Matts Driver Bible STRATEGYFull and Final Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ____________ ends with control of the incident, transfer of command to a battalion or district chief, or expansion of the incident management system to a higher level involving additional units and agencies.(S1)
A
  1. initial response
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2
Q
  1. _____________ describes the meeting point between fire science, materials science, fluid dynamics of gases, and heat transfer. (S9)
A
  1. Fire dynamics
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3
Q
  1. _______________is the study of matter and energy and includes chemistry and physics. (S9)
A
  1. Physical science
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4
Q
  1. ** The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius is ______ joules. (S11)
A
  1. 4.2 joules
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5
Q
    • Fuels hold a certain amount of potential energy before ignition, based on chemical composition. This potential energy available for release in the combustion process is known as the________________________. (S10-11.)
A
  1. heat of combustion
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6
Q
  1. ** A Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1 degree Fahrenheit. When comparing joules and Btu, _______ J = 1 Btu. (S11)
A
  1. 1055 J = 1 BTU
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7
Q
  1. In the case of_____________, there is no well-defined inlet or outlet, as the air is entrained (drawn in) from all around the burning fuel. (S14)
A
  1. open burning
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8
Q
  1. _______________________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of _________________ causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2 percent _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (S15)
A
  1. Carbon monoxide
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9
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent, irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory tract and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. _______________ is a suspected carcinogen. (S15)
A
  1. Formaldehyde
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10
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless, toxic, and flammable liquid below 79° F, produced by the combustion of nitrogen-bearing substances. It is a chemical asphyxiant that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen. It is commonly encountered in smoke in concentrations lower than carbon monoxide. (S15)
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide
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11
Q
  1. _____________________ = Reddish-brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (S15)
A
  1. Nitrogen dioxide
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12
Q
  1. ___________________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to particulates can cause eye irritation and respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).
A
  1. Particulates
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13
Q
  1. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. ______________ is toxic and corrosive, and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (S15)
A
  1. Sulfer dioxide
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14
Q
  1. ** CO molecules attach to hemoglobin, decreasing the blood’s ability to carry oxygen, as it combines with hemoglobin about __________times more effectively than oxygen.
A
  1. 200 times
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15
Q
  1. ** _____________________is a toxic and flammable substance produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen.
A
  1. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
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16
Q
  1. Incomplete combustion of substances that contain nitrogen and carbon produces ____.
A
  1. HCN
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17
Q
  1. Smoke frequently contains ______, although at lower concentrations than CO.
A
  1. HCN
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18
Q
  1. ** HCN is a significant byproduct of the combustion of ____________________ used in many household furnishings.
A
  1. Polyurethane foam
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19
Q
  1. ** HCN is ____ times more toxic than CO.
A
  1. 35 times
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20
Q
    • HCN acts as a chemical asphyxiant with a different mechanism of action than CO. HCN prevents the body from using oxygen at the _________ level.
A
  1. Cellular
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21
Q
  1. CO2 is a product of complete combustion of __________ materials.
A
  1. Organic materials
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22
Q
  1. Inhaled __________ enters the bloodstream and prevents the blood cells from using oxygen properly, killing the cells.
A
  1. Inhaled HCN
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23
Q
  1. CO2 acts as a respiratory _____________.
A
  1. Stimulant
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24
Q
  1. A working knowledge of fire dynamics requires an understanding of temperature, energy, and power or___________________. (S18)
A
  1. heat release rate (HRR)
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25
Q
  1. ** More than ____________ irritants in smoke have been identified, including hydrogen chloride, formaldehyde, and acrolein.
A
  1. Twenty irritants
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26
Q
  1. _______is the thermal kinetic energy needed to release a fuel’s potential chemical energy. (S18)
A
  1. Heat
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27
Q
  1. ____________energy is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions. (S19)
A
  1. Chemical
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28
Q
  1. __________________, a form of oxidation, is a chemical reaction that increases the temperature of a material without adding external heat. (S19)
A
  1. Self-heating
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29
Q
  1. Self-heating can lead to___________________, ignition without the addition of external heat. (S19)
A
  1. spontaneous ignition
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30
Q
  1. ____________ frequently causes exposure fires. (S24)
A
  1. Radiation
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31
Q
    • The rate at which heat transfers relates to the temperature differential of the objects and the _____________________of the materials involved. (S21)
A
  1. thermal conductivity
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32
Q
  1. Table 1.6 shows the thermal conductivity of common materials at the same ambient temperature (68° F). For example, copper will conduct heat more than _______ times faster than steel. Likewise, steel is nearly ______ times as thermally conductive as concrete. ______ is the least able of most substances to conduct heat, so it is a good insulator.
A
  1. seven, forty, Air
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33
Q
  1. ** Power indicates the rate at which energy transfers. Another way to describe power is the rate at which energy converts between forms. The standard international (SI) unit for power is the ______. One _____ is 1 joule per second (J/s). (S25)
A
  1. watt (W). watt
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33
Q
  1. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______° F present a significant flammability hazard.(S28)
A
  1. 100 degrees
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34
Q
    • A fuel’s __________influences its heat of combustion and HRR. The fuel’s _____________________ equals the total amount of thermal energy released when a specific amount of that fuel burns. (S25)
A
  1. chemical content, heat of combustion
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35
Q
  1. ______ represents the energy released per unit of time as a fuel burns, usually expressed in kilowatts (kW) or megawatts (MW). (S25)
A
  1. HRR
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36
Q
  1. FLASH POINT OF GASOLINE IS: ______ degrees F. (S28)
A
  1. -45 degrees F
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36
Q
  1. FIRE POINT OF GASOLINE IS: _____ to ____degrees F. (S28)
A
  1. -40 to -35 degrees F
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37
Q
  1. Materials ___________ in water will mix in any proportion. (S29)
A
  1. miscible
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38
Q
  1. __________ describes the extent to which a substance (in this case a liquid) will mix with water. (S29)
A
  1. Solubility
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39
Q
  1. ** Pyrolysis of wood begins at temperatures below ______° F, lower than the temperature required for ignition of the released vapors. (S29)
A
  1. Below 400 degrees
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40
Q
  1. ** Normally, air consists of about ___ percent oxygen. (S31)
A
  1. 21 percent
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40
Q
  1. ** When the atmosphere’s oxygen concentration exceeds _____ percent, the atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched and presents an increased fire risk. (S32)
A
  1. 23.5 percent
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41
Q
  1. ** When placed in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere of approximately _____ percent oxygen, Nomex® ignites and burns vigorously. (S32)
A
  1. 31 percent
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41
Q
    • Ignition of PUF occurs at ____ F. Auto-ignition of PUF can occur at temperatures in the range of ____ F to ____F. (PUF = Polyurethane Foam) (S30)
A
  1. 698°, 797° to 833°
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42
Q
  1. ** At normal ambient temperatures (68° F), materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as ___ percent. (S32)
A
  1. 15 percent
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42
Q
  1. ** Typically, an atmosphere having less than _____ percent oxygen is considered oxygen-deficient and presents a hazard to persons not wearing respiratory protection, such as SCBA. (S32)
A
  1. 19.5 percent
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43
Q
  1. Methane FR = ___%-___%
A
  1. Methane FR = 5%-15%
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44
Q
  1. Propane FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Propane FR = 2.1% - 9.5%
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45
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide FR = ___% -___%
A
  1. Carbon Monoxide FR = 12% -75%
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46
Q
  1. Gasoline FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Gasoline FR = 1.4% - 7.4%
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47
Q
  1. Ethanol FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Ethanol FR = 3.3% - 19%
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48
Q
  1. Diesel FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Diesel FR = 1.3% - 6%
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49
Q
  1. Methanol FR = ___% - ___%
A
  1. Methanol FR = 6% - 35.5%
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50
Q
    • The self-sustained chemical reaction involved in flaming combustion is complex. As flaming combustion occurs, the molecules of a fuel gas and oxygen (O2) break apart to form ________________ (electrically charged, highly reactive parts of molecules). (S33)
A
  1. free radicals
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51
Q

The hot gases in the plume rise until they encounter the compartment ceiling and then spread horizontally. This flow of fire gases is the____________. (S36)

A
  1. ceiling jet
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52
Q
  1. ** A visual indicator that a fire is leaving the incipient stage is flame height. When flames reach ____ ft high, radiated heat begins to transfer more heat than convection.(S36)
A
  1. 2.5 feet high
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53
Q
    • When the fuel package is not in the middle of the room, the _________________(the area where air is available to feed the fire) expands vertically, and a higher plume results. (S37)
A
  1. combustion zone
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54
Q
  1. Once the ceiling jet reaches the walls of the fire compartment, the _________ begins to develop. __________________ is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, gas density, and pressure. (S38)
A
  1. hot gas layer, Thermal layering
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55
Q
    • Changes in ventilation and _____________ can significantly alter thermal layering. (S38)
A
  1. flow path
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56
Q
    • The appearance of isolated flames is sometimes an immediate indicator of___________________. (S39)
A
  1. flashover
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57
Q
  1. ** As flashover occurs, the gas temperatures in the room reach ________° F or higher. (S42)
A
  1. 1,100 degrees
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58
Q
  1. ** During flashover, the volume of burning gases can increase from approximately ____ to _____ of the room’s upper volume to fill the entire volume and extend out of any openings. (S42)
A
  1. ¼ to ½ of the rooms upper volume
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59
Q
  1. ** NOTE: The autoignition temperature of CO, the most abundant fuel gas created in most fires, is approximately _________ ° F. (S43)
A
  1. 1,100 degrees
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60
Q
    • Survival rates for firefighters are extremely low in a flashover. At the floor level, a heat flux of approximately _____ kW/m2 is also typical of rollover conditions at the start of the flashover. Once flames affect a surface, the heat flux could range from ____ to ____ kW/m2. For frame of reference on heat flux, consider that NIST testing conducted in 2013 has shown that SCBA facepieces begin to fail after ______ minutes of exposure to a heat flux of ______ kW/m2. (S43)
A
  1. 20 kW/m2, 60 to 200 kW/m2, five minutes, 15 kW/m2
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61
Q
    • The ___________________stage occurs when the fire’s HRR has peaked because of a lack of either fuel or oxygen. (S46)
A
  1. fully developed
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62
Q
  1. Firefighters working in the exhaust portion of the flow path will feel the temperature rise as the velocity and/or turbulence increases, causing increased_______________________________. ________________________________ is a similar phenomenon to wind chill, except energy transfers from a hot fluid (gas) to a solid surface (PPE). (S50)
A
  1. convective heat transfer, Convective heat transfer
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63
Q
  1. ** WARNING: Wind-driven conditions can occur in any type of structure. Wind speeds as low as ___ mph can create wind-driven fire conditions. (S52)
A
  1. 10 mph
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64
Q
    • Any open space with no complete, dividing fire barrier is considered a______________. (S58)
A
  1. compartment
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65
Q
  1. ** In single-family residential structures, the square footage of houses increased over ____ percent between 1973 and 2008. (S58)
A
  1. 150 percent
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66
Q
  1. ** For steel trusses, _____° F is the critical temperature of steel — the temperature at which steel begins to weaken. (S60)
A
  1. 1000 degrees
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67
Q
    • An arched or curved outline often indicates a ______________roof. * Before 1960, the ________________ roof design was one of the most common design types for large commercial and industrial structures. (S61)
A
  1. bowstring truss, bowstring truss
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68
Q
    • Prefire surveys should provide information on hidden construction features and should be consulted during __________ and operations. (S61)
A
  1. size-up
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69
Q
  1. Type I — _________________.
A
  1. Fire-resistive
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70
Q
  1. Type II —____________________________.
A
  1. Noncombustible/limited combustible.
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71
Q
  1. Type III — ________________.
A
  1. Ordinary.
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72
Q
  1. Type IV — ________________.
A
  1. Heavy timber.
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73
Q
  1. Type V — _________________.
A
  1. Wood frame.
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74
Q
  1. ** In Type I construction, all structural members consist of _______________ materials with high fire-resistance ratings, unless exempted by the building code. (S72)
A
  1. Noncombustible
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75
Q
    • Type ___ constructions are composed of noncombustible or protected noncombustible materials. (S72)
A
  1. Type II
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76
Q
    • Non-wood materials used in Type IV construction must have a fire-resistance rating of at least_____________. (S74.)
A
  1. one hour
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77
Q
  • ______________is defined as solid, built-up, panelized, or engineered wood products having minimum dimensions as set forth by the code. (S74)
A
  1. Mass timber
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78
Q
    • Type IV construction materials now include___________________, an engineered wood product in which two or more pieces of timber are laminated together using durable adhesives. (S74)
A
  1. laminated timber
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79
Q
  1. *In____________________________, the laminates layer with the grain to produce larger and longer members. (S74)
A
  1. glue-laminated timber (glulam)
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80
Q
  1. *In________________________________, laminates are glued with the grain alternating at 90-degree angles for each layer. (S74)
A
  1. cross-laminated timber (CLT)
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81
Q
  1. *________________, an assembly of two wood flanges connected by a wooden web, are used extensively in residential floor and roof framing. The web is made of 3/8-inch or 7/16-inch plywood. (S76)
A
  1. I-joists (Not I-Beam!)
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82
Q
    • Since 2012, the International Residential Code (IRC) has required that _______inch gypsum board or equivalent protection be provided on the underside of floor framing members less than 2 x 10 inches nominal or larger framing members. (S76)
A
  1. 1/2-inch
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83
Q
  1. ** Since _______, manufactured homes must meet the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (HUD Code). (S77)
A
  1. 1976
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84
Q
  1. The HUD Code requires ______________ homes to be constructed on a chassis. (S77)
A

Manufactured

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85
Q
  1. _____________homes are also known as systems-built homes. Factory-built modules or sections are transported to and assembled at the housing site. (S77)
A
  1. Modular
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86
Q
    • Unlike manufactured homes, __________homes conform to the same state, local, or regional building codes as site-built homes. (S77)
A
  1. modular homes
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87
Q
  1. ** Use of asbestos has decreased dramatically in the U.S. since the ______, but asbestos exposure is still a concern in older buildings.
A
  1. 1970s
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88
Q
    • In addition to a building’s construction type, information about the structure’s ________________________ enables firefighters to better deal with emergency incidents. (S77)
A
  1. interior arrangement
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88
Q
  1. ** NFPA _______, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting.
A
  1. NFPA 1851
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89
Q
  1. ** Standard ceilings rise ___ to ___ feet and vaulted or cathedral ceilings may reach higher than ____ feet. (S78)
A
  1. 8 to 12 feet. 13 feet
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90
Q
    • Some open office floor plans subdivide by partitions into individual workstations or cubicles. These partitions generally stand __ to __ feet and may not be secured to the floor or to a permanent wall. (S78)
A
  1. 4 to 6 feet
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91
Q
  1. ** Compartmentation is typical in _______ residential and commercial structures, office buildings, and schools. (S79)
A
  1. Pre-1980
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92
Q
  1. A ______________or void is a nonoccupied area created by building construction. (S79)
A
  1. concealed space
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93
Q
  1. Noncombustible materials and _______________ can help to reduce the fire hazard in concealed spaces.(S79)
A
  1. firestopping
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94
Q
  1. __________________ provide a structure with passive insulation and sound barriers. They also provide paths for HVAC _____________ and other duct work. (S79)
A
  1. Concealed spaces, plenums
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95
Q
  1. The space between the top floor of a structure and the roof is known as the ______ or ____________. (S80)
A
  1. attic of cockloft
96
Q
    • A __________ is a large, concealed space between the top floor ceiling and the underside of a roof deck in a commercial building or flat roof spaces. This non occupied space is normally 2 to 3 feet in height. (S80)
A
  1. cockloft
97
Q
  1. __________________ roofs (also known as lamella roofs) come from relatively short timbers of uniform length. (S83)
A
  1. Trussless arched
98
Q
  1. ** Ceiling height of a typical basement is approximately ___ to ___ feet, allowing the fire to rise rapidly. (S81)
A
  1. 8 to 9 feet
99
Q
  1. Energy conservation and___________________________ , such as photovoltaic and vegetative roof systems, present additional hazards for firefighters. (S84)
A
  1. alternative energy features
100
Q
    • High-rise buildings and/or any Type I building are not as likely to collapse, making falling glass from windows or ____________ the primary hazard. (S88)
A
  1. curtain walls
100
Q
  1. ** When exposed to temperatures above _________° F , unprotected steel expands and twists, pushing out walls, and slightly constricts when cooled. (S89)
A
  1. 1000 degrees
101
Q
  1. ** Steel expands .06 percent to .07 percent in length for each _____° F rise in temperature. It expands up to 9.5 inches when exposed to temperatures above 1,000° F and fails at ________° F. (S89)
A
  1. 100 degree rise, 1,200° F
102
Q
  1. ** _____ steel is the most commonly used structural steel in the United States. (S96)
A
  1. A36 steel
102
Q
  1. ______________________ products include wood joists, glulam, and laminates. (S93)
A
  1. Engineered wood
103
Q

Examples of composite building materials include: (S93)
550. *____________________— Small pieces of wood joined into longer boards using epoxy resins and glues. (S93)

A
  1. Finger-jointed timber
104
Q

Examples of composite building materials include: (S93)
551. *______________________— Also known as plywood or glulam wood, these sheets of wood are often used for roof and floor decking, walls, and stair treads. (S93)

A
  1. Laminated timber
105
Q

Examples of composite building materials include: (S93)
552. *______________________— Another type of laminated wood product, MDF resembles hardwood. It is used for doors and door-surrounds, decorative moldings, rails, skirtings, and cornices. (S93)

A
  1. Medium density fiberboard (MDF)
106
Q

Examples of composite building materials include: (S93)
553. *______________________— Made from small particles and flakes generated in the manufacture of lumber, ______________ is used for wall panels and furniture. Urea formaldehyde helps bind _______________ and can pose a health hazard due to off-gassing when heated. (S93)

A
  1. Particle board
107
Q
  1. _________ is the primary material used for structural support in large buildings. (S94)
A
  1. Steel
107
Q
    • Gypsum’s high water content gives it excellent heat-resistant and fire-retardant properties. It breaks down gradually under fire conditions through______________. (S98)
A
  1. calcination
107
Q

Examples of composite building materials include: (S93)
554. *____________________— Produced in sheets and boards, this material is made from recycled plastic. _____________________ is primarily used for exterior rails, stairs, and decks. (S93)

A
  1. Synthetic wood, Synthetic wood
108
Q

Steel loses strength at around ____° F. (S96)

A
  1. 570 degrees
108
Q
  1. ___________________ — Most comes from approximately 80 percent post-consumer recycled newspaper by weight; the rest is composed of fire-retardant chemicals and acrylic binders in some products. Over time, _______ loses its ability to be fire-retardant. It is also a respiratory irritant. (S100)
A
  1. Cellulose
108
Q
  1. ** After flashover, structural steel supports less than ____ percent of its designed load and could fail at any time. (S96)
A
  1. 40 percent
109
Q
    • ________gypsum board contains vermiculite that expands when exposed to heat.(S98)
A
  1. Type C
109
Q
  1. ** Lath and plaster construction is generally found in buildings constructed before ____. (S98)
A
  1. Before 1950
109
Q
    • ________ gypsum board includes glass fibers that act as reinforcement. The glass fibers provide tensile strength for the inner gypsum core and prevent its deterioration when exposed to fire. (S98)
A
  1. Type X
110
Q
    • NFPA________, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting. (S100)
A
  1. NFPA 1851
111
Q
  1. ____________________________________— Originally used in the 1970s for insulating walls, this material caused high levels of formaldehyde emissions when improperly installed. It may still appear in some older houses. (S100)
A
  1. Urea Formaldehyde Foam Insulation (UFFI)
111
Q
  1. ____________________— The term refers to different materials: slag wool and rock wool. Accounting for approximately 80 percent of ___________ produced, slag wool primarily from iron ore blast furnace slag, an industrial waste product. Rock wool is produced from rocks. Prior to the 1960s, ___________ was the most common type of insulation. (S100)
A
  1. Mineral wool, mineral wool, mineral wool
111
Q
  1. ___________________ — It consists of 85 percent recycled ______ and 15 plastic fibers treated with borate, the same flame retardant and insect/rodent repellent used in cellulose insulation. It is as effective as fiberglass or cellulose, has fewer documented health risks than fiberglass, and offers easy installation. It costs more than fiberglass and is widely available. (S100)
A
  1. Cotton
112
Q
  1. __________________ — Used in the exterior walls of hybrid or natural (green) construction buildings and houses. It can be affected by moisture and may become infested by insects and vermin. (S100)
A
  1. Straw
113
Q
  1. __________________ — Applied in rigid boards called extruded and expanded polystyrene (EPS) or blown into wall cavities or voids in spray form. Spray ______ can irritate the respiratory system, has a high toxicity level, and adds to the fuel load. ______ blocks are incorporated into building construction. (S100)
A
  1. Foam
113
Q
  1. Fire retardants can be added to some plastics to reduce their flammability and ignition sensitivity. However, even plastics with low flammability can deteriorate and may give off toxic gases at temperatures above ______° F. (S101)
A
  1. 500° F
114
Q
    • The combustion of _____________ produces hydrogen chloride, the gaseous form of hydrochloric acid. (S101)
A
  1. vinyl chloride
115
Q
  1. An ______________________________ can be defined as the use of all or a portion of a building or structure.(S102)
A
  1. occupancy classification
115
Q
  1. *_______________________________ are one application for plastic in an exterior veneer system. (S101)
A
  1. Exterior insulation and finish systems (EIFS)
116
Q
    • Occupancy types help with ______________ and estimating the fuel load. (S102)
A
  1. rescue profiling
116
Q
  1. _________________________ grant firefighters a reasonable expectation of the hazard level, fire protection requirements, and safety features of a building. (S102)
A
  1. Occupancy classifications
117
Q
    • An assembly occupancy is defined as a building or structure, or any portion thereof, used for the gathering of _________ or more persons, and the occupancy may vary in size and type. (S103)
A
  1. fifty or more persons
118
Q
  1. *A _____________ occupancy is a building or structure, or any portion thereof, which is used for office, professional, or service-type operations. (S103)
A
  1. business
118
Q
  1. _________________ occupancies include hospitals, nursing homes, daycare centers, and detention/ correctional facilities. (S105)
A
  1. Institutional
119
Q
  1. A _________________ occupancy is generally defined as any building used to display or sell merchandise. (S105)
A
  1. Mercantile
120
Q
  1. _____________ occupancies hold nonhazardous materials. The High-Hazard Group ___ classification is used for the storage of hazardous goods above maximum allowable quantities. (S106)
A
  1. Storage, High-Hazard Group H
121
Q
  1. Based on the hazards of stored items, the International Building Code (IBC ®) divides the Storage Group ____occupancy classification into the following two subgroups:
  • ___________-hazard storage, Group S-____ — Contains materials such as clothing, furniture, sugar, and lumber. (S106)
  • ___________ -hazard storage, Group S-____ — Contains materials such as beverages up to and including ______-percent alcohol content, dry cell batteries, and metal parts. (S106)
A
  1. Storage Group S , Moderate-hazard storage, Group S-1, Low-hazard storage, Group S-2, 16-percent alcohol
122
Q
  1. Only the International Code Council codes recognize the _____________________ occupancy classification. (S107)
A
  1. Utility/Miscellaneous Group U
123
Q
  1. ** In 2011-2015, U.S. fire departments responded to an estimated average of ________ structure fires per year in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 30,200 structure fire in vacant properties
124
Q
  1. Fires in __________ buildings are more likely to be intentionally set and spread beyond the building than fires in other structures. (S108)
A
  1. Vacant
125
Q
  1. ** _____ percent of reported structure fires in 2011-2015 were in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 6 percent
126
Q
  1. ** Only ___ percent of civilian structure fire deaths and _____ percent of civilian structure fire injuries resulted from fires in vacant properties. (S108)
A
  1. 2 percent. 1 percent
127
Q
  1. ** ____________ percent of firefighter injuries at structure fires occurred in or at vacant buildings. (S108)
A
  1. Thirteen percent
128
Q
    • A residential or commercial property for sale may be considered ___________when an occupant has moved out. (S108)
A
  1. Unoccupied
129
Q
    • __________residential or commercial property may have entrances secured or boarded up. (S108)
A
  1. Vacant
130
Q
    • An _____________ property has been vacant for some time. (S108)
A
  1. Abandoned
131
Q
  1. __________________ includes the process of gathering and evaluating information, developing initial actions based on that information, and ensuring the information remains current. (S109)
A
  1. Prefire planning
132
Q
  1. Firefighters should be trained in prefire planning and how it affects the delivery of emergency services. To obtain this information, personnel may conduct ______________of target hazards. (S110)
A
  1. prefire surveys
133
Q
  1. Firefighters should know their organization’s process for conducting prefire plans and the required forms and formats the organization uses. NFPA _____, Standard for Pre-Incident Planning, is a helpful resource. (S110)
A
  1. NFPA 1620
134
Q
  1. Building the relationship between the company officer and the business owner/occupants starts the process of completing a successful_______________. (S111)
A
  1. prefire survey
135
Q
  1. Survey information may be recorded on a standardized form, improving chances for gathering essential information. _________________should be made of the structure or facility, showing its size, location, and components. (S113)
A
  1. Field sketches
136
Q
  1. A _______________ is a rough drawing of a building prepared during the facility survey. (S114)
A
  1. field sketch
137
Q
  1. The survey of the facility’s exterior obtains information to create a ______________or compare observations to a ____________. (S114)
A
  1. plot plan, plot plan
138
Q
  1. Site access information should be noted on the survey____________. (S114)
A
  1. plot plan
139
Q
    • Some structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. * NFPA _____, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke-and-heat venting equipment. (S118)
A
  1. NFPA 204
140
Q
  1. _________________ release heat and smoke to the outside through square or rectangular structures that penetrate a building’s roof. (S119)
A
  1. Monitors
141
Q
  1. ____________________applies to all emergency responses and levels of resource commitment. By learning to apply _____________________ skills at single-resource situations, ICs start better prepared to manage more complex situations. (P127)
A
  1. Incident scene management, incident scene management
142
Q
    • The _____________________ establishes an organizational structure for all emergency incidents. (S127)
A
  1. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
143
Q
    • The ____________________ provides a model for safe and efficient incident scene management. (S127)
A
  1. NIMS-Incident Command System (ICS)
144
Q
    • NIMS-ICS bases incident management and coordination on ____ NIMS Management Characteristics (formerly called ICS Management Characteristics). (S128)
A
  1. 14 NIMS Management Characteristics
145
Q
  1. *__________________— Incident management personnel who report directly to the Incident Commander; includes the Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer. (S129)
A
  1. Command Staff
146
Q
  1. *_________________— Incident management personnel who represent the major functional Sections. (S129)
A
  1. General Staff
147
Q
  1. ___________ — Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management includes: — Operations. — Planning. — Logistics. — Finance/Administration. — Information and Intelligence. (S129)
A
  1. Section
148
Q
  1. ____________ — Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizationally located between Section and Division or Group. (S129)
A
  1. Branch
149
Q

____________ — Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; organizationally between Branch and single resources, task force, or strike team (described in the following section). (S129)

A
  1. Division
150
Q
  1. Resources assigned to a Division report to that Division ___________.
A
  1. Supervisor
151
Q
  1. ____________ — Organizational level, equal to Division, having responsibility for a specified functional assignment (such as ventilation, salvage, water supply) at an incident without regard to a specific geographical area. (S129)
A
  1. Group
152
Q
  1. ________________ — Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation ____, within the Planning Section. (S129)
A
  1. Unit
153
Q
    • __________________________ provide an indication of the type (Type I or Type III pumper) and capability of the resources available to the IC for assignment.
A
  1. Resource designations
154
Q
    • ________ — Specified number of personnel assembled for an assignment such as search, ventilation, or hoseline deployment and operations. (S130)
A
  1. Crew
155
Q
  1. *______________— Pieces of apparatus (engine, ladder/truck, water tender, bulldozer, air tanker, and helicopter) and the personnel required to make them functional. (S130)
A
  1. Single resources
156
Q
  1. *_________________— Any combination of resources (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers) assembled for a specific mission or operational assignment. (S131)
A
  1. Task force
157
Q
  1. *__________________— Set number of resources of the same type (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers) with an established minimum number of personnel. All units in the team must have common communications capabilities and a leader in a separate vehicle. Unlike task forces, _______________ remain together and function as a team throughout an incident. (S131)
A
  1. Strike team, strike teams
158
Q
  1. ** According to the 2008 NIMS-ICS model, the span-of-control ratio for ICS ranged from ______ to ______ subordinates per supervisor, with ______ being optimal. (S131)
A
  1. Three to seven. 5 being optimal
158
Q
  1. ** NIMS 2017 suggests an optimal span of control of one supervisor to _____ subordinates. (S131)
A
  1. Five subordinates
159
Q
    • __________________________________objectives are to provide the IC with access to and control over all available resources. (S132)
A
  1. Comprehensive resource management objectives
160
Q
  1. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) categorizes pumping apparatus and mobile water supply apparatus based on __________(Federal Emergency Management Agency, 2005). (S133)
A
  1. Capability
161
Q
    • ________________________ maintain connectivity, achieve situational awareness, and facilitate information sharing. (S134)
A
  1. Integrated communications
162
Q
    • ICS requires an _____________________system that can send and receive information. (S134)
A
  1. integrated communication
163
Q
    • The ICS Form ______ serves as a standard format to record key situational information and document actions taken on an incident. (S138)
A
  1. Form 201
163
Q
    • The __________ acts as the concluding step in the initial size-up decision-making process and leads to the required verbal establishment of command. The fire officer then prepares to utilize the seven components of the_____________, also known as the Initial On-Scene Report or Brief Incident Report (BIR). (S137)
A
  1. 360 Report, Arrival Report
164
Q
    • The IC can use visual aids to help manage and track assigned resources. The visual aid can be as simple as a printed form, called__________________, to sketch the incident scene and the location of units as they arrive. (S142)
A
  1. Tactical Work Sheets
165
Q
  1. ___________________________ provide simple steps and/or user-friendly acronyms to help ensure fireground messages are sent, received, and understood. The ABCs of good communication for transmitting information and orders are “Accurate, Brief, and Concise.” (S143)
A
  1. Communication models
166
Q
    • Position or hold the microphone according to the manufacturer’s recommendations. When transmitting, the radio/microphone goes __ to __ inches from the speaker’s mouth or self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) voice port. (S145)
A
  1. 1 to 2 inches
167
Q
    • The size-up process begins ___________________and continues throughout the incident. (S153)
A
  1. Before an incident gets reported
168
Q
  1. (_______________ starts from the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident.) (P579)
A
  1. Loss control
169
Q
  1. Surrounding risks can be more than buildings. Terrain, railroads, highways, hazmat products, and propane tanks serve as examples of ____________ that influence the decision-making of a company officer/IC. (S155)
A
  1. on-scene risks
170
Q
  1. _______________ indicates the likelihood of occurrence. (S155)
A
  1. Probability
171
Q
    • Accurately predicting what may happen next at a fire scene depends on_________________________, as well as prior knowledge and experience. (S156)
A
  1. situational awareness
172
Q
  1. ____________________ indicates how individuals perceive their surrounding environment. (S156)
A
  1. Situational awareness
173
Q
  1. ________________ can result in rapid fire spread, additional damage, and loss of life. A lack of accountability, command structure, command presence, and knowledge of departmental operations can prompt_________________, which happens when firefighters act independently of incident command and control. (S157)
A
  1. Indecision, freelancing
174
Q
    • The _________________________________follows a logical sequence of identifying the problems, prioritizing the problems, and selecting the best alternatives to solve it. (S157)
A
  1. traditional model of decision-making
175
Q
    • _________________________ provides another way to understand how people make decisions in challenging, real-world settings. ______ challenges the idea that, to make a good decision, people must move from data to information to knowledge to understanding. (S158)
A
  1. Naturalistic Decision-Making (NDM), NDM
176
Q
    • In the 1980s, researcher Gary Klein developed the _________model while studying how fireground commanders make decisions in stressful, time-compressed, and high-risk environments. (S158)
A
  1. RPDM model
177
Q
  1. ICs must move quickly from identifying the problem(s) or incident priorities to determining the strategic goals and implementing the solution.* The strategic goals aim to meet the _______________, which are life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation. (S159)
A
  1. incident priorities
178
Q
    • In fire fighting terms, a decision or strategy becomes a _______when an assignment gets communicated and actions or tasks are employed. (S160)
A
  1. tactic
178
Q
    • _________________serve as specific functions to meet strategic goals. (S160)
A
  1. Tactical objectives
179
Q
    • Without a prefire plan, the _____________________________________may provide the IC with a street view of the address before arrival on scene. (S162)
A
  1. Mobile Data Terminal/Computer (MDT/C)
180
Q
  1. The most intense part of the size-up process occurs ____________________at the incident scene. (S161)
A
  1. upon arrival
181
Q
  1. ________________________provide the foundation for decision-making during emergencies.(S161)
A
  1. Departmental SOPs
182
Q
    • Although fire crews consist of leaders and individual members/followers, the group functions best as a cohesive team. * _______________________________works as a program or approach to use resources effectively. (S170)
A
  1. Crew resource management (CRM)
183
Q
  1. NFPA _____ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program.
A
  1. NFPA 1500
184
Q
  1. ** A modern structural fire can quickly exceed _____° F, creating the potential for flashover (approximately 1,110° F within minutes). (S172)
A
  1. 500 degrees
185
Q
    • In 2010, the Safety, Health, and Survival (SHS) Section of the International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) released its initial draft of___________________________________________________________. (S173)
A
  1. Rules of Engagement for Structural Fire Fighting - Increasing Firefighter Survival
186
Q
  1. ICs should base task assignments on personnel abilities and available resources. In addition, ICs must apply a_________________________ , follow local SOPs for fireground operations, and maintain discipline. (S180)
A
  1. risk-benefit analysis model
187
Q
    • After determining the appropriate level of risk, the IC can decide on an____________________. Traditionally, the fire service uses two types of operation: offensive strategy and defensive strategy. (S184)
A
  1. operational strategy
188
Q
    • Historically, the term ________________________referred to changing from an offensive to a defensive strategy. The term now refers to an offensive fire tactic initiated by applying water from the exterior of the structure as crews advance into the interior. (S185)
A
  1. transitional attack
189
Q
    • During the initial size-up, the IC must consider the number and type of units responding and the___________, the length of time until they are ready to deploy at the scene. (S191)
A
  1. Flextime
190
Q
    • If the incident is large enough to require multiple alarms or agencies for a prolonged period, generally over ____ hours, the IAP should be expanded to a more formal tracking model utilizing standardized ICS forms to record the plan. (S187)
A
  1. 12 hours
190
Q
    • ICs must conduct personnel accountability reports (PARs) to check on the welfare of all firefighters at predictable intervals. These reports are conducted on scene every _____ to _________ minutes in accordance with department SOPs. (S186)
A
  1. ten to twenty minutes
191
Q
    • A wide-area search method employs a dedicated search line to conduct a primary search of a large or complex area filled with smoke. A minimum of ______ team members are required, but larger teams can be more effective. (S201)
A
  1. 3 team members
192
Q
  1. Once strategic objectives are identified, the company officer (CO)/Incident Commander (IC) must determine the ______________ required to accomplish those objectives on the fireground. (S195)
A
  1. tactics
193
Q
  1. ICs often select ________ as a rescue tactic when there is a credible report of possible victims in survivable areas of a structure. (S202)
A
  1. VEIS
193
Q
    • ___________________ are unaffected areas, inside or outside a structure, to which a fire can spread. (S203)
A
  1. Exposures
194
Q
    • ______________refers to the tactical operations required to prevent fire spread in the structure. (S206)
A
  1. Confinement
194
Q
    • Vertical ventilation can pull or change the flow path of fire away from victims inside the structure, a tactic also known as________________. (S207)
A
  1. venting for life
195
Q
    • A ____________________with a solid or straight stream is the most efficient use of water or foam on fuel-controlled fires.(S209)
A
  1. direct attack
195
Q
    • __________________________ is commonly defined as extinguishment through the use of direct and indirect methods. The nozzle is rotated or moved back and forth from the area overhead to the floor and directly onto the fuels. (S210)
A
  1. Combination attack
196
Q
  1. The _______________________ is conducted remotely from the fire, often from the exterior of the building. The nozzle is placed into an opening in the fire compartment and rotated (using a T, O, or Z pattern). (S210)
A
  1. combination attack
196
Q
    • ___________________is a fire fighting operation involving the application of extinguishing agents to reduce the buildup of heat released from a fire. (S210)
A
  1. Indirect attack
197
Q
  1. In a__________________________, the hose stream is directed into the overhead space, out in front of the nozzle team, and on the approach to the seat of the fire. This attack method may be used to cool the area overhead and break up the stream for “rain-down” onto solid fuels ahead. (S210)
A
  1. modified direct attack
198
Q
  1. The objective of the _________________________is to reduce temperatures on the interior to quickly improve interior conditions so that the introduction of oxygen, caused by crew entry, does not cause a ventilation-induced rapid fire development. (S210)
A
  1. transitional attack
199
Q
  1. UL research suggests that firefighters should direct the _______________________________ into the opening utilizing “S-S-S” — straight, steep, and stationary — to maximize water distribution and cooling effects. (S211)
A
  1. exterior transitional stream
199
Q
  1. The __________________________________ limits the potential for rapid fire behavior changes within the flow path as crews advance from the exterior of the structure to the interior. (S211)
A
  1. transitional attack
200
Q
    • The ________________ technique utilizes a solid or straight stream pattern when attacking the fire in a bidirectional flow path. Firefighters apply water to hot compartment surfaces to cool them and reduce heat radiation. (S212)
A
  1. surface cooling
200
Q
    • The __________________ technique utilizes a fog pattern that creates small water droplets. Firefighters apply water in short bursts to the smoke volume while attempting to avoid hot surfaces. (S212)
A
  1. gas cooling
201
Q
  1. ** Deploying a master stream device and the necessary hoselines usually requires a minimum of ____ firefighters. (S213)
A
  1. two
202
Q
  1. Aerial apparatus, such as quints, aerial ladders, and aerial platforms, commonly deliver elevated master streams and rapid water stream applications (sometimes known as______________________________). (S213)
A
  1. quick hits from the device
203
Q
  1. A ___________from the exterior is intended to have the same effect as a transitional attack. (S123)
A
  1. quick hit
204
Q
    • _________________________is the planned, systematic, and coordinated removal of heated air, smoke, gases, or other airborne contaminants from a structure. (S214)
A
  1. Tactical ventilation
204
Q
    • ________________ is a way to proactively counter a possible unplanned ventilation by reducing the exhaust opening. (S216)
A
  1. Door control
205
Q
  1. ________________________ is a combination of the fire size, its location, and the building’s construction. (S216)
A
  1. Structural integrity
206
Q
  1. ** Winds as slow as ____ mph can affect structure fires, potentially making them wind-driven. (S217)
A
  1. 10 mph
207
Q
    • Firefighters can use high-volume fans to exhaust smoke, heat, and toxic gases to the exterior after fire suppression. This tactic is known as____________________________. (S219)
A
  1. positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)
208
Q
    • Unlike positive pressure attack (PPA), the application of PPV requires less emphasis on the__________________________. (S219)
A
  1. exhaust-to-intake ratio
209
Q
  1. Openings within a high-rise building can contribute to a ______________ (natural movement of heat and smoke throughout a building), creating an upward draft and interfering with evacuation and ventilation. (S221)
A
  1. stack effect
210
Q
  1. *______________________ and the development of a hot gas layer can occur when a vertical opening is not large enough to exhaust the smoke and gases. (S221)
A
  1. Horizontal smoke spread
211
Q
  1. *________________________ tactics, horizontal or vertical, must be developed to cope with the ventilation and life hazard problems inherent in stratified smoke. (S221)
A
  1. Mechanical ventilation
212
Q
  1. ** Floor-by-floor smoke control systems are typical in commercial high-rises constructed prior to ______. In these buildings, an activated smoke detector can initiate negative pressure fans on the fire floor and positive pressure fans on the floor directly above and below the fire floor. In the early 1990s, the major building codes began requiring ____________________________ in lieu of floor-by-floor smoke control. (S223)
A
  1. Prior to 1990, pressurized stairwells
213
Q
    • Confining the fire to its compartment or floor of origin is the most important aspect of tactical ventilation in_______________________. Firefighters accomplish this task through____________________. (S223)
A
  1. high-rise buildings, door control
214
Q
  1. ** ______________ and ______________ dictate the order in which crews accomplish tactics. (S224)
A
  1. Staffing and available resources
215
Q
    • If the building has only one stairwell, ventilation becomes increasingly complicated. Firefighters should not perform ventilation via the single stairwell until they have searched and cleared the stairwell from the top floor to at least ________floors below the fire floor. (S226)
A
  1. Five
215
Q
  1. ___________________ is defined as methods and procedures that firefighters use in an attempt to save property and reduce further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure. (S228)
A

Salvage

216
Q
  1. ____________________ include moving contents to a safe location in the structure, removing contents from the structure, and protecting contents in place with salvage covers. (S230)
A
  1. Salvage procedures
217
Q
    • Overhaul operations begin after firefighters have extinguished the main body of the fire. Prior to beginning overhaul, the fire department should make an attempt to determine the cause and point of origin. This is an appropriate time for crews to undergo rehab and_______________________. (S231)
A
  1. medical surveillance
217
Q
  1. ** Fire officers certified to NFPA _____, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, should be able to determine the cause and origin of most fires. (S233)
A
  1. NFPA 1021
218
Q
    • If floor beams have burned ends where they enter a __________ (a load-bearing wall that usually serves as a fire wall), flush the voids in the wall with water. (S233)
A
  1. party wall
219
Q
    • Following basic, _________________________ procedures of all PPE and equipment to remove soot and particulate matter is a best practice for preventing cancer later in life. (S234)
A
  1. gross decontamination