of friction loss. The amount of friction loss is ____________________________ of water moving through it. (P352)

Answer 186

186. proportional to the velocity

Question 187

187. The ability to overcome losses in pressure is limited to atmospheric pressure at sea level (_____ psi or _____ inches Hg). (P352)

Answer 187

187. 14.7 psi. or 30 inches Hg

Question 188

188. ** This pressure (atmospheric pressure) decreases approximately 0.5 psi or 1 inch of Hg for each 1,000 feet of altitude gain. In a city located 5,000 feet above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is _____ psi.

Answer 188

188. 12.2 psi

Question 189

189. ** Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately _____ inches of mercury (Hg).

Answer 189

189. 22 inches of mercury

Question 190

190. • The first consideration in establishing a drafting operation is______________. (P354)

Answer 190

190. site selection

Question 191

191. • The most important factor in choosing the draft site is the___________________________. (P355)

Answer 191

191. amount of water available

Question 192

192. When using a portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operations, a low-level strainer is the appliance of choice. These strainers are designed to sit directly on the bottom of a tank or pool and allow water to be effectively drafted down to a depth of approximately ___ inches.

Answer 192

192. 2 inches

Question 193

193. ** Water temperature will also affect drafting operations. Water below ____°F or above ____°F may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity. (P356)

Answer 193

193. 35. 90

Question 194

194. • Although almost any type of water may be used for fire suppression, pumping ________________ (untreated) water may be harmful to the pump. (P356)

Answer 194

194. nonpotable

Question 195

195. ** __________________to a water source is an important factor in selecting a drafting site. Because drafting is accomplished by evacuating air from the pump and allowing atmospheric pressure to push the water into it, a maximum of ______ psi is available.

Answer 195

195. Accessibility. 14,7 psi

Question 196

196. ** All fire pumps meeting NFPA and Underwriter’s Laboratories Inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at _____ feet of lift. (P357)

Answer 196

196. 10 feet of lift

Question 197

197. ** A pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of ____ feet.(P357)

Answer 197

197. 25 feet

Question 198

198. ** To create an effective fire stream, a lift of no greater than ______ feet is recommended. Working with this lift, the pump operates at about ______ percent of its rated capacity.

Answer 198

198. 20. 60 percent

Question 199

199. • If an older, ________________________ is normally connected to the pump intake, it is often removed before connecting the intake hose to the apparatus as this valve obstructs the waterway, reducing drafting capacity. (P357)

Answer 199

199. butterfly-type intake valve

Question 200

200. • If the primer is a positive displacement pump that is driven by a transfer case, set the engine rpm according to the manufacturer’s instructions. Most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between ______ and ______ rpm. (P359)

Answer 200

200. 1,000 to 1,200 rpm

Question 201

201. • After the pump has been made airtight and the engine rpm set, operate the primer control. As the air is evacuated from the pump the master intake gauge will register vacuum reading. This reading should equal 1 inch of mercury (Hg) for _____ foot of lift required. The vacuum is measured from the surface of the water to the_______________________. (P359)

Answer 201

201. 1 foot, eye of the pump’s impeller

Question 202

202. ** The entire priming action typically requires ____ to ____ seconds from start to finish. However, when up to 20 feet of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 vertical feet, it may take as long as ______ seconds (45 seconds in pumps larger than 1250 gpm) to accomplish this.

Answer 202

202. 10 to 15 seconds. 30 seconds

Question 203

203. After successfully priming the pump, the throttle setting should slowly be increased before attempting to open any discharges. Increasing the throttle setting is required to raise the pressure to between _____ and _____ psi. (P360)

Answer 203

203. 50 and 100 psi

Question 204

204. • The most common place for a blockage to occur is in the____________. (P361)

Answer 204

204. strainer

Question 205

205. • CAUTION: When interior attack crews are operating hoselines from a combination sprinkler/ standpipe system with sprinklers flowing, the pressure supplied to the FDC should be based on a_______________________________________.

Answer 205

205. safe operating pressure for the interior crews

Question 206

206. *If no specific information is available, the general guideline is to discharge _____psi into the FDC. (P363)

Answer 206

206. 150 psi

Question 207

207. ** When specific information is unavailable, driver/operators should pump _____into the FDC when supporting automatic sprinkler systems.

Answer 207

207. 150 psi

Question 208

208. • If a stationary fire pump supplies the sprinkler system, firefighters should also ensure that it is operating. Sprinkler control valves are often located in the ____________ making it efficient for one team of firefighters to accomplish both tasks. (P364)

Answer 208

208. fire pump room

Question 209

209. ** Add approximately ___ psi for each floor above the fire department connection that will have operating fire streams. (Excluded 2024)

Answer 209

209. 5 psi

Question 210

210. Do not use pump discharge pressures in excess of ______ psi unless the standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressures. (Excluded 2024)

Answer 210

210. 185 psi

Question 211

211. When a standpipe system is known to be equipped with pressure-reducing valves, the elevation pressure used must be based on the_________________________________________________. (Excluded 2024)

Answer 211

211. total height of the standpipe or zone being used

Question 212

212. Pressure-Reducing Valve — Valve installed at standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to a specific pressure, usually _____ psi. (Excluded 2024)

Answer 212

212. 100 psi

Question 213

213. **An external standpipe may also be created by hoisting up, or rolling hose down the outside of a building, securing it inside every ______ or ______ floors. (Excluded 2024)

Answer 213

213. Two or three floors

Question 214

214. • _________ is the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center of the pump intake.

Answer 214

214. Lift

Question 215

215. Theoretical Lift — Theoretical, scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level, this height is _______ feet. The height will decrease as elevation increases. (P404) (The glossary definition says something different.)

Answer 215

215. 33.9 feet

Question 216

216. ** For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately _____psi.

Answer 216

216. 0.5 psi

Question 217

217. • ______________ can be calculated by determining the atmospheric pressure of an area and multiplying that number by the water’s pressure per square inch while it is in the intake hose.

Answer 217

217. Theoretical lift

Question 218

218. ** In the fire service, _______________ is defined as the greatest height to which any amount of water may be raised through an intake hose to the pump.

Answer 218

218. Maximum lift

Question 219

219. ** In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately ______feet.

Answer 219

219. 25 feet

Question 220

220. _____________________ — Height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow. Lift may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump, taking into consideration the atmospheric pressure and friction loss within the hard suction hose; ______________ is usually considered to be ______ feet.

Answer 220

220. Dependable lift. Dependable lift. 14.7 feet

Question 221

221. ** All fire department pumping apparatus are rated when drafting with a minimum lift of ____ feet from the center of a pump intake to the surface of water through ____ feet of hard intake hose. A strainer is submerged at least ___ feet in a water depth of at least ___ feet.

Answer 221

221. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of hose. 2 feet. 4 feet

Question 222

222. As the lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, the water supply capability of the pump decreases. The pump may only deliver about ____ percent of its capacity if lift is increased by 5 feet , to a 15-foot lift, and ____ percent at a 20 foot lift.

Answer 222

222. 70 percent. 60 percent.

Question 223

223. Floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to ____ gpm.

Answer 223

223. 500 gpm

Question 224

224. Although lesser depths may be suitable, ___ feet of water all around a barrel-type strainer is generally considered the minimum for that type of equipment.

Answer 224

224. 2 feet

Question 225

225. Floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as___ foot.

Answer 225

225. 1 foot

Question 226

226. Low-level strainers are most commonly used to draft from portable water tanks. These devices may draw water as shallow as ___ to ___ inches, but generally will not provide the flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus.

Answer 226

226. 1 to 2 inches

Question 227

227. Although they may vary in size, cisterns typically range from ___________ to ________ gallons. (P415)

Answer 227

227. 10,000 to 100,000 gallons

Question 228

228. • Large residential, industrial, or agricultural locations may feature_________________. These tanks may range in size from _____________to ____________of gallons of water. (P415)

Answer 228

228. private water storage tanks, several hundred to tens of thousands

Question 229

229. • ________________are artificial installations that have similar characteristics as a pond or lake. These reservoirs typically contain many ________ gallons (liters) of water. ____________________ may be more accessible to fire apparatus than natural bodies of water because of their installation at a working facility. (P415)

Answer 229

229. Ground reservoirs, many millions of gallons, ground reservoirs

Question 230

230. Agricultural irrigation systems in some jurisdictions may flow in excess of ________and may function as a potential water source for fire protection. (P418)

Answer 230

230. 1,000 gpm

Question 231

231. A _________________ operation consists of a pumper positioned at the water supply source that is used to pump water under pressure through one or more supply lines to another pumper connected further down the supply line(s). (P412)

Answer 231

231. relay pumping

Question 232

232. Large Diameter Hose (LDH) — Relay-supply hose of _____ to _____ inches in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel.

Answer 232

232. 3 ½ inch to 6 inches

Question 233

233. TQ** Centrifugal pumps are rated to pump at their maximum volume capacity at __ psi at draft.

Answer 233

233. 150 psi

Question 234

234. ** As previously mentioned, fire department pumpers are rated to flow their maximum volume at ____psi, 70 percent of their maximum at ____ psi, and 50 percent of their maximum at ____ psi at draft.

Answer 234

234. 150 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

Question 235

A relay pumping operation begins with the largest capacity pumper working from the_________________. (P432)

Answer 235

235. water source

Question 236

236. ** It is advisable for driver/operators to maintain an intake pressure of ___ to ___ psi as a relay pumper.

Answer 236

236. 20 to 30 psi

Question 237

237. ** For relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ___ psi above the static pressure of the water system to which it is attached or ___ psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.

Answer 237

237. 10 psi. 10 psi.

Question 238

238. ** Attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ psi to establish a stable operating condition. (P343)

Answer 238

238. 50 and 75 psi

Question 239

239. ** The driver/operator of the attack pumper should expect small variations in pressure during relay pumping operations. You should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below ___ psi.

Answer 239

239. 20 psi

Question 240

240. **Driver/operators should refer to NFPA _____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.

Answer 240

240. NFPA 1962

Question 241

241. • Relay pumping operations that require the use of later arriving companies to achieve the required flow can set up an initial operation of lesser volume and greater spacing with _______________ placed in the relay line awaiting the arrival of incoming pumpers. An _______________ is placed along the length of a supply hose that permits a pumper to connect to the valve to boost pressure in the hose. (P436)

Answer 241

241. inline relay valves, inline relay valve

Question 242

242. • During LDH relay operations that must supply more than one attack pumper, a _____________________ may be used to break down the LDH into two or more hoselines that may then be connected to different pumpers. (P436)

Answer 242

242. discharge manifold

Question 243

243. • ________________operations are used to provide water supply to incident scenes where relay pumping is not a viable option. (P443)

Answer 243

243. Water shuttle

Question 244

244. • __________________ usually provides a more reliable supply of continuous water with the use of fewer apparatus, but it is more labor intensive to take up when an incident is terminated. (P443)

Answer 244

244. Relay pumping

Question 245

245. • A ___________________relies on the constant movement of apparatus at the fill and dump sites, as well as on the route between the two locations. (P444)

Answer 245

245. shuttle operation

Question 246

246. • With the exception of operations that feature a vacuum tanker (described later in the chapter) or the use of a hydrant, most water shuttles require at least _________ pumpers for water supply. (P445)

Answer 246

246. two pumpers

Question 247

247. ** In accordance with NFPA® 1901, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ______ gpm so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater. (P445)

Answer 247

247. 1,000 gpm

Question 248

248. ** Vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of _______ gallons. (P446)

Answer 248

248. 2,000 gallons

Question 249

249. For apparatus with a capacity greater than _______ gallons , tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers are required.

Answer 249

249. 2,000 gallons

Question 250

250. ** Tenders featuring pumps of ____ gpm or greater rating are often called pumper/tenders. (P446)

Answer 250

250. 750 gpm

Question 251

251. Pumper/tenders have large water tanks and the ability to pump at ____ gpm or greater.

Answer 251

251. 750 gpm

Question 252

252. ** The vacuum tender is able to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to ______ gpm with a lift of up to ____ feet. These apparatus are also capable of discharging its water tank at a rate up to____________. (P446)

Answer 252

252. 2,000, 22 feet, 1,750 gpm

Question 253

253. ** With a gravity dump, gravity is used to empty water from the tank. These dumps often use ____-inch or larger round or square piping with a valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle.

Answer 253

253. 8 inch

Question 254

254. ** When possible, a water supply source capable of supplying at least ______ gpm should be chosen in order to match the NFPA® recommended rate at which tenders should be filled. (P452)

Answer 254

254. 1000 gpm

Question 255

255. _______________________________________________________— The U.S. mandated Incident Management System that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations; creates a Unified Incident Response Structure for federal, state, and local governments. (P454)

Answer 255

255. National Incident Management System - Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS)

Question 256

256. • When establishing a water shuttle operation, it must be integrated into the Incident Command structure. It is recommended that the Incident Commander make designations that adhere to the_______________________________________. (P454)

Answer 256

256. National Incident Management System (NIMS)

Question 257

257. • When a Water Supply Group is established, the person in charge is known as the Water Supply Group_____________. (P454)

Answer 257

257. Supervisor

Question 258

258. ________________________— System described in NFPA® 1561, Standard on___________________________________________, that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations. Such systems may also be referred to as Incident Command Systems (ICS). (P455)

Answer 258

258. Incident Management System (IMS), Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System

Question 259

259. • During large-scale incidents, it may be necessary to establish two or more water shuttle operations. In these cases, the IC may develop a Water Supply__________. (P455)

Answer 259

259. Water supply Branch

Question 260

260. • When positioning to draft at a static water supply, seek a position that requires a ___________________in order to maximize the flow available to supply the tender. (P456)

Answer 260

260. minimum of lift

Question 261

261. • Using the________________________, water tenders pump the water from their tanks directly into the pump intake of an attack pumper. This method is typically accomplished by having the attack pumper lay out a supply line that is equipped with a gated or clappered Siamese in an area accessible to tenders. (P459)

Answer 261

261. direct pumping method

Question 262

262. Nurse Tanker — Very large water tanker (generally _______ gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker. Also known as Nurse Tender.

Answer 262

262. 4,000 gallons

Question 263

263. ** NFPA® 1901 requires all tenders to have the capability to dump at a minimum average flow rate of _______ gpm for the first ___ percent of its tank capacity. (P462)

Answer 263

263. 1000 gpm. 90 percent

Question 264

264. A simple dump site may feature the use of one portable tank that is supplied directly by water shuttle tenders. This operation is generally adequate for fire fighting operations that require relatively low flow rates (less than _____ gpm).

Answer 264

264. 300 gpm

Question 265

265. ** Any tank, regardless of type, should be set up on a surface that is as level as possible and have a capacity at least _____ gallons larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it.

Answer 265

265. 500 gallons

Question 266

266. ** The dump site pumper should utilize a low-level strainer to allow for continuous drafting to a point of about ___inches.

Answer 266

266. 2 inches

Question 267

267. ** Incidents that require a flow rate in excess of ____ gpm are best served by a multiple tank operation.

Answer 267

267. 300 gpm

Question 268

268. Most multi-tank operations use from ____ to _____ portable tanks.

Answer 268

268. Two to five portable tanks

Question 269

269. ** For operations that require more than three tanks and jet siphons and flows over 500 gpm, __________________ should be used to transfer water to the tank supplying the attack pumper.

Answer 269

269. Parallel Jet Siphons

Question 270

Place pumper in pump gear and charge tender fill lines, keeping pumper in gear and fill lines charged at all times. Follow local SOPs for discharge pressure, usually between ____ and ____ psi.(P472)

Answer 270

270. 100-150 psi

Question 271

271. (Hose size between the hydrant and pumper at the fill site is ____ LDH minimum.)

Answer 271

271. One LDH minimum

Question 272

272. _________________ are the most common foams in use. These products must be proportioned (mixed with water) and aerated (mixed with air) before use. (P480)

Answer 272

272. Mechanical foams

Question 273

273. • Proper _______________ should produce a blanket of uniform-sized bubbles that will maintain an effective cover over Class A or Class B fuels for the required period of time. (P480)

Answer 273

273. aeration

Question 274

274. • __________________ are designed solely for use on hydrocarbon fuels and are not effective on polar solvent products regardless of the concentration that is applied. However, some foams intended for use on polar solvents may be used on hydrocarbon fuel products, but only under the direction of the manufacturer. (P481)

Answer 274

274. Class B foams

Question 275

275. ** NOTE: Many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ percent solvent additives. Treat these products as polar solvents during emergency operations.

Answer 275

275. 15 percent solvent additives

Question 276

276. ______________________ is the act of mixing of water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution. (P482)

Answer 276

276. Proportioning

Question 277

277. Most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ____ to ____ percent water.

Answer 277

277. 94 to 99.9 percent

Question 278

278. ** Class A foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits established by the manufacturer to achieve specific objectives. These percentages may range from a little as ___ percent to ___ percent.

Answer 278

278. 0.1 to 1 percent

Question 279

279. • The _____________ method of proportioning foam uses the pressure of a water stream to induct (draft) foam concentrate into the fire stream. This is achieved by passing the stream of water through a Venturi device called an_________. A ____________connected to the eductor is inserted into the foam concentrate container. (P483)

Answer 279

279. Induction, eductor, pickup tube

Question 280

280. The ______________ method of proportioning foam uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio in comparison to the flow. These systems are most commonly employed in apparatus mounted or fixed fire protection systems. (P483)

Answer 280

280. injection

Question 281

281. A simple but potentially inaccurate method of mixing foam concentrate and water, _______________ occurs when an appropriate amount of foam concentrate is poured directly into a tank of water.(P483)

Answer 281

281. batch mixing

Question 282

282. __________________ is a common method of proportioning in which premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate are mixed in a container. Typically, this method is used with portable and wheeled extinguishers, skid-mounted twin-agent units, and apparatus-mounted tank systems.(P484)

Answer 282

282. Premixing

Question 283

283. Five-gallon plastic _______ are commonly used containers in many municipal fire departments. These containers are not affected by the corrosive nature of foam concentrates and are relatively easy to store on fire apparatus. (P485)

Answer 283

283. Pails

Question 284

284. Foam concentrate is also available in 55-gallon plastic or plastic-lined ________. Some fire departments use these for bulk storage, but they are more common in industrial applications. (P485)

Answer 284

284. barrels

Question 285

285. ** When bulk storage of foam concentrates is required, some fire departments or industrial facilities may specify ____ gallon containers, called ______. (P484)

Answer 285

285. 275 gallon, totes

Question 286

286. **Foam concentrate tanks on municipal fire apparatus generally range from ___ to ____ gallons, while foam pumper or tenders may carry _______ gallons or more of concentrate.

Answer 286

286. 20 to 200 gallons. 8,000 gallons

Question 287

287. Available since the 1940s, _________ foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for increasing numbers of structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, and other fires involving deep seated fuels.

Answer 287

287. Class A foam

Question 288

288. • The formula of Class A foam includes _________________________that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution. (P487)

Answer 288

288. hydrocarbon surfactants

Question 289

289. • When used in conjunction with compressed air foam systems (CAFS), Class A foam provides excellent ___________ qualities. (P487)

Answer 289

289. insulation

Question 290

290. ** The shelf life of properly stored foam solution can be as long as ___years making it an economical choice to purchase in bulk quantities.

Answer 290

290. 20 years

Question 291

291. Class A foam concentrates may be mixed with percentages as little as _____ to ______ percent.

Answer 291

0.1 to 1.0 percent

Question 292

292. The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam:
     Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

Answer 292

292. Fire attack, overhaul = 0.2-0.5 percent

Question 293

293. The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam: Exposure protection with standard fog nozzles — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

Answer 293

293. Exposure protection = 0.5-1.0 percent

Question 294

294. The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam: Any application with air aspirating foam nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

Answer 294

294. Aspirating = 0.3-0.7 percent

Question 295

295. The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam: Any application with compressed air foam systems (CAFS) — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

Answer 295

295. CAFS = 0.2-0.5 percent

Question 296

296. • These foam concentrates consist of a synthetic or protein base. While synthetic foam is made from a mixture of__________________, protein based foam is derived from animal protein. (P489)

Answer 296

296. fluorosurfactants

Question 297

297. Class B foam concentrates should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life: approximately ____ years for protein based foams and ___ to ___ years for synthetic foam.

Answer 297

297. 10 years. 20 to 25 years

Question 298

298. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____ percent.

Answer 298

298. One to 6 percent

Question 299

299. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____.

Answer 299

299. 1% to 6%

Question 300

300. ** Some foam is formulated for use on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels. These products may be used at different concentrations depending on which fuel is involved. The concentration for hydrocarbon fuels is normally ______ or ____ percent, while ____ or ____ percent is used for polar solvents, based on the manufacturer’s recommendation.

Answer 300

300. One or three percent. Three or six percent

Question 301

301. Hydrocarbon fuels use ___ or___ percent concentration.

Answer 301

301. 1 or 3 percent.

Question 302

302. Polar solvents use ___ or ___ percent concentration.

Answer 302

302. 3 or 6 percent

Question 303

303. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to __ parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

Answer 303

303. 20 parts. 20:1 ratio

Question 304

304. Medium expansion foam is commonly used at a rate of ____ up to _____ through hydraulically operated nozzle type delivery devices.

Answer 304

304. 20:1 up to 200:1

Question 305

305. When high expansion foam is used the expansion rate is from ____ to _____.

Answer 305

305. 200:1up to 1000:1

Question 306

306. In order to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle, divide the _______ by the area of the fire.

Answer 306

306. Flow rate

Question 307

307. ** Regular protein foam generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance. However, it is not as fluid as other low expansion foams when applied to a fuel source. In addition, regular protein foam degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic foam (an approximate ____-year shelf life). (P492)

Answer 307

307. 10 year shelf life

Question 308

308. _________________ foam, a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam, contains protein concentrate to which _________________________are added.

Answer 308

308. Fluoroprotein, fluorochemical surfactants

Question 309

309. ** ________________ foam may be made alcohol resistant with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents. The alcohol-resistive properties will be effective for approximately _____ minutes, offering high-water retention and resistance to heat. (P492)

Answer 309

309. Flouroprotein. 15 minutes

Question 310

310. _________________________________________concentrate is based on the technology of fluoroprotein foam for long lasting heat resistance and the capabilities of aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) for quick knockdown. (P492)

Answer 310

310. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)

Question 311

311. *_____________________________, or commonly called A triple F, is currently the most commonly used synthetic foam concentrate. Its formula consists of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point. The fluorochemical surfactants reduce the surface tension of the water in the foam solution to a degree that a thin aqueous film is spread across a fuel product as the foam solution is applied. (P492)

Answer 311

311. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

Question 312

312. Alcohol resistant AFFF concentrate is commonly available for use on polar solvents. This concentrate is generally used at a concentration of ______ or _______ percent, based on manufacturer’s recommendations. (P493)

Answer 312

312. Three or six percent

Question 313

313. Alcohol-resistant AFFF may also be used on hydrocarbon fuels at _____ to _____ percent proportion based on the manufacturer’s guidelines. (P493)

Answer 313

313. One to six percent

Question 314

314. ___________________________________________________________— Aqueous film forming foam that is designed for use with polar solvent fuels. See Aqueous Film Forming Foam and Foam Concentrate.

Answer 314

314. Alcohol-Resistant Aqueous Film Forming Foam Concentrate (AR-AFFF)

Question 315

The in-line eductor uses the Venturi principle to draft foam concentrate into the water stream. When operating this system, several operating guidelines must be followed to achieve properly proportioned finished foam:
315. The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure. This back pressure is determined by adding the nozzle pressure, friction loss in the hose between the eductor and the nozzle, and the elevation pressure.

Answer 315

315. 70 percent

Question 316

The in-line eductor uses the Venturi principle to draft foam concentrate into the water stream. When operating this system, several operating guidelines must be followed to achieve properly proportioned finished foam:
316. The concentration of foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct (usually ____-____ psi).

Answer 316

316. 150-200 psi

Question 317

The in-line eductor uses the Venturi principle to draft foam concentrate into the water stream. When operating this system, several operating guidelines must be followed to achieve properly proportioned finished foam:
317. The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ feet above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate.

Answer 317

317. Six feet

Question 318

318. *___________— Pressure loss or gain created by changes in elevation between the nozzle and pump. (P495)

Answer 318

318. Back Pressure

Question 319

319. _______________— Gain or loss of pressure in a hoseline due to a change in elevation. Also known as ________________. (P176) (This and 318 above are very similar.)

Answer 319

319. Elevation Pressure, elevation loss

Question 320

320. **Some master stream foam nozzles are capable of delivering _______ gpm.

Answer 320

320. 14,000 gpm

Question 321

321. A jet ratio controller (JRC) is a type of in-line eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream. It allows the foam concentrate supply to be located as far as ________ feet away from a self-educting master stream nozzle. This distance allows firefighters charged with operating the fire pump and maintaining the foam concentrate supply to do so from a considerable distance, as well as an elevation change of up to ___ feet.

Answer 321

321. 3000 feet. 50 feet

Question 322

322. • ___________________ are most commonly used to proportion Class B foam. Installed in-line foam eductors are generally not effective for proportioning the very low concentrations used in Class A foam operations. (P497)

Answer 322

322. Installed in-line eductors

Question 323

323. • ________________________________are one of the most common types of installed proportioners used in modern fire apparatus. This system consists of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump. (P498)

Answer 323

323. Around-the-pump proportioners

Question 324

324. • The_________________________________, used on large mobile apparatus installations, such as ARFF vehicles, is one of the most accurate methods of foam proportioning. (P499)

Answer 324

324. bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

Question 325

325. Apparatus with a ______________________________feature a foam concentrate line supplied by a separate foam concentrate pump connected to each discharge outlet. (P499)

Answer 325

325. bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

Question 326

326. • ___________________________________ proportioners generally operate off power supplied by the apparatus electrical system, although some larger units may use a combination of electric and hydraulic power. (P500)

Answer 326

326. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection

Question 327

327. *______________________________________________— Apparatus-mounted foam system that injects the correct amount of foam into the pump piping, thereby supplying all discharges with foam. The system automatically monitors the operation of the hoselines and maintains a consistent quality of foam solution. (P500)

Answer 327

327. Variable-Flow Variable-Rate Direct-Injection System

Question 328

328. ________________________________ proportioners generally operate off power supplied by the apparatus electrical system, although some larger units may use a combination of electric and hydraulic power. (P500)

Answer 328

328. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection

Question 329

329. Variable flow variable rate direct injection systems proportion foam concentrate at rates from ____to ____ percent.

Answer 329

329. 0.1 to 3 percent

Question 330

330. • A ________________________ balanced pressure proportioning system, also known as a pumped/demand system, consists of a variable speed mechanism driven electrically or hydraulically, that operates a foam concentrate pump. (P500)

Answer 330

330. variable-flow demand-type

Question 331

331. Class A foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than ____ hours, making pre-mixing virtually impossible.

Answer 331

331. 24 hours

Question 332

332. CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system. Due to the low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of ___ to ____ percent.

Answer 332

332. 0.1 to 1.0 percent

Question 333

333. Generally, ___ cubic feet per minute of airflow per gallon, per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100 gpm of foam solution. This creates a substantial amount of foam at a 10:1 expansion ratio.

Answer 333

333. 2 cubic feet

Question 334

334. Most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of ____ to ____ ft3/min of foam solution.

Answer 334

334. 0.5 to 1.0 ft/3

Question 335

335. ** Expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ___ up to ___ range. (P504)

Answer 335

335. 2:1 up to 4:1 range

Question 336

336. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to 20 parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

Answer 336

336. 20:1

Question 337

337. The air content of medium expansion foam ranges from ____ to _____.

Answer 337

337. 20:1 to 200:1

Question 338

338. For high expansion foam, the ratio ranges from ______ to ______.

Answer 338

338. 200:1 to 1000:1

Question 339

339. • No foam concentrates, solutions, or finished foam should be discharged into any body of water. Foam manufacturers safety data sheets (SDSs) as well as NFPA® ________ Standard on Foam Chemicals for Fire in Class A Fuels will provide additional information regarding this topic. (P508)

Answer 339

339. NFPA 1150

Question 340

340. When used as an extinguishing agent, the standard application ratio is 1:100 (one percent solution in water).* When used on a fire line, durable agents are often applied at ___ to ___ percent.

Answer 340

340. 1 ½ to 2 percent

Question 341

341. For structure protection, the application ratio is ____ to ___ percent. With this application, durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to ___ hours.

Answer 341

341. 2 to 3 percent. 24 hours

Question 342

342.** NFPA® _____, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, NFPA _______, Standard for Wildland Fire Apparatus, and NFPA ______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Vehicles are commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications.

Answer 342

342. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1906, NFPA 414

Question 343

343. _____________— Preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road-worthiness of a new vehicle. (P516)

Answer 343

343. Road Tests

Question 344

344. The apparatus must accelerate to ____ mph from a standing start within ____ seconds. This test is conducted in two runs in opposite directions over the same course.

Answer 344

344. 35 mph. 25 seconds

Question 345

345. The apparatus must achieve at least a top speed of ____ mph. This requirement may be waived for vehicles not designed for use on public roadways.

Answer 345

345. 50 mph

Question 346

346. The apparatus must come to a full stop from ____ mph within ____ feet.

Answer 346

346. 20 mph. 35 feet

Question 347

347. The pump body as well as the entire intake and discharge piping system, with the exception of the tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves, are subjected to a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ psi for a minimum of ____ minutes.

Answer 347

347. 500 psi. 10 minutes

Question 348

348. In jurisdictions that are higher than ________ feet above sea level, a pumping engine overload test should be performed as part of acceptance testing.

Answer 348

348. 2000 feet above sea level

Question 349

349. The requirements for fire department service testing are contained in NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus.

Answer 349

349. NFPA 1911

Question 350

350. For pumps rated at 1,500 gpm or less, _____ feet is the maximum distance, while 2,000 gpm pumps use a _____ foot maximum lift.

Answer 350

350. 10 feet. 6 feet

Question 351

351. The air temperature when the testing is conducted should be between ___°F and ____° F.

Answer 351

351. 0. 110

Question 352

352. The water temperature should be between ___° F and ____° F.

Answer 352

352. 35. 90

Question 353

353. The barometric pressure should be at least _____ inches of Mercury (Hg) when corrected to sea level. This adjustment is necessary because a 1-inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately 1 foot.

Answer 353

353. 29 inches of mercury

Question 354

354. When conducting the pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated. The minimum diameter hoseline for this purpose is _______-inch hose, although larger diameter hoselines may be employed if so desired.

Answer 354

354. 2 ½ inch hose

Question 355

355. ** To monitor the continued serviceability of the hose throughout the test, a mark may be scribed where the hose and couplings meet. If the scribe mark is found to have moved away more than _____ of an inch from the coupling, stop the test and replace the hose.

Answer 355

355. 3/8 of an inch

Question 356

356. Performance tests are conducted at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ psi, and ____ psi net pump discharge pressure.

Answer 356

356. 150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

Question 357

357. ** NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within _____ days of the testing.

Answer 357

357. 60 days

Question 358

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
358. A gauge to determine intake pressure. The gauge should be calibrated to a range of 30 in Hg to zero for a _________ gauge, or 30 in Hg vacuum to 150 psi for a ____________gauge.

Answer 358

358. Vacuum gauge. Compound gauge

Question 359

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
359. A gauge with a range of 0 to at least 400 psi (with + or - _____ % accuracy) to determine pump discharge.

Answer 359

359. 5 % accuracy

Question 360

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
360. A pitot tube with knife edge and air chamber rated from 0 to at least _____ psi is required if a flowmeter is not used.

Answer 360

360. 160 psi

Question 361

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers:
361. Two 6-foot lengths of ____-inch diameter, ______psi hose with screw fittings and gauges. These gauges are connected to fittings at the pump panel.

Answer 361

361. ¼ inch diameter. 300 psi hose

Question 362

To perform fire pump service testing safely, personnel should:
362. Wear protective head gear, eyewear, gloves, and hearing protection if noise levels have the potential to reach or exceed _____ decibels (dB).

Answer 362

362. 90 decibels

Question 363

363. If it is not running at the correct speed (plus or minus _____ rpm), the apparatus should be evaluated by a qualified mechanic before any further tests are performed. (P524)

Answer 363

363. 50 rpm

Question 364

364. According to NFPA® 1911, fire pumps of 1,250 gpm capacity must achieve prime in ____ seconds or less, and those rated at 1,500 gpm must be primed within _____ seconds.

Answer 364

364. 30 seconds or less. 45 seconds

Question 365

365. Pumpers with an onboard tank capacity of 500 gallons or less must be capable of flowing ______ gpm from their onboard tank.

Answer 365

365. 250 gpm

Question 366

366. Pumpers with a capacity of greater than 500 gallons must be capable of flowing at least ____ gpm.

Answer 366

366. 500 gpm

Question 367

367. Any apparatus that achieves results less than _____ percent of its originally rated capabilities has two options for continued use: It may be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities and tested again, or the apparatus may be given a lower rating based on the results of the most recent testing.

Answer 367

367. 90 percent

Question 368

368. ** The amount of force exerted by the hydraulic fluid depends on the hydraulic system pressure and the piston surface area. The larger the piston area, the more upward force is produced. Normal hydraulic pressure is from ______to ______ psi.

Answer 368

368. 850 to 3000 psi

Question 369

369. ** In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ____ to ____ ft.

Answer 369

369. 50 to 137 feet

Question 370

370. TQ** The required minimum floor area of a platform is _____ square feet. Each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no opening under the railing greater than ____ inches.

Answer 370

370. 14 sq feet. 24 inches

Question 371

371. NFPA 1901 requires a __________________________be provided on the bottom of the platform. Firefighters in the platform can operate this nozzle using a quick-actuating lever on the platform floor. NFPA® 1901 requires the nozzle to flow at least ____ gpm.(P557)

Answer 371

371. protective water fog curtain nozzle, 75 gpm

Question 372

372. TQ** All elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of ____ pounds when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within its normal range of motion, and with no water in the piping system. This load requirement drops to ______ pounds when the water delivery system is charged.

Answer 372

372. 750 pounds. 500 pounds

Question 373

373. The water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least ____ gpm at___ psi nozzle pressure when the aerial device is in any position.

Answer 373

373. 1000 gpm at 100 psi

Question 374

374. ** Elevating platforms that are 110 feet or shorter should be able to be raised from the bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in _____ seconds or less.

Answer 374

374. 150 seconds

Question 375

375. There is no time requirement for elevating platforms taller than _____ feet.

Answer 375

375. 110 feet

Question 376

376. TQ* The articulating or telescoping devices most commonly combined with pumpers generally range in height from ____ to _____ feet. (P16.)

Answer 376

376. 50 to 75 feet

Question 377

377. Aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from ____ to ____ feet.

Answer 377

377. 85 to 110 feet

Question 378

378. Common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in use in North America range from __ to ___ feet.

Answer 378

378. 75 to 100 feet

Question 379

379. ** In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ___ to ____ ft.

Answer 379

379. 50 to 137 feet

Question 380

380. Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___ feet.

Answer 380

380. 55 to 85 feet

Question 381

382. • __________________________ are used to discharge elevated master streams for fire attack from the aerial device. (P566) (Not pre piped waterways.)

Answer 381

381. 50 to 130 feet. 1000 to 5000 gpm

Question 382

381. Most water towers are designed so that their fire streams may be deployed at a range of elevations starting from a few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degree from the ground. Common sizes for these devices range from ___ to ____ feet. They are capable of maximum flows ranging from ______ to _____ gpm.

Answer 382

382. Water delivery systems

Question 383

383. The oldest type of pre-piped aerial ladder waterway is the______________, which is a section of pipe, usually 3 or 3 1⁄2 inches in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed (base) section of the aerial ladder. (P567)

Answer 383

383. Bed ladder pipe

Question 384

384. ** Ladders that are _____ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section.

Answer 384

384. 110 feet or shorter

Question 385

385. ** Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ______ gpm. (P568)

Answer 385

385. 1000 gpm

Question 386

386. Detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than ____ gpm.

Answer 386

386. 750 gpm

Question 387

387. ** Most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ degrees either side of center. (P571)

Answer 387

387. 15 degrees

Question 388

388. ** Because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping on these systems may be larger, and flows of up to ______ gpm are possible on some models.

Answer 388

388. 2,000 gpm

Question 389

389. ** Some water towers also have an optional piercing nozzle at the end of the aerial device. This hardened steel nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs. Once the nozzle pierces the structure, a broken stream nozzle at its tip may be charged at the operator’s control panel. This stream is capable of flows up to _____ gpm.

Answer 389

389. 300 gpm

Question 390

390. Electrical power cords are needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment. Common recommended lengths should not exceed ____ feet per reel or cord.

Answer 390

390. 200 feet

Question 391

391. Hose distances ______ feet or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.

Answer 391

391. 100 feet

Question 392

392. Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ____ feet or longer to reach fourth-or fifth-story windows that are not accessible with the main aerial device. These ladders are also called “pole” ladders. Due to the extreme weight and awkwardness of this type of ground ladder, these ladders are equipped with “staypoles” or “tormentors” for stability and leverage during the raising of the ladder.

Answer 392

392. 40 feet or longer

Question 393

393. • Loss control starts from ________________________________and continues throughout the entire incident. (P579)

Answer 393

393. the minute companies leave the station

Question 394

394. Since the tiller axle is a steering axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed ____” on a 20” wheel, or ____ degrees on any other sized steering wheel.

Answer 394

394. 2 inches. 10 degrees

Question 395

395. TQ** When testing the emergency power unit (EPU), the main hydraulic system should be disengaged and a control valve must be open before turning on the pump to prevent ____________.

Answer 395

395. Deadheading

Question 396

396. ** Aerial apparatus placement on the fireground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have a fixed maximum length, as opposed to pumpers and other fire apparatus that may carry _______ feet of fire hose and can attach more length if they need to be positioned at a great distance from the fire. (P609)

Answer 396

396. 1000 feet

Question 397

397. TQ** Moderate to high winds impose a ___________ on the aerial device and may reduce the overall stability by forcing movement for which the apparatus was not designed.

Answer 397

397. Dynamic load

Question 398

398. ** Electricity will arc across a gap as large as ____ feet, and all overhead wires or cables should be considered hazardous and dangerous.

Answer 398

398. 10 feet

Question 398

399. ** The long-standing fire service standard has been to provide 10 feet of clearance between the aerial device and overhead high-voltage lines energized from _____ to ______ volts, and 50 feet of clearance for high-voltage transmission lines over ________ volts.

Answer 398

399. 600 to 50,000 volts. Over 50,000 volts

Question 399

400. Do not work within ____ feet of high-voltage transmission lines.

Answer 399

400. 50 feet

Question 400

401. ** NOTE: OSHA recently revised their overhead power line clearances for the construction industry. The new standard requires ____ feet between the device and overhead electric lines of less than 350 kilovolts. For high tensions lines of over 350 kilovolts, OSHA requires _____ feet of clearance.

Answer 400

401. 20 feet. 50 feet

Question 400

402. ** Jack-knifing involves turning the tractor at an angle from the trailer. Greatest stability occurs when this angle is approximately ___° from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle. Good stability occurs at angles up to ___°. Beyond ___° stability decreases rapidly.

Answer 400

402. 60 degrees. 90 degrees. 90 degrees

Question 401

403. • _____________ are those factors that work against the aerial device’s strength. (P621)

Answer 401

403. Stresses

Question 402

404. • When approaching from the uphill side, the apparatus should park______________, and operate the aerial device from the rear of the truck. (P622)

Answer 402

404. past the building

Question 403

405. • When approaching from the downhill side, apparatus should be stopped__________________, and the aerial should be operated over the cab. (P622)

Answer 403

405. short of the building

Question 403

406. • NOTE: If the truck only has two jacks then the direction in which it can be stabilized on the grade is fairly limited. It needs to be facing____________. (P622)

Answer 403

406. facing uphill

Question 404

407. ** The maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___° and ____° from horizontal.

Answer 404

407. 70 degrees and 80 degrees from horizontal

Question 405

408. ** Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ____ feet from the tracks when possible.

Answer 405

408. 25 feet

Question 406

409. ** If it becomes absolutely necessary to raise an aerial device across a railroad track, confirm with the railroad company that train traffic has been halted on that set of tracks. Even when a halt confirmation has been received, keep the aerial device at least ____ feet above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.

Answer 406

409. 25 feet

Question 407

410. • The apparatus ________________process is perhaps the most critical aspect of preparing an aerial device for use. (P641)

Answer 407

410. stabilization

Question 408

411. ** When parked, with the aerial device in its stowed position, the apparatus has a center of gravity located somewhere along the _____________________ of the chassis, between the front and rear axles.

Answer 408

411. Longitudinal midline

Question 409

412. ** The type of PTO activation switch varies from manufacturer to manufacturer and may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, or a combination of these three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from _____ to _____ psi air pressure for the PTO to be operated, depending on the manufacturer.

Answer 409

412. 50 to 140 psi

Question 410

413. • All operators on an aerial device should be equipped with fall restraint ladder belt and tether. This ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the NFPA________, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services.

Answer 410

413. NFPA 1983

Question 411

414. • Use the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder pipe use: 75 degree elevation, 80 percent extended length, and 80 psi nozzle pressure for a ___________tip.

Answer 411

414. 1 1⁄2-inch tip

Question 412

415. • Use ladder pipes ______________to the rungs on older units, with a maximum lateral movement of _____________ to either side, if lateral movement is allowed. Many new models offer a 180 degree sweep.

Answer 412

415. Perpendicular, 15 degrees

Question 413

416. • ________stabilizers are the most common stabilizers used on newer apparatus. (P654)

Answer 413

416. Box stabilizers

Question 414

417. Correction of lateral unevenness is possible on grades of up to ____ percent (app. 3 degrees), although this can vary depending on the aerial device (check the operators manual for specific vehicle information, for example, some older trucks may be much less than this).

Answer 414

417. 5 percent

Question 415

418. A slope of ____ percent means that there is a rise in terrain height of 5 feet for every run of 100 feet of distance.

Answer 415

418. 5 percent

Question 416

420. ** All operators on an aerial device should be equipped with fall restraint ladder belt and tether. This ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the NFPA _________, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services.

Answer 416

419. One-half

Question 416

419. ** Check the manufacturer’s requirements for aerial device loading on grades. Most have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as _________ the normal load, and if in the red zone (unsafe load), do not operate the aerial device.

Answer 416

420. NFPA 1983

Question 417

421. ** Use the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder pipe use: 75 degree elevation, 80 percent extended length, and 80 psi nozzle pressure for a _____-inch tip.

Answer 417

421. 1 ½ inch tip

Question 418

422. ** Use ladder pipes _______________ to the rungs on older units, with a maximum lateral movement of 15 degrees to either side, if lateral movement is allowed. Many new models offer a 180 degree sweep.

Answer 418

422. Perpendicular

Question 419

423. • True __________________ are permanently attached nozzle systems that can be operated from either the tip of the aerial or one section (fly) lower. (P687)

Answer 419

423. pinnable waterways

Question 420

424. ** The limit of ice build-up allowed by NFPA® 1901 is _____ inch on all surfaces.

Answer 420

424. ¼ inch

Question 421

425. 1 cubic inch of ice = _______ lb.

Answer 421

425. 0.03 lb

Question 422

426. ** Keep aerial device, vehicle, and personnel _____ feet from power lines (if voltage is not known) and _____ feet (____ feet, if possible) from power lines if voltage is 350 Kilovolts or less.

Answer 422

426. 50 feet. 10 feet. 20 feet

Question 423

427. ** When removing trapped victims from a roof (or other similarly open, flat areas), the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so that at least ______feet extends above the edge of the roof.

Answer 423

427. 6 feet

Question 424

428. Rope and hardware used with the lifting eye(s) should be appropriate for the load being lifted, should comply with NFPA _____, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, and should be rigged by an individual trained in proper rope rescue techniques such as those found in NFPA ______, Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search and Rescue Incidents.

Answer 424

428. NFPA 1983. NFPA 1670

Question 425

429. ** The best way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream is to try to deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room. Water deflection can be accomplished by positioning the aerial device so that the nozzle is about even with the bottom of the window. This position allows water to enter the area at an angle of about _______ degrees.

Answer 425

429. 30 degrees

Question 426

430. ______________ — Geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level. The location may be either above, below, or at sea level. (Glossary)

Answer 426

430. Altitude

Question 427

431. _________— Height of a point above sea level or some other reference point. (Glossary)

Answer 427

431. Elevation

Question 428

432. _____________________— Electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level.

Answer 428

432. Load Management System

Question 429

433. _____________— Device that “watches” an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system.

Answer 429

433. Load Monitor

Question 429

434. _____________— Device in an electrical system that turns on lights at specified intervals so that the start-up load for all the devices does not occur at the same time.

Answer 429

434. Load Sequencer

Question 430

435. _________________ — When an overload condition occurs, the load monitor shuts down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload.

Answer 430

435. Load Shedding

Question 431

436. _________________— Fire hydrant outlet that is 4 inches in diameter or larger.

Answer 431

436. Pumper Outlet Nozzle

Question 432

437. _________________— Large-diameter outlet, usually 4 1⁄2 inches, at a hydrant or at the base of an elevated water storage container.

Answer 432

437. Steamer Connection

Question 433

438. ________________ — Twisting action or an applied force resulting in a rotational twist.

Answer 433

438. Torsional Stress

Question 434

439. ______________— (1) Force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion. (2) Measurement of engine shaft output. (3) Force that produces or tends to produce a twisting or rotational action.

Answer 434

439. Torque